Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

General Radiology > 11) Women, Men, and Children > Flashcards

11) Women, Men, and Children Flashcards

1
Q

Women’s imaging

A
  • Mammography and the female breast
  • Gynecological conditions
  • Obstetrical conditions
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Breast cancer

A
  • Leading cause of non-preventable cancer death in women

- 180,000 cases per year; 46,000 deaths

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Risk of breast cancer increases with

A
  • Age, especially after 40
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Mammography can detect

A
  • Presence of early breast cancer at the non-palpable stage
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Mammography cannot rule out breast cancer in a patient with

A
  • Palpable mass or other abnormality on clinical examination

- Basically it can rule in cancer, but it cannot rule it out

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Screening mammography

A
  • Performed on asymptomatic women to detect unsuspecting cancer at an early age
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Diagnostic mammography

A
  • Problem-solving mammography

- Performed to evaluate abnormal clinical findings

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

There is general agreement that all women over the age of 50 should have

A
  • Annual screening mammograms (some sources say over 40)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

A mammogram consists of two views of each breast

A
  • Mediolateral oblique (MLO)

- Craniocaudad (CC) view

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

The augmented breast poses problems with mammography

A
  • Implant can obscure up to 85% of the tissue
  • MRI can be done in these patients
  • Ultrasound can be performed to evaluate implant leakage
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Risk factors for breast cancer

A
  • Maternal relative with breast cancer
  • Longer reproductive span
  • Obesity
  • Nulliparity
  • Later age at pregnancy
  • Atypical hyperplasia
  • Previous breast or uterine cancer
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Breast Imaging Reporting and Data System (BIRADS) defines five type of margins

A
  • Circumscribed
  • Obscured
  • Micro-lobulated
  • Ill-defined
  • Spiculated
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Circumscribed margins

A
  • Well defined

- Sharply demarcated with an abrupt transition between the lesion and the surrounding tissue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Microlobulated margins

A
  • Small undulating circles along the edge of the mass.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Obscured margins

A
  • Hidden by superimposed or adjacent normal tissue
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Ill-defined margins

A
  • Poorly defined and scattered
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Spiculated margins

A
  • Marked by radiating thin lines
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

BIRADS assessment categories

A
  • Category 0-5
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Category 0

A
  • Need additional imaging evaluation
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Category 1

A
  • Negative
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Category 2

A
  • Benign finding
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Category 3

A
  • Probably benign finding

- Short interval follow up suggested

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Category 4

A
  • Suspicious abnormality

- Biopsy should be considered

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Category 5

A
  • Highly suggestive of malignancy

- Appropriate action should be taken

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

A spiculated, dense mass especially when not palpated is almost always

A
  • Carcinoma
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Skin calcifications

A
  • Typical lucent center
  • Polygonal shape
  • Not in the breast parenchyma, but may project as such on a mammogram
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Vascular calficifications

A
  • Seen as parallel tracks or linear tubular calcifications that run along a blood vessel
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Coarse or popcorn-like calcifications

A
  • Typically found in involuting fibroadenomas

- Fibroadenomas usually regress with menopause and microcalcifications will develop into coarse macrocacifications

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Rod-shaped calcifications

A
  • Typical of secretory disease but not of breast cancer
  • Usually >1mm, occasionally branching, and may have lucent centers
  • Form in debris that collects in the duct lumen or cause an inflammatory reaction around a duct
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Round calcifications/smooth round calcifications

A
  • Associated with a benign process
  • May vary in size in a cluster
  • When <1mm they are often found in the acini of lobules
  • When <0.5mm the term punctate is used
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Spherical or lucent-centered calcifications

A
  • Can range from <1mm to >1cm

- May be found as debris collected in a duct, in areas of fat necrosis and fibroadenomas

32
Q

Risks associated with mammography

A
  • Radiation dose
  • False positive (increases with age)
  • Implant interference
  • False negative
  • High rate of litigation
33
Q

Primary imaging method for the female pelvis

A
  • Ultrasound
34
Q

Transabdominal pelvic ultrasound

A
  • Performed using the patient’s full bladder as an acoustic window
35
Q

Transvaginal pelvic ultrasound

A
  • Uses a specially designed transducer that is placed inside the patient’s vagina for scanning
  • Helps to improve visualization of small structures
36
Q

Transvaginal pelvic ultrasound is especially valuable in

A
  • Obstetrical imaging to depict first trimester development and diagnose ectopic pregnancy
37
Q

CT and MRI can also produce excellent images of the female pelvis, and are helpful in

A
  • Staging of pelvic malignancies
38
Q

Hysterosalpingogram (HSG)

A
  • Water soluble contrast material injected into the uterus to image the female organs
  • Normal examination will show contrast flowing into the uterine tubes and the peritoneal cavity
39
Q

Gynecological conditions that can be diagnosed using ultrasound

A
  • Ovarian cysts
  • Pelvic inflammatory disease
  • Endometriosis
  • Benign tumors of the uterus and ovaries
  • Ovarian masses may be cyctic, solid, or complex
40
Q

Benign tumors of the uterus

A
  • Leiomyomas
41
Q

Benign tumors of the ovaries

A
  • Cystadenomas

- Cystic teratomas

42
Q

Ultrasound during pregnancy

A
  • Accurately date the pregnancy
  • Detect multiple pregnancies
  • Monitor fetal growth
  • Assess fetal well-being
  • Real-time motion images let you observe fetal cardiac motion and fetal movements
43
Q

