11-202V3 Flashcards
Aircrew will not fly or assume aircraft control for UAS:
when _____ was not obtained
Appropriate crew rest
What is “appropriate crew rest”?
12 hr rest period; free time and includes time for meals, transportation, and an opportunity for at least 8 hrs of uninterrupted sleep
What is the minimum rest period?
12 hours of rest
What does the V3 state about sleep?
Aircrew must have the opportunity for at least 8 hrs of uninterrupted sleep
Aircrew will not fly or assume aircraft control for UAS:
if _____ was consumed within _____
If any alcohol was consumed within 12 hrs prior to takeoff or if impaired by anything.
Aircrew will not fly or assume aircraft control for UAS:
Anytime a _____ or _____ is suspected or known
Anytime a physical or psychological condition is suspected or known to be detrimental to safety
Aircrew will not fly or assume aircraft control for UAS:
While doing ______ unless cleared to do so
While self-medicating unless cleared
- Medical or dental treatment obtained from any source must be cleared by flight medicine prior to reporting for flight duty
Aircrew will not fly or assume aircraft control for UAS:
Within ______ of donating blood, plasma, bone marrow
72 hrs
Aircrew will not fly or assume aircraft control for UAS:
Within ______ of scuba diving, aircraft pressurization checks exceeding 10 minutes, or hyperbaric chamber exposure
24 hours
Flight Duty period for single piloted aircraft
12 hrs for single piloted aircraft
When does Flight duty period BEGIN and END?
FDP begins when aircrew first reports for official duty
Ends at after the final engine shutdown after the final flight of the completed mission.
Who is authorized to extend the flight duty period and for how long of an extension?
PIC is authorized to extend FDP a maximum of 2 hours to compensate for unplanned mission delays
What should the PIC do if post flight duties are likely to exceed the flight duty period?
If official post-flight duties are anticipated to exceed 2 hrs, consider reducing FDP to ensure safe completion
What is the difference between IMC and IFR?
IFR is the rules governing the conduct of instrument flight
IMC are weather conditions expressed in terms of visibility, distance from clouds, and ceilings less than the minima specified for VMC
What is the difference between VFR and VMC?
VFR is the rules governing the conduct of visual flight
VMC are weather conditions expressed in terms of visibility, distance from clouds, and ceilings equal to or better than specified minima
Weather Source Priorities in order
MROOF:
MAJCOM-Approved
Regional Operational Weather Squadrons (OWS)
Other DoD military weather sources
Other USG facilities or services
Foreign civil or military
When to file a flight plan?
If unable to file a flight plan on the ground, you must file as soon as practical in the air
Who signs the flight plan?
The PIC.
- Filed IWA DAFMAN 11-401
-Compliance with p 4.6 - Accomplish BWANTS and check with FLIP GP
- Reviewed for completeness and accuracy
- Complies with ADIZ restrictions and SUAS or MTR scheduling and coordination specified in FLIP and NOTAMs
Minimum WX required to depart IFR?
Do not depart IFR unless wx at the destination +/- 1 hr ETA is forecast to be at or above lowest compatible approach minimums (NOTE: TEMPO may be below minimums)
(EXCEPTION: MAJCOMs may authorize this given supplemental recovery procedures are published
When is an Alternate Required?
File an alternate when:
- No compatible instrument approach at the destination
- Wx +/- 1 hr forecast, including tempo, are less than 2000’/3SM (1500/3 for Laughlin)
- Crosswinds are outside of limits
- When denial of RVSM airspace would prevent reaching the destination
What disqualifies an alternate?
- All compatible approaches require an unmonitored NAVAID
- Does not report Wx
- ANA (Alternate not authorized) on approach plate
- Any note disqualifying the airfield or all approaches in the IFR alternate minimums section
Wx Required for Departing IFR with an Alternate – Do not depart IFR unless wx at the alternate +/- 1 hr excluding TEMPO is forecast to be at or above:
1000’ or 500’ above the lowest compatible approach minimums, whichever is higher, AND visibility 2SM or 1SM above the lowest compatible approach minimums, whichever is higher
If there is no compatible instrument procedure at the alternate, what must the WX be/allow for?
the wx +/- 1 hr, including TEMPO, must permit descent from MEA, approach and landing under basic VFR
Do not select an airport as an alternate if any of the conditions below exist:
- Unmonitored NAVAID
- No weather reporting
- Winds +/- 1 hr exceeds limits
- Alternate Not Authorized
- Any other note disqualifying the airport or all compatible approaches in the IFR Alternate Minimums section
- RVSM airspace transit is required to reach the alternate
When to Declare Minimum/Emergency Fuel?
