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Microbio > 112-300 > Flashcards

112-300 Flashcards

1
Q

Vertically transmitted infections

A

Herpes complex
Hepatitis B
Toxoplasmosis
Cytomegalovirus

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2
Q

A measure of the biologically degradable organic matter in water

A

BOD

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3
Q

Protein product separated from the whey by the action of rennin enzyme in certain bacteria

A

Curd

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4
Q

Made by churning cream until fatty globules separate

A

Butter

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5
Q

Cell membrane damage causes death because

A

Cell contents leak out

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6
Q

Chloramphenicol binds to the 50s portion of ribosomes, which will interfere with:

A

Translation in prokaryotic cells

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7
Q

Factors contribute to antibiotic resistance

A

Enzymatic destruction/ inactivation
Prevention of penetration to the target site
Alteration of the target site
Rapid efflux of the antibiotic

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8
Q

Bacterium grows in the peripheral nervous system

A

Mycobacterium leprae

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9
Q

Strongyloides stercoralis

A

Intestinal nematodes

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10
Q

Plasmodium spp causes benign tertian malaria

A

Plasmodium vivax

Plasmodium ovale

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11
Q

Plasmodium spp causes malignant tertian malaria

A

Plasmodium falciparum

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12
Q

American trypanosomiasis

A

Chaga’s disease

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13
Q

Treatment of choice of american trypanosomiasis or chaga’s disease

A

Nifurtimox and benzidazole

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14
Q

Vector of paragonimiasis

A

Crabs

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15
Q

DOC of bancrofti filariasis

A

Diethycarbamazine citrate

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16
Q

Smallest tapeworm infecting human

A

Hymenolepsis nana

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17
Q

Fasciola hepatica and fasciola gigantica

A

Live fluke

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18
Q

Vector of hymenolepiasis

A

Flea

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19
Q

A symbiotic relationship where one organism lives in or on another, depending on the latter for its survival and usually at the expense of the host

A

Parasitism

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20
Q

Type of host wherein the parasite attains sexual maturity

A

Definitive host

Final host

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21
Q

Type of host in which the parasite does not develop further or later stages

A

Paratenic host

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22
Q

Type of host which harbors the asexual or larval stage of parasite

A

Intermediate host

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23
Q

Defined as permanent reduction to zero of the worldwide incidence of infection caused by a specific agent, as a result of deliberate efforts

A

Disease eradication

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24
Q

This refers to the number of individuals in a population estimated to be infected with a particular parasite spp at a given time

A

Prevalence

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25
Q

DOC of trichuriasis

A

Mebendazole

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26
Q

Human may serve as both intermediate and definitive host of this type of cestode, therefore both tissue and intestinal infections occur in man

A

Taenia solium

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27
Q

Can complete its entire life cycle in a single host

A

Hymenolepsis nana

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28
Q

It does not require an obligatory intermediate host

A

Hymenolepsis nana

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29
Q

Oriental blood fluke

A

Schistosoma japonicum

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30
Q

Paragonimus westermani

A

Lung fluke
Pulmonary distomiasism
Endemic hemoptysis
Parasitic hemoptysis

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31
Q

Requires oncomelania snails as intermediate host

A

Schistosoma japonicum

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32
Q

Parasite of bile duct and gallbladder of humans and fish-eating mammals

A

Clonorchis sinensis

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33
Q

Parasites isolated in the placenta

A

Toxoplasma
Trypanosoma
Malaria

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34
Q

Diagnostic technique used to recover eggs of enterobius vermicularis and taenia spp

A

Perianal swab

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35
Q

A routine method of stool examination primarily useful in the detection of motile protozoan trophozoites using 0.85%nss

A

Direct fecal smear

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36
Q

Technique used in detecting eggs with tick shells such as ascaris and trichuris, using a mixture of GLYCERINE & MALACHITE GREEN SOLUTION