Ectopic pregnancy is one of the leading causes of

A
  • Maternal death during pregnancy
  • Occurs in 1-2% of all pregnancies
  • Accounts for 15% of maternal deaths
44
Q

The incidence of ectopic pregnancy has been steadily increasing because

A
  • More women are contracting pelvic inflammatory disease or undergoing in vitro fertilization
  • Both increase the likelihood of ectopic implant
45
Q

Placenta previa

A
  • A condition in which the placenta covers the internal os of the cervix
46
Q

Symptoms of placenta previa

A
  • Painless bleeding in the third trimester

- Should have an ultrasound to determine the position of the internal os in relation to the placenta

47
Q

One of the most common placental complications

A
  • Hemorrhages (because the placenta contains many blood vessels)
48
Q

Placental abruption

A
  • When the hemorrhage is retroplacental (between the placenta and the uterine wall), placental abruption may occur, separating the placenta from the uterus
49
Q

Placental abruption can produce

A
  • Pain, vaginal bleeding, and hypovolemic shock

- Ultrasound examination will show an echogenic collection of blood in the retroplacenteal area

50
Q

Placental abruption is a major cause of

A
  • Fetal mortality
  • Accounts for up to 15-20% of perinatal deaths
  • Maternal morbidity and mortality may also occur with this condition
51
Q

Method of choice for scrotal imaging

A
  • Ultrasound

- Can identify testicular tumors, testicular torsion, testicular trauma, and many other conditions

52
Q

The prostate can be evaluated using

A
  • IVP
  • Ultrasound
  • CT
53
Q

The male urethra is usually evaluated using

A
  • RUG
  • Imaging by injection of a water soluble contrast agent via a small catheter
  • VCUG-films are taken while patient urinates on the fluoroscopy table
54
Q

The male bladder can be evaluated using

A
  • Cystogram
55
Q

Goal of pediatric imaging

A
  • Obtain high quality images with the least amount of radiation
  • Patients from 1 day old to 1 year old don’t move very much
56
Q

Patients over 4 years old

A
  • Usually cooperative

- 1 to 3 years usually need to be restrained for plain films or sedated for MRI, nuclear medicine, and CT

57
Q

Patients 1-3 years old

A
  • Usually need to be restrained for plain films
  • Sedated for MRI, nuclear medicine, and CT
  • May not cooperate for barium studies necessitating the placement of an NG tube
58
Q

Most common pediatric chest conditions

A
  • Croup and epiglottitis
  • Viral pneumonia
  • Bronchitis
  • Cystic fibrosis
59
Q

Croup

A
  • Causes acute airway obstruction

- Caused by influenza and parainfluenza viruses

60
Q

Peak incidence of croup

A
  • Between 6 months and 3 years
61
Q

Critical side for croup

A
  • Immediately below the larynx, where edema narrows the subglottic trachea
  • Area has an inverted “V” appearance of the airway on AP neck radiograph
62
Q

Epiglottitis

A
  • Caused by Hemophilus influenza

- Life-threatening and much more dangerous condition than croup

63
Q

Epiglottitis imaging

A
  • Film must be taken upright
  • A lateral soft tissue neck film will show marked enlargement of the epiglottis, and thickening of the surrounding tissues
  • “Thumb sign” on lateral neck radiograph
64
Q

Pneumonia imaging in children

A
  • Chest films show thickening of the bronchial wall, hyperaeration, and increased lung markings
  • Bronchiolitis occurs in infants less than 1 year old, bronchitis older infants and children
65
Q

Cystic fibrosis imaging in children and young infants

A
  • Chest film may be entirely normal

- Diagnosis of cystic fibrosis made clinically

66
Q

Clinical manifestations of cystic fibrosis

A
  • Chronic cough
  • Recurrent pulmonary infections
  • Obstructive pulmonary disease
67
Q

Cystic fibrosis films in older children may show

A
  • Hyperaeration
  • Peribronchial cuffing
  • Increased lung markings
  • Dilated bronchi (bronchectasis)
68
Q

Other pulmonary complications seen in older children with cystic fibrosis

A
  • Pneumonia
  • Lung abscess
  • Pneumothorax
  • Atelectasis
69
Q

Almost half of the abdominal masses in children are

A
  • Renal in origin

- Most are benign and have an excellent prognosis

70
Q

Hydronephrosis is the single most common cause of

A
  • Neonatal abdominal mass
71
Q

In older infants and children, the majority of abdominal masses are

A
  • Also renal in origin
  • 22% are a Wilms’ tumor (malignant tumor of embryologic elements)
  • Hydronephrosis accounts for another 20% in this age group
72
Q

Recommended initial imaging examination for pediatric abdominal masses

A
  • Ultrasound
73
Q

Salter-Harris (epiphyseal plate fractures) stages

A
  • I) Fracture along the growth plate
  • II) Fracture extends above the growth plate
  • III) Fracture extends below the growth plate
  • IV) Fracture extends through the growth plate
  • V) Impaction of the growth plate
74
Q

Thurston-Holland sign

A
  • A triangular metaphyseal fragment seen in Salter-Harris type II fractures
75
Q

Types of fractures commonly seen in pediatric patients

A
  • Tarus

- Greenstick

General Radiology (11 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions