12 Anti-Coagulants Flashcards

1
Q

Thrombin (IIa) mediated transformation of fibrinogen (I) to fibrin (Ia) involves activation of what factor?

A

Factor XIII

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2
Q

Role of Thrombin in protein C pathway

A

Thrombin cleaves protein C to activated protein C (APC), which then cleaves factors Va and VIIIa to give inactive products.

Process is accelerated in the presence of protein S and platelets.

Protein C and S are vitamin K dependent.

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3
Q

Factor V Leiden Mutation

A

Most common genetic disorder that increases chance of developing abnormal blood clots–activated protein C (APC) resistance

Don’t degrade clots

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4
Q

Heparin

A
  • highly negatively charged (sulfate and carboxylic acid residues)

Mech:

  • heparin catalyzes inhibition of several coagulation factors (2a, 10a) by antithrombin as a suicide inhibitor
  • heparin increases the rate of thrombin-antithrombin reaction 1000x because induces conformational change in antithrombin making reactive site more accessible to the coagulation factor (proteases)
  • LMWH poorly catalyze inhibition of thrombin

Absorption and Metabolism:

  • not absorbed orally bc large and negatively charged
  • half-life dose dependent
  • cleared by reticuloendothelial system and liver ***
  • anticoagulant choice in pregnancy

Administration:

  • venous thromboembolism (continuous IV)
  • cardiopulmonary bypass (high dose indefinitely)
  • prophylaxis to prevent venous thrombosis (low dose SQ)

AEs:

  • Bleeding
  • Heparin-induced thrombocytopenia

Contraindications:

  • active bleeding
  • recent surgery
  • uncontrolled hypertension

Therapeutic/Clinical Indications:

  • initial treatment/prevention of DVT or pulmonary embolism
  • initial management of unstable angina or acute MI
  • coronary angioplasty, stent replacement, cardiopulmonary bypass
  • hemodialysis
  • anticoagulant of choice during pregnancy
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5
Q

Enoxaparin and Dalteparin

A

Low Molecular Weight Heparin (Anti-coagulant)

Mech:

  • still allows inhibition of factor Xa by antithrombin(like heparin)
  • shortness of chains prevents thrombin inhibition by antithrombin

Kinetics:

  • parenteral
  • uniform absorption
  • longer half-life than heparin (4-6 hours)
  • renal clearance (impairment = bleeding)

AEs:
- lower risk of bleeding and thrombocytopenia

Contraindications:

  • active bleeding
  • recent surgery
  • severe uncontrolled hypertension
  • renal impairment **

Use:

  • acute/prophylaxis of DVT
  • acute unstable angina and MI
  • hip replacement surgery
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6
Q

Lepirudin and Bivalirudin

A

Direct Thrombin Inhibitors

Mech:
- inactivates thrombin by binding its catalytic site and exosite I (substrate recognition)

Kinetics:

  • IV
  • renal excretion

AEs:

  • bleeding/hemorrhage
  • use cautiously with renal failure

Contraindications:

  • active bleeding
  • recent surgery
  • severe uncontrolled hypertension
  • renal disease

Use:
- alternative to heparin in patients who have had heparin-induced thrombocytopenia

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7
Q

Fondaparinux

A

Direct Factor Xa Inhibitor

Mech:
- causes antithrombin-mediated selective inhibition of factor Xa

Kinetics:

  • SQ
  • renal clearance

AEs:

  • bleeding
  • hemorrhage

Contraindications:

  • active bleeding
  • recent surgery
  • severe uncontrolled hypertension
  • renal impairment

Use:

  • DVT prophylaxis (hip/knee/abdominal sx)
  • acute pulmonary embolism
  • acute DVT without PE
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8
Q

Protamine Sulfate

A

Heparin Antagonist

  • LMW positively charged molecule from fish sperm

Mech:

  • chemical antagonist
  • high affinity for negatively charged molecules
  • formation of an inactive complex with heparin

AEs:

  • weak anticoagulant (high dose or used alone)
  • anaphylactic reaction (fish sensitivity/insulin products)
  • severe pulmonary hypertension

Use:

  • heparin overdose with acute bleed that can’t be controlled by stopping heparain
  • reverse heparin following cardiopulmonary bypass
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9
Q

Warfarin

A

Anticoagulant: Vitamin K antagonist

  • fat soluble
  • structural analog of vitamin K
  • administered racemic (S-warfarin more active)

