06 Histamine Flashcards

1
Q

How is histamine synthesized?

A

Essential AA L-histadine => Histamine

Histidine decarboxylase using pyridoxal 5-phosphate as cofactor

Inhibited by methylhistidine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What co-factor is needed to synthesize histamine?

A

pyridoxal 5-phosphate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What inhibits histamine synthesis?

A

Methylhistidine inhibits histidine decarboxylase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Inhibition or impairment of what enzymes lead to increased histamine?

A

Diamine oxidase or Histamine N-Methyl Transferase (HNMT)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What is histamine and its functions?

A

Mediator of immediate allergic and inflammatory reactions

Role in gastric acid secretion

NT and neuromodulator

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Where is histamine localized?

A

It is ubiquitous

Highest: lung, skin, stomach

Pools of histamine:

Synthesized and stored in secretory granules–slow turnover:

    • heparin-sulfate and ATP (mast cells–in tissue)
    • chondroitin-sulfate (basophils–in blood)

Non-mast cell stores (e.g., epidermal cells, gastric mucosa cells, brain neurons, regenerative and tumor cells)

  • Rapid turnover, no granules, continuously released
  • histidine decarboxylase levels correlate with activity
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Histamine found in secretary granule in the blood vs tissue

A

Blood: basophil
Tissue: mast cell

Slow turnover

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Difference in turnover and synthesis between histamine stored in granules and non-mast cells

A

Granules: synthesized and stored. Slow turn over

Non-mast cells: continuously synthesized and released–rapid turnover

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Defects in what contributes to the flushing seen during alcohol intake (certain Asian populations) and some cases of food poisoning?

A

Defects in the metabolism of histamine by the diamine oxidase (DAO) or acetaldehyde dehydrogenase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What happens within seconds of histamine release? minutes?

A

Seconds:

  • -burning, itching
  • -intense warmth
  • -skin reddens
  • -BP dec
  • -HR inc

Mins:

  • -BP recovers
  • -Hives
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Antigen-Antibody reaction

A

Release of mast cell histamine (vasoactive amine)

Prior exposure:

    • induction of IgE-mediated allergic sensitivity to drugs and other allergens
    • response of IgE-sensitized cells to subsequent exposure to allergens

Ca2+ dependent
Release of other mediators (Cytokines)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is the concern with drugs, peptides, and venoms that promote release of histamine?

A

Stimulate release of histamine directly without prior sensitization– unexpected anaphylactoid reactions

Drugs: succinylcholine, morphine, curare, some antibiotics,
radio contrast media, certain carbohydrate plasma expanders

Vancomycin-induced “red-man syndrome”

Peptides: Bradykinin, complement, substance P (tissue injury)

Venoms: wasp venom

Mech: increase intracellular Ca2+ via number of different pathways

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is the mechanism of direct histamine release without prior sensitization?

A

Drug, peptide, or venom increase intracellular Ca2+ via number of different pathways

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Red-Man Syndrome

A

Vancomycin (for serious G+ infections)

Following rapid IV infusion

Rash in face, neck, upper torso

Hypotension

Due to mast cell degranulation (not allergic reaction to vancomycin)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What causes Red-Man syndrome?

A

Vancomycin (for serious G+ infections)

After rapid IV infusion, mast cell degranulation causes rash in face, neck, and upper torso and hypotension

Not an allergic reaction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Is Red-Man syndrome due to an allergic reaction?

A

Due to mast cell degranulation following rapid IV infusion of vancomycin (not allergic reaction)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What other stimuli release histamine (non-Ag-Ab or Drug)?

A

cold urticaria, cholinergic urticaria, solar urticaria, nonspecific cell damage

Cholinergic urticaria–inc sympathetic nervous activity (seen with exercise, stress) stimulates cholinergic fibers innervating sweat glands to release ACh, leading to mast cell degranulation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Cromolyn sodium

A

Inhibit Histamine release

Inhaled anti-inflammatory agent

Mech: stabilizes most mast cell membranes and prevents release of histamine

AEs: safe drug/few side effects

Tx:

  • preventive management of asthma (chronic control)–not rescue
  • allergic rhinitis, conjunctivitis
  • food allergies
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What drug stabilizes most mast cell membranes and prevents histamine release for bronchospasm prophylaxis (chronic asthma control)?

A

Cromolyn sodium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What does Cromolyn sodium treat?

A

Tx:

  • preventive management of asthma (chronic control)–not rescue
  • allergic rhinitis, conjunctivitis
  • food allergies
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Omalizumab

A

Inhibits histamine release

Monoclonal antibody

Mech: dec amount of Ag specific IgE that normally binds to and sensitizes mast cells
– binds tightly to free IgE in circulation so no affinity for FcRI

SubQ admin

AE: life-threatening anaphylaxis and bleeding

Tx: Allergic asthma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What drug is a monoclonal antibody that binds tightly to free IgE in circulation that normally bind to and sensitize mast cells?

A

Omalizumab

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What is a major adverse effect with an omalizumab subQ injection?

A

Life threatening anaphylaxis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What are the histamine receptors?

A

All are GPCRs:

- H1, H2, H3, H4

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
H1: G protein second messenger and distribution
Gq (inc Ca2+, inc NO and inc cGMP) Smooth muscle, endothelial cells, CNS
26
H2: G protein second messenger and distribution
Gs (inc cAMP) Gastric parietal cells, cardiac muscle, mast cells, CNS
27
Effect of histamine-receptor activation of the Cardiovascular system?
In general, histamine dilates resistance vessels, increases capillary permeability and causes an overall fall in BP. In some vascular beds, histamine constricts veins, contributing to edema formation (increased permeability) H1 and H2 activation
28
Histamine activation in endothelial cells
H1 activation results in increase in intracellular Ca2+ and activation of NO Synthase
29
Histamine activation in vascular smooth muscles
H2 activation coupled to increase in cAMP - - decreases intracellular Ca2_ - - decreases rate of myosin phosphorylation
30
H1 receptor on vascular smooth muscles
Vasoconstriction of large vessels (less important for effects on BP) H1 receptors located on vascular smooth muscle cells results in increase in intracellular calcium
31
What histamine receptors are activated for blood pressure control?
blood pressure (intravenous injection of histamine or released during systemic anaphylaxis) Both H1 and H2 receptors In general, histamine dilates resistance vessels and causes an overall fall in BP
32
What histamine receptor is activated to increase vascular permeability and where is it located?
H1 receptors located on post-capillary venules Inc in Ca2+ causes endothelial cells to contract and expose basement membrane Freely permeable to plasma proteins and fluid
33
What histamine receptor is located on post-capillary venules and its action?
H1 receptors located on post-capillary venules Inc in Ca2+ causes endothelial cells to contract and expose basement membrane Freely permeable to plasma proteins and fluid
34
What histamine receptors are on the heart and its actions?
Predominantly H2 Increases both cardiac contractility and electrical conduction directly
35
H2 receptors on the heart cause?
Increase both cardiac contractility and electrical conduction direction
36
What histamine receptors are located on the bronchioles?
H1--contraction | H2--relaxation (minor)
37
What histamine receptors are located on intestinal smooth muscle?
H1--contraction
38
What histamine receptors are on GI secretory tissue (parietal cell)?
H2--gastric acid secretion
39
What histamine receptors are located on peripheral nerve endings?
H1--pain and itching
40
What are the effects of histamine as a neurotransmitter?
H1--arousal/wakefullness H1--decrease appetite H1 and H2--CV, Thermo, Pain
41
What is the difference between First and Second generation antihistamines?
Second generation (Nonsedating antihistamine) drugs have little to no anticholinergic side-effects Do not easily cross BBB to CNS
42
First Generation H1 Receptor Blockers
Ethanolamines: - - Diphenhydramine - - Dimenhydrinate Alkylamines: -- Chlorpheniramine Phenothiazines: -- Promethazine
43
Second Generation H1 Receptor Blockers
Non sedating Antihistamines Piperidines: - - Fexofenadine - - Loratadine - - Desloratadine Piperazines: -- Cetirizine
44
H1 Receptor Blockers
Specific reversible competitive antagonists of the H1 receptors located in both periphery and CNS -- inverse agonist because reduce constitutive activity at receptor and compete with histamine Pharmacology 1. inhibit capillary permeability 2. suppress immediate hypersensitivity reactions in anaphylaxis and allergy (itching) 3. no effect on blood pressure 4. no effect on bronchoconstriction 5. CNS effects: - - First gen can stimulate (children) and depress (most common) CNS - - some prevent motion sickness via CNS anti-cholinergic effect 6. Peripheral and central anticholinergic effect - - Atropine like (inhibit response to ACh) - - dry mucus membranes, urinary retention 7. Local anesthetic effect: - - block nerve conduction (Promethazine) Pharmacokinetics 1. Admin: Oral (rapid absorption), topical, nasal 2. Distributed widely - - 2nd generation less likely to enter brain 3. Extensive liver metabolism - - 2nd generation: - - CTP3A4/CYP2D6 - - Active metabolites: - - Fexofenadine - - Desloratadine - - Cetirizine Major Side effects: 1. Sedation - - most common with 1st gen due to inhibition of central H1 (mediates arousal) AND central cholinergic effect - - Cetirizine (2nd gen) most sedative - - 1st gen paradoxical CNS stimulation (children) 2. GI (minor) - - loss of appetite, n/v - - rare: inc appetite and weight gain 3. Anti-muscarinic 1st gen - - dry mouth, dryness of respiratory passages 4. CV Toxicity - - Early 2nd gen (no longer in US): prolongation of QT interval and polymorphic ventricular contractions - - due to inc dosage and in combination with drugs that inhibit P450 metab - - no toxicity seen with Loratadine Tx: 1. Allergies (acute): rhinitis, urticaria, conjunctivitis - - less effective for seasonal allergies 2. Motion sickness--due to anticholinergic effects 3. Nonprescription sleeping tablets 4. Other: - - Vestibular disturbances - - Chemo induced n/v - - Early stage Parkinson's
