121.12 Flashcards

1
Q

Medical communications is a vital component of pre hospital care. Communications with medical control or a receiving facility should be conducted for every ____ patient.

A

Priority 1

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2
Q

Give 3 examples of personal identifiable info and should it be transmitted over the radio?

A

Name, SSN, Address, Race. No they should not be transmitted.

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3
Q

Hospitals will designate personnel to assess patients brought in by EMS units with the goal of transferring care and releasing unit within ____ of the patients arrival.

A

10 minutes

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4
Q

Upon arrived at ED, provides will not initiate new medical care once they cross the threshold of the facility. True or false?

A

True

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5
Q

In general patient care for a patient with chest pains, you should administer ____ PO if not taken during the previous 24 hours or a known allergy?

A

Aspirin 324mg

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6
Q

What would provider do if a patient’s presentation is atypical and the protocol treatment may not be in the best interest for the patient or in any situation where the EMS provider is not sure about the best treatment for the patient?

A

Contact medical control

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7
Q

What is the dose of albuterol

A

2.5mg

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8
Q

Dose of atrovent?

A

500mcg

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9
Q

A patient with asthma/copd present with respiratory distress with suspected bronchospasm/wheezing. How many times may all providers administer albuterol with atrovent via neb?

A

1 time

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10
Q

For asthma and copd patients the cpap device is started at 10cmH2O with an in-line nebulizer. True or false?

A

False. 5cmH2O

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11
Q

If a patient with a medical history of asthma, and is in extremis you should administer?

A

Epi 1:1,000 IM at .5mg

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12
Q

If a patient is greater than 8 years of age with a blood sugar of ___ and displays signs symptoms of hypoglycemia administer oral glucose 24-50 go SL if the patient is conscious enough to swallow.

A

Less than 70mg/dl

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13
Q

If a narcotic overdose is suspected with a GCS of less than 13 the BLS provider shall administer.

A

2mg of narcan IN that may be repeated twice at same dose

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14
Q

If patient presents with a sever anaphylactic reaction with associated hypo perfusion and or respiratory distress proceed to the following treatment regime.

A

Epi 1:1,000 IM at .5mg

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15
Q

The current hospitals in DC identified as stroke centers are?

A

H5 Howard, H7 Georgetown, H8 GW, H12 Sibley, H13 WHC

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16
Q

What is the department radio channel used to contact poison control and what is the phone number?

A

Channel H-11 1-800-222-1222

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17
Q

In general indication for a referral to the burn center apply to patients with basically _____ or ____ degree burns.

A

2nd 3rd

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18
Q

Consider activation of the ____ (GW Hospital) for a patient involved in an unusual extrication, prolonged crush injury, or possible field amputation.

A

GO Team

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19
Q

____ is a limb and life-threatening condition seen when perfusion pressure falls below tissue pressure in a closed anatomical space in instances of long bone fractures, high energy trauma, crush injuries.

A

Compartment Syndrome

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20
Q

What is the cut off age to take a child with a major burn or major trauma to Children’s national medical center?

A

18 years of age

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21
Q

When does the PDOA protocol not apply to the trauma patient that is pregnant?

A

Greater than 20 weeks pregnant

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22
Q

When the BLS provider contacts medical control, which hospitals are medical control hospitals for patients being transported to them?

A

Each serve as their own medical control for patients being transported to them.

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23
Q

When you have a pediatric patient and need to contact medical control what hospital would you utilize?

A

H02 regardless of transport destination

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24
Q

What does AVPU stand for?

A

Alert verbal painful unresponsive

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25
Q

What are normal vitals signs for an adolescent?

A

Respiration’s 12-24, pulse 60-100, systolic bp greater than 90

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26
Q

To inquire about pertinent past medical history, you may use what acronym? What does each letter stand for?

A

SAMPLE

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27
Q

To effectively maintain awareness of changes in the patients condition repeated assessments are essential and should be performed how often?

A

5 minutes for unstable patients and 15 minutes for stable patients

28
Q

All patients with an amputation should be transported to H04. True or false?

A

False. Closest trauma center.

29
Q

Sexual assault patients less than 18 years of age should be transported where?

A

H02

30
Q

Insufficient respiratory effort includes what clinical findings?

A

Abnormal rate rhythm quality

31
Q

What determines a patients priority level?

A

If a patient is unstable, potential unstable or stable.

32
Q

What hospitals in DC are trauma centers?

A

H04, H05, H08

33
Q

What hospitals have hyperbaric chambers

A

None

34
Q

What are the hospitals codes within DC?

A

H01 UMC, H02 children’s national, H04 Medstar, H05 Howard, H06 PIW, H07 Georgetown, H08 GW, H09 Children’s at UMC, H12 Sibley, H13 WHC, H15 VA

35
Q

An ALS provider may transfer care to a BLS provider even if medication is given by the ALS provider as long as the patient is stable. True or false?

A

True and false. If the Med is within the BLS provider scope of practice. If the Med is outside BLS scope then no.

36
Q

Stable patient with an isolated eye injury should be transported where?

A

H05

37
Q

What are 3 contraindications for aeromedical evacuation of a patient?

A

Cardiac arrest, penetrating trauma to the head, contaminated with hazardous materials, violent patient, if ground was faster

38
Q

What are contraindications when using AED?

A

Responsive patient, palpable pulse, PDOA criteria

39
Q

What are clinical indications for an AED?

A

Unconscious patient, apneic or Agnoal respiration’s, no palpable pulse

40
Q

Vital signs minimally consist of what?

A

Respirations, pulse, skin, cap refill, BP, BGL, pulse ox

41
Q

Patients requiring artificial ventilation or assisted ventilations shall be ventilated with a bvm with ____ supplemental oxygen.

A

Greater than 15lpm

42
Q

Patients exhibiting signs of moderate to sever respiratory distress due to pulmonary edema or near drowning should be placed on what device?

A

CPAP

43
Q

When delivering meds via neb what should the liter flow rate be set at?

A

10lpm

44
Q

The king airway may be considered the initial airway of choice in cardiac arrest patient, but what are three contradictions?

A

Conscious patient, valid MOST Form, airway obstruction.

45
Q

A reading of ___ on the Co oximeter indicates mild Carbon monoxide inhalation.

A

Greater than 12%

46
Q

A reading of ___ on the CO oximeter indicates sever carbon monoxide inhalation.

A

Greater than 25%

47
Q

What are the contraindications of aspirin?

A

Known allergy and taken within the past 24 hours

48
Q

What patients have a medical condition that requires precaution with oxygen?

A

COPD patients

49
Q

Which medication can be administered intranasal by all provider levels?

A

Narcan

50
Q

Narcan is administered to patients who are experiencing what conditions?

A

Narcotic overdose, AMS of unknown origins

51
Q

In PIT crew cpr position 3 is responsible for what three functions?

A

Open/clear airway, insert king, ventilations via bvm

52
Q

In PIT crew cpr position 1 is responsible for what three functions?

A

Assess responsiveness, initiate cpr, alternate cpr with #2

53
Q

What are the contraindications for using the resqpod?

A

Deleted from protocol

54
Q

What is expressed consent?

A

Written or verbal request to be evaluated and or treated.

55
Q

In vfib or pulseless vtach, what is the third dose of amio and over what time?

A

150mg over 5 minutes however no longer in the protocol.

56
Q

In the management of a patient with wife complex tach with a pulse that is unstable, what EKG setting and the initial joules to be delivered?

A

Synchronized cardio version at 200J

57
Q

In the management of a stable symptomatic patient with narrow atrial fibrillation or flutter the initial dose and what drug utilized?

A

Cardizem at .25mg/kg over 2 minutes

58
Q

In the management of adult patient with severe respiratory distress with suspected bronchospasm asthma copd the first drug administered and its dose?

A

.5mg of Epi 1:1,000 IM

59
Q

In a suspects adult beta blocker overdose the dose and drug administered is?

A

1mg glucagon IV every 5 minutes up to a max of 3mg

60
Q

In female with suspected pre-eclampsia without seizure activity you should administer what drug and dose?

A

Oxygen as needed

61
Q

In WMD emergencies with patient with seizure activity from a suspects nerve agent, what is the initial dose of midazolam that can be administered IN?

A

10mg

62
Q

What hospital has the ability to provide hyperbaric medicine?

A

None

63
Q

What are the hours of operations AMR can be utilized to provide transport?

A

0700-0100 hours

64
Q

Describe the criteria for utilizing the NTL.

A

18 years of age or older and able to provide consent. Stable P3 patient. Requires at most BLS care. Able to walk with light assistance at most.

65
Q

If a patient refuses and still wants to go to the ER after the first attempt, what policy must the patient follow?

A

DCFEMS Protocol