Declare when aircraft may land at intended destination with less than minimum reserve or emergency fuel
Alternate Fuel Requirements. When an alternate is required, what must fuel allow for?
What is the WX criteria for the approach and missed approach fuel?
- Fuel required for an approach and missed approach at the intended destination must be included in the total flight plan fuel if visibility-only wx criteria is used at the destination
- Missed approach fuel is not required if both ceiling and visibility criteria are used
What does the 202v3 say about minimum fuel requirements?
Aircraft must have 10% (up to max 45 minutes) or 20 minutes, whichever is greater
What does the v3 state regarding fuel consumption rate? What is it based off of?
For turbine powered aircraft use fuel consumption rates that provide best endurance (max endurance) at 10,000ft MSL
Min Wx to Depart IFR
Do not depart IFR unless wx at the destination +/- 1 hr ETA is forecast to be at or above lowest compatible approach minimums (NOTE: TEMPO may be below minimums)
(EXCEPTION: MAJCOMs may authorize this given supplemental recovery procedures are published
How do you lead a level off?
Approaching the desired altitude, being pitch change to level off at approximately 10% of the vertical rate
Use VVI 1 or 2 times the amount of altitude deviation to prevent overshoots (If 100 feet off altitude, set a pitch that produces 100 to 200 ft per minute climb/descent on the VVI)
What must you ensure the A/C can meet/exceed regarding IFR climb performance?
Meet or exceed standard departure gradient of 200ft/NM or published climb gradient. Whichever is higher
- Standard IFR climb gradient is 3.3% = 200ft/NM
What is the minimum altitude to turn on an IFR departure?
400 ft above DER elevation. unless procedure/ATC requires otherwise
What do published or ATC climb gradients NOT account for?
Published or ATC climb gradients do not account for low close-in obstacles. Clearance over these is not assured. Ensure aircraft can clear laterally or vertically along planned ground track
What is the standard IFR climb gradient?
200 ft/NM, 40:1 obstacle identification surface or 3.3% gradient giving 152 ft/NM plus 48 ft/NM
What does the Trouble T symbol mean on an approach plate?
IFR departure procedures designed for obstacle avoidance. (Obstacle departure procedures ODPS)
- Indicated by the Trouble T
What is considered a Low Close-In obstacle?
Obstacles that require a climb gradient of 200 ft/NM for a very short distance. Until the A/C is 200ft above the DER
IFR DER Crossing Restrictions
TERPS - 0 feet
ICAO - 16 ft
NAS (Hardened RWY >/= 6000 ft) - 0 ft
NAS (Unhardened RWY < 6000 ft) - 0-35 ft
What does MADOODS stand for? What does it represent?
MADOODS represents examples of departure methods:
- MAJCOM approved
- ATC directed instructions
- Diverse departures
- Obstacle departure procedures (ODP)
- Omnidirectional departure
- Diverse Vector Area (DVA)
- Standard instrument Departure (SIDs)
What are Takeoff Obstacle Notes?
Obstacles within 3 SM of the DER identified during Diverse Departure assessment that require greater than 200 ft/NM climb gradient
What are Low Close-In Obstacles
Obstacles that require greater than 200 ft/NM climb until aircraft is 200 ft above DER elevation
MAJCOM Departure method: (MADOODS)
MAJCOM Certified (5.30) - In restricted areas or during contingency ops, MAJCOMs may develop and authorize departure procedures. These are for specific aircraft at specific locations. Aircrew must complete specific training before using these.
ATC Departure method: (MADOODS)
- HDG and an altitude (not considered radar vectors)
- Do not apply wind drift corrections
Diverse departure method: (MADOODS)
Acceptable if only low close-in obstacles penetrate the 40:1 obstacle identification surface. Not specifically cleared by ATC, cannot file on flight plans
Do not fly Diverse Departure if RWY has a standalone graphic ODP or published ODP listed in the “Trouble T” section, ODP in this case is defined as:
Non-STD climb gradient
Non-STD wx minimums
Departure procedures
Trouble T means: Takeoff minimums are not STD and/or departure procedures are published
Trouble A means: Alternate minimums not STD
Assessment area limited to 25 NM from airfield in non-mountainous areas, 46 NM in mountainous areas
What does Trouble T mean?