Mech:

  • reduced Vitamin K (KH2) required to catalyze conversion of clotting factor precursors to carboxylic acid derivatives; KH2 oxidized to vitamin K epoxide (KO)
  • KO reduced by vitamin K epoxide reductase (VKORC1) to KH2 to be used again
  • S-warfarin binds VKORC1 and prevents KO reduction to KH2
  • without carboxylated cofactors, results in incomplete coagulation factors molecules that are biologically inactive
  • competitive inhibition at CYP2C9

Absorption and Metabolism:

  • oral admin
  • 99% bound to albumin
  • CYP2C9 clearance

AEs:

  • hemorrhage
  • purple toe syndrome (rare)
  • skin necrosis/gangrene (rare)

Contraindications:

  • CYP2C9 polymorphisms
  • variations in Vit K epoxide reductase complex protein 1 (VKORC1)
  • Teratogenic
  • Liver/Kidney disease or vit K deficiency = prolonged effect

Reversal of Warfarin:

  • INR 2-3: discontinuation for minor bleeding
  • INR >5: administration of vitamin K; delayed effectiveness bc new clotting factors must by synthesized)
  • Immediate reversal: exogenous administration of active clotting factors via transfusion

Drug interactions:

  • very common
  • inc risk of bleeding

Clinical indications:

  • long term tx of venous thromboembolic disease
  • prophylaxis against thromboembolism in atrial fibrillation, prosthetic heart valves, dilated cardiomyopathy
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10
Q

Polymorphisms in what genes account for variability in warfarin response?

A

CYP2C9 (pharmacokinetics)
- decreased enzyme activity = higher drug concentrations

VKORC1 (pharmacodynamics)
- more prevalent than CYP2C9

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11
Q

Dabigatran

A

Anticoagulant

Prodrug metabolized to active dabigatran

Mech:

  • interacts with thrombin active site
  • specific, reversible, direct thrombin inhibitor that inhibits both free and fibrin-bound thrombin
  • ability to inhibit fibrin-bound thrombin is advantageous because thrombin bound to fibrin within a thrombus remains enzymatically active and protected from inactivation by antithrombin and can locally activate platelets to trigger coagulation and thrombus expansion

Kinetics:

  • oral admin with short half-life 14-17 hours
  • kidney clearance

AEs:

  • bleeding (less than warfarin)
  • no antidote! (short half-life/excretion)
  • GI upset (more than warfarin)

Contraindications:
- renal/liver/valvular heart disease

Drug interactions:

  • not metabolized by cytochrome P450 (few interactions)
  • Substrate for P-glycoprotein (Pgp) efflux transporter in gut and kidneys
    • inducers decrease plasma concentration of dabigatran
    • inhibitors increase plasma concentrations of dabigatran

Use:

  • prophylaxis (knee/hip sx)
  • prevention of stroke and systemic embolism in patients with nonvalvular atrial fibrillation
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12
Q

Rivaroxaban

A

Anticoagulant: Direct Factor Xa inhibitor

Mech:

  • selective direct-acting factor Xa inhibitor via S1 and S4 pockets
  • inhibits both free Factor Xa: decreases the amplified generation of thrombin without affecting existing thrombin levels (ensures primary homeostasis)
  • inhibits clot bound Factor Xa: prevents extension the thrombus by blocking further generation of thrombin

Kinetics:

  • oral admin (rapid/long half-life 5-9 hours)
  • dual elimination (1/3 renal, 2/3 CYP3A4)
  • P-glycoprotein substrate

AE:

  • bleeding (lower than other anticoagulants)
  • drug interactions (CYP3A4/Pgp)

Use:

  • reduce risk of stroke and systemic embolism in patients with nonvalvular atrial fibrillation
  • DVT prophylaxis (knee/hip sx
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13
Q

Are the new oral anticoagulants better than warfarin?

A

warfarin:
- narrow therapeutic index
- interacts with many drugs
- slow onset and long offset of action
- teratogenic
- genetic variations require dose adjustments

costs??? The estimated price of dabigatran (150 mg twice a day) is about $6.75 to $8.00 per day. Warfarin, in contrast, costs as little as $50/year.

Mechanism of action, monitoring therapeutic level, and reversal agent available for warfarin.

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14
Q

What causes the clinical expression of acute MI?

A

Obstruction of the coronary artery by a thrombus

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15
Q

Are heparin and oral anticoagulants effective in reducing the size of preformed fibrin clots?