A

Kato tick method

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37
Q

Enterobius vermicularis

A

Pinworm

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38
Q

Cat hookworm

A

Ancylostoma braziliense

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39
Q

Etiologic agent of chaga’s disease

A

Trypanosoma cruzi

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40
Q

Old world hookworm

A

Ancylostoma doudenale

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41
Q

New world hookworm

A

Necator americanus

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42
Q

Drugs that inhibit the 50s portion of the bacterial ribosome

A

Erythromycin
Chloramphenicol
Quinupristin
Clindamycin

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43
Q

Microbial source of tetracycline

A

Streptomyces aureofaciens

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44
Q

Co-trimoxazole is a combination of:

A

Sulfamethoxazole + clavulanic acid

Sulfamethoxazole + trimethoprim

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45
Q

Flouroquinolones exert their antimicrobial action by inhibiting:

A

Topoisomerase II

Topoisomerase IV

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46
Q

Trimethoprim is an inhibitor of which enzyme:

A

Dihydofolate reductase

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47
Q

A synthetic antifungal agent that inhibits squalene epoxidase

A

Terbinafine

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48
Q

Most resistant to the action of penicillinase

A

Methicillin

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49
Q

Role of cilastatin sodium when combined with imipenem is:

A

It prevents degradation of imipenem in the kidneys

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50
Q

Aminoglucosides are derived from streptomyces

A

Streptomycin
Tobramycin
Neomycin
Spectinomycin

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51
Q

Most dangerous form of malaria

A

P. Falciparum

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52
Q

Use to treat cases of MDR tuberculosis

A

Isoniazid and pyrazinamide
Ethambutol and pyrazinamide
Rifampin and ethambutol
Rifampin and pyrazinamide

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53
Q

Extensively drug-resistant (XDR) tuberculosis is defined as:

A

Resistance to both the first line drugs and at least three of the six main classes of second-line drugs

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54
Q

Intracellular parasite

A

Rickettsia

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55
Q

Ringworm infection of the scalp

A

Tinea capitis

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56
Q

Type of ringworm also referred as onychomycosis

A

Tinea unguium

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57
Q

This disease is caused by the virus human parvovirus B19 and results in symptoms similar to a mild case of influenza and a “slapped cheek” facial rash

A

Erythema infectiosum

58
Q

Example of subcutaneous mycosis

A

Sporotrichosis

59
Q

Causative agent of plague, which is known in the middle ages as the BLACK DEATH

A

Yersinia pestis

60
Q

Malaria infection is initiated by the bite of a mosquito, which injects this form of the protozoan into the bloodstream

A

Sporozoite

61
Q

HEPATITIS C VIRUS

A

Flaviviriddae

62
Q

Hepatitis virus contains a single strand of rna, which is not capable of causing an infection. It becomes infectious when an external envelope of HBsAg covers the protein core of the virus

A

HDV

63
Q

Strongest oligodynamic action

A

Silver

64
Q

Used as a gaseous chemosterilizer

A

Ethylene oxide

65
Q

Example of spirochete

A

Treponema
Leptospira
Borrelia

66
Q

Spore formers

A

Bacillus

Clostridium

67
Q

Gram negative facultatively anerobic rod shaped bacteria

A

Escherichia
Salmonella
Shigella
Enterobacter

68
Q

Characteristic of the genus neisseria

A

Diplococci
Some members cause meningitis
Some members cause gonorrhea

69
Q

Transmitted via the fecal-oral route

A

Hepatitis A virus

70
Q

Characteristic of fungi

A

Chemoheterotroph
Unicellular
Multicellular

71
Q

Tyoes of asexual spore is formed within a sac at the end of an aerial hypha

A

Conidiospore

72
Q

Typically observed as microscopic grapelike clusters and yellow-pigmented colonies

A

Staphylococcus aureus

73
Q

Used about Moist heat sterilization

A

An autoclave can be used
Kills vegetative cells, spores and viruses
Works by coagulation of proteins