45
What antihistamine is the most potent in treating acute allergies with symptoms of rhinitis, urticaria, and conjunctivitis as well as less prone to cause drowsiness?
Chlorpheniramine H1 receptor blocker First gen: Alkylamine
46
What antihistamine is used to treat acute allergies with symptoms of rhinitis, urticaria, and conjunctivitis but causes profound sedation?
Diphenhydramine H1 receptor blocker First gen: Ethanolamine
47
What 2nd generation antihistamines are used to treat acute allergies with symptoms of rhinitis, urticaria, and conjunctivitis?
Loratadine Desloratadine Fexofenadine Cetirizine (higher incidence of sedation)
48
What antihistamines are used to treat motion sickness?
Due to anticholinergic effects H1 receptor blocker First gen: Promethazine Dimenhydrinate Diphenhydramine Scopolamine (muscarinic receptor antagonist)
49
What antihistamine is used as a nonprescription sleeping tablet?
Diphenhydramine
50
What antihistamine is used to treat vestibular disturbances?
Dimenhydrinate
51
What antihistamine is used to treat chemotherapy induced n/v?
Promethazine
52
What antihistamine is used to treat early stage Parkinson's?
Diphenhydramine
53
What does chlorpheniramine treat?
Acute allergies--most potent and less prone to cause drowsiness
54
What does diphenhydramine treat?
- Acute allergies--profound sedation - Motion sickness - Nonprescription sleeping tablet - Early stage Parkinson's
55
What does loratadine treat?
Acute allergies
56
What does desloratadine treat?
Acute allergies
57
What does fexofenadine treat?
Acute allergies
58
What does cetirizine treat?
Acute allergies--higher incidence of sedation compared to other 2nd gen H1 receptor blockers
59
What does promethazine treat?
Motion sickness Chemotherapy induced n/v
60
What does dimenhydrinate treat?
Motion sickness | Vestibular disturbances
61
H2 Receptor Antagonists
1. Relief of symptoms peptic ulcer disease 2. Gastroesophageal reflux disease 3. Peptic ulcer secondary to H. pylori infection 4. gastric injury by NSAIDs Physio: - histamine released from mast cells and enterochromaffin-like cells stimulated by vagus nerve and gastrin - stimulation of H2 on parietal cells: - - inc adenylyl cyclase, cAMP, PKA - - Increased H+ (gastric acid) - ACh and gastrin also directly increase gastric acid secretion Pharm: - reversible competitive H2 inhibitors on basolateral membrane of parietal cell (inverse agonist) - inhibit (basal/fasting/nocturnal) gastric acid secretion from parietal cells - reduce volume of gastric acid and its H+ conc Pharmacokinetics: - rapidly absorbed following oral admin - small amounts of drugs undergo liver metab - excreted by kidneys Side effects (low incidence except cimetidine): - diarrhea, headache, drowsiness - Less common: confusion, delirium, slurred speech--IV admin or in elderly - alter bioavailability bc inhibit gastric acid secretion AEs: - Cimetidine inhibits P450 (ranitidine to less extent): prolong half-life of other drugs that are substrates for P450 - long term use at high dose: decreased testosterone binding and inhibits CYP that hydroxylates estradiol - - in men: gynecomastia, reduced sperm count, and impotence) Tx: - uncomplicated Gastro-Esophageal Reflux Disease (GERD)*** - promote healing of gastric and duodenal ulcers - prevent occurrence of stress ulcers - Zollinger-Ellison Syndrome: overproduction of gastrin (PPIs now preferred) ``` Comparison: - same mech of action - minimal side effects except cimetidine - Potency: Famotidine > Ranitidine > Cimetidine ```
62
What treats GERD?
H2 antagonists - famotidine - ranitidine - cimetidine
63
What does famotidine treat?
Tx: - uncomplicated Gastro-Esophageal Reflux Disease (GERD)*** - promote healing of gastric and duodenal ulcers - prevent occurrence of stress ulcers - Zollinger-Ellison Syndrome: overproduction of gastrin (PPIs now preferred)
64
What does ranitidine treat?
Tx: - uncomplicated Gastro-Esophageal Reflux Disease (GERD)*** - promote healing of gastric and duodenal ulcers - prevent occurrence of stress ulcers - Zollinger-Ellison Syndrome: overproduction of gastrin (PPIs now preferred)
65
What does cimetidine treat?
Tx: - uncomplicated Gastro-Esophageal Reflux Disease (GERD)*** - promote healing of gastric and duodenal ulcers - prevent occurrence of stress ulcers - Zollinger-Ellison Syndrome: overproduction of gastrin (PPIs now preferred) Inhibits CYP450 = side efects