A

They are ineffective

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16
Q

What dissolves intravascular clots?

A

Plasminogen converted to Plasmin digests fibrin

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17
Q

What activates plasminogen to plasmin?

A

Endogenous factors:
- t-PA

Exogenous (Drug):
- alteplase (recombinant t-PA)

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18
Q

Tissue-type plasminogen activator (t-PA)

A

Endogenous activator synthesized by vascular endothelial cells and released at local sites

Mech:

  • t-PA activates fibrin-bound plasminogen to fibrin-bound plasmin and initiates clot resolution
  • during early stage, little t-PA released due to plasminogen activator inhibitors (PAI-1 and PAI2)
  • when PAI production decreases and t-PA production increases, results in breakdown of clot
  • free plasmin inactivated by alpha2-antiplasmin (protects fibrin and other clotting factors like 8 and 5)
  • unwanted fibrin thrombi removed, while fibrin in wounds persists to maintain hemostasis

AE:
- hemorrhage (dissolve pathologic thrombi and fibrin sites of vascular injury)

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19
Q

Alteplase

A

Thrombolytic Agent: Exogenous Tissue plasminogen activator (t-PA)

Mech:

  • binds and activates fibrin-bound plasminogen 100x more rapidly than free plasminogen
  • efficient degradation of clot fibrin due to high affinity

Kinetics:

  • IV
  • short half-life (1-4 mins)
  • rapid hepatic clearance

AEs:
Hemorrhage:
- lysis of fibrin at sites of vascular injury
- systemic lytic state from systemic formation of plasmin (fibrinogenolysis and destruction of clotting factors 5 & 8)
- more bleeding in combination with aspirin or heparin
- risk of bleeding dependent on dose/duration of therapy

Contraindications:

  • active (GI) bleeding
  • recent surgery
  • Cerebrovascular accident (CVA)
  • hemorrhagic disorder
  • hypersensitivity
  • severe uncontrolled hypertension
  • pregnancy or postpartum period

Indications for use:

  • Acute MI (STEMI)
  • Acute ischemic stroke
  • Acute pulmonary embolism/DVT
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20
Q

Aminocaproic Acid

A

Potent inhibitor of Fibrinolyisis (Procoagulant)

  • competitive inhibitor of plasmin(ogen) to fibrin
  • should reverse states that are associated with excessive fibrinolysis
  • concentration in urine can be 100x than in plasma

Use: treating urinary tract bleeding

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21
Q

What provides the initial hemostatic plug at sites of vascular injury and participate in pathologic thromboses that lead to MI, stoke, and peripheral vascular thromboses?

A

Platlets

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22
Q

What factors allow platelets to adhere to subendothelium of damaged blood vessels?

A

GPIa/IIa and GPIb are platelet integrins that bind to collagen and vWF causing adherence to subendothelium of damaged blood vessel

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23
Q

Result of PAR1/PAR4 or P2Y1/P2Y12 receptor stimulation?

A

Activates fibrinogen-binding protein GPIIb/IIIa (integrin) and COX-1 to promote platelet aggregation and cross-linking

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24
Q

What is the result of fibrinogen binding?

A

Cross-linking of adjacent platelets

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25
Q

What PG is synthesized by endothelial cells to inhibit platelet activation?

A

PGI2

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26
Q

Low-Dose Aspirin

A

Anti-platlet

Mech:

  • irreversible inhibition of platelet COX 1 and 2
  • blocks TXA2 formation in platelet
  • preserves PGI2 in vascular endothelium

Kinetics:

  • rapidly absorbed in upper GI
  • effects in 1 hour
  • half-life = 20 mins but effect on COX is permanent bc anucleate and cannot synthesize new enzyme
  • may take 10 days for new platelet population

AEs:

  • bleeding and GI irritation
  • dose-related (saturation)

Use:

  • acute/ prophylaxis of MI
  • acute/ prophylaxis phase of ischemic stroke
  • unstable angina
  • preeclampsia prophylaxis
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27
Q

Dipyridamole

A

Anti-platelet

Mech:

  • PDE inhibition
  • increases cAMP which inhibits platelet aggregation

AE:

  • Headache
  • GI upset

Use:
- prevention of thromboemboli in patients with prosthetic heart valves (given in combination with warfarin)

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28
Q

Clopidogrel, Ticlopidine, Prasugrel, Ticagrelor

A

Anti-platelet

Mech:

  • inhibit ADP-induced platelet aggregation by binding P2Y12 receptor on platelet surface
  • if stimulate ADP receptor = platelet aggregation
  • if block ADP receptor = block platelet aggregation
  • all irreversible antagonists (except ticagrelor)

Kinetics:

  • oral admin
  • Clopidogrel and Ticlopidine are prodrug metabolized to active compound by CYP2C19
  • Prasugrel is prodrug that is inactivated then converted via CYP3A4 to active metabolite (two-step process)
      • increased potency due to more efficient generation of active metabolite
      • more predictable/consistent levels of platelet inhibition

AEs:

  • Bleeding
  • dyspnea (ticagrelor)
  • severe neutropenia (ticlopidine) –used much less
  • activation of clopidogrel by CYP2C19 potentially inhibited by proton pump inhibitors (omeprazole) to treat peptic ulcer resulting in less active metabolite and inc risk of CV events

Use:

  • clopidogrel: unstable angina or NSTEMI with aspirin; STEMI; recent MI, stroke, peripheral arterial disease
  • prasugrel: reduce rate of thrombotic CV events
  • ticagrelor: secondary prevention of thrombotic events with aspirin
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29
Q

Abciximab

A

Anti-platelet

Glycoprotein IIb/IIIa receptor blocker

Mech:

  • Fab fragment
  • binds GP IIb/IIIa receptors to prevent fibrinogen binding and cross-linking of platelets
  • noncompetitive inhibition due to steric hindrance from conformational change

Kinetics:

  • IV
  • quick onset
  • due to slow clearance, functional half-life up to 7 days

AEs:

  • bleeding
  • thrombocytopenia
  • hypotension
  • bradycardia

Use:

  • prevent platelet aggregation and thrombosis in patients undergoing percutaneous coronary interventions
  • administed with aspirin and heparin (or LMWH)
  • prevents vessel restenosis, reinfarction, and death
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30
Q

Eptifibatide

A

Anti-platelet

Glycoprotein IIb/IIIa receptor blocker

Mech:

  • prevent fibrinogen cross-linking of platelets
  • competitive, reversible inhibitor of GP IIb/IIIa

Kinetics:

  • IV
  • quick onset and offset
  • effects reversible and platelet aggregation response returns to normal within 4-8 hours after discontinuing drug
  • renal clearance

AEs:

  • bleeding
  • thrombocytopenia
  • hypotension
  • bradycardia
  • caution in renal dysfunction!

Use:

  • unstable angina and MI in combination with LMWH
  • prevent coronary thrombosis in persons with unstable angina or NSTEMI
  • prevent thrombosis in persons having coronary angioplasty or stent placement for STEMI
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31
Q

What is a protease responsible for converting fibrinogen to fibrin?

A

Thrombin

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32
Q

Which of the following is NOT correlated with Factor Xa?

  • point of convergence between extrinsic and intrinsic pathways
  • is the activated form of Factor X
  • inhibition of factor VII to VIIa
  • hydrolyzes and activates prothrombin to thrombin
A
  • inhibition of factor VII to VIIa
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33
Q

What is primarily responsible for degradation of fibrin clot?

A

Plasmin

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34
Q

What is the process that prevents blood loss from damaged blood vessels?

A

Hemostasis

  • vasoconstriction
  • adhesion and activation of platelets (plug)
  • formation of fibrin
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35
Q

What is the pathological formation of a “hemostatic” plug within the vasculature in the absence of bleeding?

A

Thrombosis

  • injury to blood vessel wall ~atherosclerosis, plaque rupture
  • altered blood flow ~veins of leg after sitting for long time
  • abnormal coagulability of blood ~pregnancy, certain drugs, inheritable disease
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36
Q

What is a venous thrombosis? Where do they most often occur and what can they cause?

A
  • associated with RBCs enmeshed in fibrin
  • most venous thrombi occur in the superficial or deep veins of the leg

Deep venous thrombosis (DVT) in the larger leg veins are most serious because such thrombi often mobilize to the lungs and cause pulmonary infarction

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37
Q

What is an arterial thrombosis? Where do they most often occur and what can they cause?

A
  • composed of platelets with little fibrin or red cells
  • occurs after erosion or rupture of an atherosclerotic plaque

Platelet-mediated thrombi can cause ischemic injuries especially in tissues with a terminal vascular bed

Cardiac ischemia and stroke are most severe manifestations of atherothrombosis

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38
Q

What thrombosis is associated with RBC enmeshed in fibrin? What thrombosis is platelet-mediated?