74
Q

Dry heat destroys cells by oxidation

A

True

75
Q

Preferred method of sterilizing liquids containing toxins, vaccines and enzymes

A

Filtration

76
Q

Type of media is used to grow obligate anaerobes

A

Reducing media

77
Q

Aerobes contain this enzyme which converts superoxide to oxygen and hydrogen peroxide

A

superoxide dismutase

78
Q

This group of anaerobes can grow in the presence of oxygen and are not usually harmed by its presence in the environment

A

Aerotolerant anaerobes

79
Q

These microorganism have an optimal growth between -5 degree Celsius and 20 degree celsius and which can be found in the supercooled waters of the arctic and antarctic

A

Psychrophiles

80
Q

Time required to kill a suspension of cells or spores at a given temperature

A

Thermal death time

81
Q

Mixed acid fermentation

A

Methyl red test

82
Q

The bacteria that are mixed-acid fermenters generally produce gas because they elaborate this enzyme which splits formic acid to produce CO2 and H2O

A

Formic hydrogenylase

83
Q

Multiple test medium that will detect the fermentation of glucose and lactose and the production of hydrogen sulphide resulting from the breakdown of the amino acid cysteine

A

Kligler’s iron agar

84
Q

In reductase test using milk, the time it takes for methylene blue to become colorless is the

A

Methylene blue reductase time

85
Q

These are indicator bacteria which are found in the intestines of humans and warm-blooded animals, ferment lactose to produce acid and gas, and its presence in water suggests the potential for disease. Example of such organisms are E.coli and Enteribacter aerogenes

A

Coliforms

86
Q

Also known as Ziehl-Neelsen method

A

Acid fast staining

87
Q

Identified in acid fast staining

A

Mycobacterium leprae

M tuberculosis

88
Q

Property of an ideal antimicrobial agent

A

Selective toxicity

89
Q

Fungal infections of the skin and nails

A

Tinea pedis
Tinea capitis
Tinea corporis
Malassezia furfur

90
Q

Drug is thought to block the assembly of arabinogalactan polysaccharide by inhibition of an arabinotransferase enzyme

A

Ethambutol

91
Q

Structural analogues of PABA that competitively inhibit the incorporation of PABA into dihydropteroic acid

A

Sulfonamides

92
Q

Antibacterial- inhibition of nucleic acids synthesis
Antiviral- inhibition of DNA synthesis
Antifungal- inhibition of mitosis
Antifungal- injury to plasma membrane

A

Matched

93
Q

Characteristics of the causative agent of tetanus

A

Gram positive
Produces endospores
Transmitted through contaminated soil
Produces a potent neurotoxin

94
Q

Viral disease characterized by inflammation of the parotid glands, fever, and pain during swallowing

A

Mumps

95
Q

Strain of e. Coli that can produce a shigella-like dysentery

A

Enteroinvasive

96
Q

Tickborne disease

A

Babesiosis
Ehrlichiosis
Lyne disease
Relapsing fever

97
Q

Causative agent of undulant fever

A

Brucella melitensis

98
Q

This refers to the uncontrolled proliferation of microbes in the blood

A

Septicemia

99
Q

Inflammation of urinary bladder

A

Cystitis

100
Q

Disease causing microorganism

A

Pathogens

101
Q

Vector borne disease

A

Trypanosomiasis
Lyme disease
Yellow fever
Plague

102
Q

Microscopy does not require fixing or staining of the specimen, and also gives a detailed examination of internal structures in living microorganisms by using slight variations in refractive index

A

Phase-contrast microscopy

103
Q

Methods used to identify all bacteria in the genus mycobacterium and the disease producing strains of nocordia

A

Acid fast staining

104
Q

Can not be used in negative staining

A

Safranin

105
Q

Used in negative staining

A

Eosin
Nigrosin
India ink

106
Q

Organisms responsible for low temperature food spoilage

A

Psychrotrophs

107
Q

Needed by microbes for synthesis of cellular materials

A

Nitrogen
Carbon
Sulfur
Phosphorus

108
Q

Enzymes neutralizes various toxic forms of oxygen

A

Superoxide dismuthase
Catalase
Peroxidase

109
Q

Obligate anaerobe

A

Clostridium perfingens

110
Q

Medium with known chemical composition used for microbiological assays

A

Chemically defined media

111
Q

Media supresses growth of unwanted microbes and encourage growth of desired microbes

A

Selective media

112
Q

Indirect method of estimating bacterial number

A

Turbidity method

113
Q

Process of destroying vegetative pathogens but not necessarily endospores or viruses, usually on inanimate objects

A

Disinfection

114
Q

Removal of transient microbes from the skin by mechanical cleansing or by the use of an antiseptic

A

Degerming

115
Q

An effective method for sterilization

A

Autoclaving

Direct flaming

116
Q

Chemical used for microbial control by joseph lister

A

Phenol

Carbolic acid

117
Q

Acute infectious diseases

A

Common cold

118
Q

Tb may be classified as

A

Chronic and latent

119
Q

A secondary infection that results from destruction of normal microflora and often follows the use of broad-spectrum

A

Superinfection

120
Q

Benign skin growths caused by viruses

A

Warts

121
Q

A severe complication of chickenpox,influenza and other viral diseases which affects children and is aggravated by the use of aspirin

A

Reye’s syndrome

122
Q

Highly pathogenic for animals and humans and is the causative agent of anthrax

A

Bacillus anthracis

123
Q

Lesions of the oral cavity which manifest as tiny red patches with central white specks in patients infected with rubeola virus

A

Koplik’s spots

124
Q

During the first 10 minutes or so after injection of phage DNA, no phage can be recovered by disrupting the infected bacterium. This termed as:

A

Eclipse period

125
Q

Major causes of bacterial meningitis

A

Haemophilus influenzae
Neisseria meningitidis
Hib
Streptococcus pneumoniae

126
Q

Gram negative bacteria produces a water-soluble blue pigment, pyocyanin and a water- soluble flourescent pigment,pyoverdin

A

Pseudomonas aeroginosa

127
Q

Bacteria differ from most other enterobacteriaceae by being mainly associated with plants

A

Erwinia

128
Q

DNA virus

A

Adenoviridae

129
Q

RNA Viruses helical in shape

A

Rhabdoviridae
Arena
Bunya
Orthomyxo

130
Q

Staphylococcal food poisoning

A

Diarrhea
Vomiting
Nausea within 5 hours after eating

131
Q

Smallest known agents of infectious disease

A

Viroids

132
Q

Most common causative agent of genital herpes

A

HSV-2

133
Q

Common bread mold which cause much food spoilage and grow on bread, vegetables,fruits and other food products

A

Rhizopus

134
Q

Streptomyces griseus is the source of this antibiotic

A

Streptomycin

135
Q

These antimicrobial drugs differ from the antibiotics in that they do not occur naturally. The prototype of these is firfural, an aldehyde derivative

A

Nitrofurans

136
Q

Organisms are good recipients of R factor from an E.coli donor

A

Enterobacter
Klebsiella
Salmonella
Shigella

137
Q

First known disease for which a chemotherapeutic agent was used

A

Syphilis

138
Q

It inhibits peptidoglycan synthesis by binding D-alanyl-D-alanine group on the peptide side chain of one of the membrane-bound intermediates

A

Vancomycin

139
Q

Because it is a structural analog of pyridoxine, or vitamine B6 and nicotinamide, it can block puridoxine and nicotinamide-catalyzed reactions which may account for its antimicrobial activity

A

Isonicotinic acid hydrazide

Isoniazid

140
Q

Low molecular weight compound which is very effective against infuenza A virus but not against influenza B. The incidence of influenza A infections is greatly reduced by use of this drug

A

Amantadine

141
Q

This drug is a member of the allylamine class of antimycotics and inhibits the enzymes squalene epoxidase in fungal ergosterol biosynthesis

A

Terbinafine

142
Q

Commonest pnuemonia and still responds well to penicillin despite a global in isolates showing reduced susceptibility to this agent

A

Streptococcus pneumoniae

Microbio (3 decks)

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