A

Venous – RBCs enmeshed in fibrin creating mobile thrombi that cause pulmonary infarction

Arterial – platelet-mediated causing ischemic injuries

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39
Q

Name the drug that lyses a fibrin clot:

  • heparin
  • warfarin
  • t-PA
  • heparin and t-PA
  • heparin, warfarin, t-PA
A

t-PA

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40
Q

Why can’t heparin be administered orally?

  • it is large
  • it is negatively charged
  • too much magnesium
  • A and B
  • all of the above
A
  • it is large

- it is negatively charged

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41
Q

Does warfarin or heparin have a longer half-life?

A

Warfarin

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42
Q

The major reason that warfarin is not used in emergency situations is:

  • low bioavailability due to oral administration
  • needs to be metabolized by cytochrome P450 to active metabolite
  • inhibits only extrinsic clotting factors
  • no effect on active clotting factors
A
  • no effect on active clotting factors
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43
Q

Which of the following drugs inhibits platelet aggregation?

  • clopidogrel
  • dipyridamole
  • aspirin
  • abciximab
  • all of the above
A

All of the Above:

  • clopidogrel
  • dipyridamole
  • aspirin
  • abciximab
44
Q

What are the pro-coagulant effects of thrombin?

A
  • activation of factors 5 and 8
  • transforms fibrinogen to active fibrin
      • cross-linking due to Factor 8a
  • platelet aggregation via PAR4/PAR1 protease activated receptors
45
Q

What are the anti-coagulation effects of thrombin?

A

Thrombin binds thrombomodulin on endothelial cells to activate protein C. In combination with protein S, APC degrades/inactivates factors 5a and 8a, which decreases rate of prothrombin activation and further production of thrombin

46
Q

Which of the following does heparin do:

  • affect the synthesis of clotting factors
  • lyse the existing clot
  • prevent further clot formation
  • prevent further extension of the clot
A
  • prevent further clot formation

- prevent further extension of the clot

47
Q

How do you know heparin is working?

A

Monitoring action:

  • Activated PTT to determine how long it takes fibrin clot to form (usually 26-33 sec)
  • heparin is therapeutic when the aPTT is 1.5 to 2.5 times the normal mean (usually 50-80 sec)
48
Q

What is heparin-induced thrombocytopenia?

A

Platelet counts dec by 50%

  • IgG antibodies form against heparin-platelet factor 4
  • the complex activates platelets by binding to FcgIIa receptors on platelet
  • results in platelet aggregation, release of factor 4, and thrombin generation

Results in formation of clots and fall in platelet number

Tx: discontinue heparin immediately and use lepuridin instead for anti-coagulation

49
Q

What drug catalyzes the inhibition of factor 2a and 10a via antithrombin as a suicide inhibitor?

A

Heparin

  • heparin increases the rate of thrombin-antithrombin reaction 1000x because induces conformational change in antithrombin making reactive site more accessible to the coagulation factor (proteases)
50
Q

What is the anticoagulant of choice for pregnant women?

A

Heparin

- does not cross placenta

51
Q

In what pathology do IgG antibodies form against heparin-platelet factor 4?

A

Heparin-induced thrombocytopenia

  • the complex activates platelets by binding to FcgIIa receptors on platelet
  • results in platelet aggregation, release of factor 4, and thrombin generation

Results in formation of clots and fall in platelet number

52
Q

How is heparin administered? How is it cleared?

A

Administered: parenteral
Cleared: reticuloendothelial system and liver

53
Q

What drugs are low molecular weight heparin?

A

Enoxaparin and Dalteparin

54
Q

How is enoxaparin or dalteparin administered? How is it cleared?

A

Administered: parenteral
Cleared: renal

55
Q

What drugs inhibit factor Xa by antithrombin but due to the shortness of its chain, does not inhibit thrombin?

A

Low Molecular Weight Heparin

  • Enoxaparin
  • Dalteparin
56
Q

What anti-coagulants are parenterally administered?

A

Heparin

Low Molecular Weight Heparin:

  • Enoxaparin
  • Dalteparin

Direct Thrombin Inhibitors:

  • Lepirudin (IV)
  • Bivalirudin (IV)

Direct Factor Xa Inhibitor:
- Fondaparinux (SQ)

57
Q

What anti-coagulants are parenterally administered direct thrombin inhibitors?

A

Lepirudin and Bivalirudin (IV)

58
Q

What drugs inactivates thrombin by binding its catalytic site and substrate recognition site (exosite I)?

A

Lepirudin and Bivalirudin

59
Q

How is lepirudin or bivalirudin administered? How is it cleared?

A

Administered: Parenteral (IV)
Clearance: Renal

60
Q

What drugs can be used as an alternative to heparin in patients who have had heparin-induced thrombocytopenia?

A

Lepirudin and Bivalirudin

61
Q

What drug is a direct factor Xa inhibitor?

A

Fondaparinux

62
Q

What drug causes antithrombin-mediated selective inhibition of factor Xa?

A

Fondaparinux

63
Q

How is fondaparinux administered? How is it cleared?

A

Administered: SQ
Clearance: Renal

64
Q

What drug is a heparin antagonist?

A

Protamine Sulfate

65
Q

What drug is a low molecular weight, positively charged molecule that forms an inactive complex with heparin?

A

Protamine Sulfate

66
Q

What drug can leads to an anaphylactic reaction (due to fish sensitivity) or severe pulmonary hypertension?

A

Protamine Sulfate

67
Q

What drug is used to reverse heparin following cardiopulmonary bypass?

A

Protamine Sulfate

68
Q

What are the oral anticoagulants?

A

Warfarin– Vitamin K Reductase Antagonist
Dabigitran– Direct Factor Xa inhibitor
Rivaroxaban– Direct Thrombin inhibitor

69
Q

How do you measure whether warfarin is working?

A
Prothrombin time (PT): 12 - 14 sec
Internationalized Normalized Ratio: 0.8 - 1.2

Therapeutic for warfarin:

  • PT 15-26 sec
  • INR: 2-3
70
Q

Why is the full therapeutic effect of warfarin delayed for several hours to days?

A

Warfarin blocks the synthesis of clotting factors

Takes time for active clotting factors to decay and prevent new factors from being synthesized

Circulating factors are not inhibited by warfarin
- end up with some active factors still around while no longer able to synthesize any more active factors

71
Q

Are synthesized factors inhibited by warfarin?

A

Circulating factors are not inhibited by warfarin

- end up with some active factors still around while no longer able to synthesize any more active factors

72
Q

What drug is an anticoagulant because it is a structural analog of vitamin K?

A

Warfarin

73
Q

What drug competitively inhibits VKORC1, preventing KO reduction to KH2, preventing synthesis of complete coagulation factors?

A

Warfarin

74
Q

How is warfarin administered? How is it cleared?

A

Administered: Oral
Clearance: Liver (CYP2C9)

75
Q

With which drug can a rare complication of purple toe syndrome or skin necrosis/gangrene occur?

A

Warfarin

76
Q

How do you reverse Warfarin with an INR >5?

A

Administration of vitamin K

  • delayed effectiveness bc new clotting factors must by synthesized
77
Q

How do you monitor dabigitran?

A

None (unlike warfarin)

- little effect on PT or INR

78
Q

What drug inhibits both free and fibrin-bound thrombin due to its interaction with the thrombin active site?

A

Dabigatran

79
Q

Why is it advantageous for dabigitran to inhibit both free and fibrin-bound thrombin?

A

Ability to inhibit fibrin-bound thrombin is advantageous because thrombin bound to fibrin within a thrombus remains enzymatically active and protected from inactivation by antithrombin and can locally activate platelets to trigger coagulation and thrombus expansion

80
Q

How is dabigitran administered? How is it cleared?

A

Administered: oral
Clearance: renal (not metabolized by liver, so few drug interactions)

81
Q

What anticoagulants are substrates for P-glycoprotein efflux transporter in the gut and kidneys?

A

Dabigatran

Rivaroxiban

82
Q

What drug inhibits both free and clot-bound Factor Xa by binding S1 and S4 pockets?

A

Rivaroxiban

  • inhibits free Factor Xa: decreases the amplified generation of thrombin without affecting existing thrombin levels (ensures primary homeostasis)
  • inhibits clot bound Factor Xa: prevents extension the thrombus by blocking further generation of thrombin
83
Q

How is rivaroxiban administered? How is it cleared?

A

Administered: Oral
Clearance: 1/3 renal and 2/3 CYP3A4

84
Q

What exogenous tissue plasminogen activator can be used as a thrombolytic agent?

A

Alteplase

85
Q

What drug binds and activates fibrin-bound plasminogen 100x more rapidly than free plasminogen resulting in efficient degradation of fibrin clot?

A

Alteplase

86
Q

What is the risk of using alteplase?

A

Hemorrhage:

  • lysis of fibrin at sites of vascular injury
  • systemic lytic state from systemic formation of plasmin (fibrinogenolysis and destruction of clotting factors 5 and 8)
  • more bleeding in combination with aspirin or heparin
  • risk of bleeding dependent on dose/duration of therapy
87
Q

What drug is a potent inhibitor of fibrinolysis?

A

Aminocarpoic Acid

88
Q

What drug is a competitive inhibitor of plasmin/plasminogen binding to fibrin?

A

Aminocarpoic Acid

89
Q

What drug can be used to treat urinary tract bleeding because its concentration in the urine can be 100x that in plasma?

A

Aminocarpoic Acid

90
Q

What drug can be given at a low dose to block TXA2 formation in platelets but preserve PGI2 in vascular endothelium?

A

Aspirin

91
Q

What drug inhibits PDE, resulting increased platelet cAMP and inhibits platelet aggregation?

A

Dipyridamole

92
Q

In combination with warfarin, what drug is used to prevent thromboemboli in patients with prosthetic heart valves?

A

Dipyridamole

93
Q

What drugs inhibit ADP-induced platelet aggregation by binding P2Y12 receptor on platelet surfaces?

A

Clopidogrel, Ticlopidine, Prasugrel, Ticagrelor

94
Q

Of the P2Y12 blockers, which is not an irreversible antagonist?

A

Ticagrelor is reversible

Clopidogrel, Ticlopidine, and Prasugrel are irreversible

95
Q

What P2Y12 blockers are prodrugs metabolized to active compound by CYP2C19?

A

Clopidogrel and Ticlopidine

96
Q

What P2Y12 blocker has increased potency due to its more efficient generation of active metabolites?

A

Prasugrel

Prodrug that is inactivated then converted via CYP3A4 to active metabolite (two-step process)

    • increased potency due to more efficient generation of active metabolite
    • more predictable/consistent levels of platelet inhibition
97
Q

With what P2Y12 blocker can bleeding result?

A

All: Clopidogrel, Ticagrelor, Ticlopidine, Prasugrel

98
Q

With what P2Y12 blocker can dyspnea result?

A

Ticagrelor

99
Q

With what P2Y12 blocker can severe neutropenia result?

A

Ticlopidine–reason used much less now

100
Q

Proton pump inhibitors like omeprazole utilize CYP2C19 to treat peptic ulcers. What if patient was concurrently on clopidogrel?

A

activation of clopidogrel (prodrug) by CYP2C19 potentially inhibited by proton pump inhibitors (omeprazole) to treat peptic ulcer resulting in less active metabolite and inc risk of CV events

101
Q

When would you use clopidogrel, prasugrel, or ticagrelor?

A

Clopidogrel:

  • unstable angina
  • NSTEMI
  • STEMI
  • recent MI/stroke
  • peripheral arterial disease

Prasugrel:
- manage patients undergoing percutaneous coronary intervention for UA, NSTEMI, STEMI

Ticagrelor:

  • used with aspirin for secondary prevention in patients with UA, NSTEMI, STEMI
  • to manage patients undergoing PCI account of coronary artery bypass
102
Q

What drugs are the GP IIb/IIIa receptor blockers?

A

Abciximab

Eptifibatide

103
Q

What drug is a noncompetitive inhibitor of GP IIb/IIIa receptor that prevents fibrinogen cross-linking of platelets?

A

Abciximab

104
Q

What GP IIb/IIIa blocker can be used to prevent platelet aggregation and thrombosis in patients undergoing percutaneous coronary interventions?

A

Abciximab

105
Q

Which GP IIb/IIIa blocker has a faster clearance?

A

Abciximab–slow clearance (half-life 7 days)

Eptifibatide–quick onset and offset

106
Q

What drug is a competitive reversible inhibitor of GP IIb/IIIa receptor that prevents fibrinogen cross-linking of platelets?

A

Eptifibatide

107
Q

In combination with LMWH, what GP IIb/IIIa blocker can be used to treat patients with unstable angina and MI?

A

Eptifibatide