Takeoff minimums are not STD and/or departure procedures are published
What does Trouble A mean?
Alternate minimums not STD
Obstacle departure procedure method: (MADOODS)
- Non STD IFR takeoff mins (labeled takeoff minimums)
- Specific routing (Labeled departure procedure)
- Visual climb over airport (VCOA)
- Reduced Takeoff Runway Length (RTRL)
- Any combination of these above 4
Visual Climb Over Airport (VCOA)
Labeled VCOA: For IFR aircraft operating in VMC equal to or greater than the specified visibility and ceiling, to visually conduct climbing turns over the airfield to the published “climb-to” altitude. Upon reaching this altitude, aircraft may proceed with the instrument portion of the departure
- MAJCOMs may authorize VCOA. Pilots remain within the published visibility distance, will not exceed the radius from the center of the airfield while climbing, and will visually identify obstacles throughout the climb
- Advise ATC asap of intent to fly VCOA
- Can’t make up your own VCOA
- No VCOA at night unless using NVDs
- VCOA does not guarantee obstacle-free flight path during visual part of the maneuver
- May be graphical or textual ODP
Reduced Takeoff Runway Length (RTRL)
Inside of Takeoff Minimums, dictates takeoff occurrence at a certain point on the runway: If all obstacles penetrate 40:1 by 35 ft or less, limiting the takeoff runway to allow STD climb gradient to clear those.
Omnidirectional departure method (MADOODS):
Labeled Omnidirectional Departures: No track guidance provided or available. Similar to Diverse Departure, but the difference is that Omnidirectionals may be published even with 40:1 penetrations. May only be flown when specifically published.
Omnidirectional departure designs:
- Departure restrictions not published when obstacles do not penetrate 40:1 and an additional 246 feet of required obstacle clearance exists. Pilots may turn in any direction upon reaching 400 ft above DER elevation
- 200 ft/nm climb to an altitude at which omnidirectional turns may be made when obstacles preclude turns at 400 ft
- May define a minimum climb gradient higher than 200 ft/NM to a specified altitude before turns are permitted
- May identify sectors for which either a minimum climb gradient or minimum turn altitude is specified
- Pilots must maintain at least standard IFR climb gradient from the altitude at which turns in any direction are allowed until reaching a minimum IFR altitude
Diverse Vector Area (DVA) method (MADOODS):
May be created to allow radar vectors to be used in lieu of an ODP
Pilots will determine if DVA is published and if aircraft is capable of meeting published climb gradients. Advise ATC when requesting clearance or ASAP if unable to meet DVA climb gradient
Standard Instrument Departure (SIDs) method: (MADOODS)
NOT ODPs and must be specifically approved by ATC
When is Supplemental Oxygen Use Required?
Above 10,000ft cabin pressure altitude
Aircrew NOT breathing supplemental oxygen shall:
- Not operate above 14,000 ft
- Don’t exceed 1 hr between 10-12,500 in IMC, Night, employing weapons
- Don’t exceed 30 mins between 12,5-14,000 ft
Right of way rules: Who always has the right of way?
Aircraft in distress
Right of way rules: Same category and converging at same altitude, who has right of way?
The aircraft on the right
If two aircraft are approaching each other head on, how do they maneuver to avoid?
Both alter course to the right
Category right of way: BGAARF
Balloons
Gliders
Aircrew towing/aerial refueling
Airships
Rotary/Fixed Wing aircraft
Who was the right of way when an aircraft is overtaken?
An overtaken aircraft has the right of way. Overtaking aircraft must alter course to the right
Who has the right of way when established on final approach?
Established on final, except when two or more are approaching to land. In this case, the lower altitude aircraft has right of way. Don’t do this to cut in front of or overtake
Minimum IFR Altitude on airways:
No lower than any published minimums for the airway
Minimum IFR Altitude Off airways; no lower than:
Off Route Obstruction Clearance Altitude (OROCA)
Off Route Terrain Clearance Altitude (ORTCA)
An altitude that provides at least 1000 ft of clearance over all obstacles within 4 NM of the course in non-mountainous terrain, 2000 ft clearance for mountainous terrain
Aircraft Speed Restrictions below 10,000 ft:
Don’t exceed 250 kts below 10,000 ft unless in international airspace and mission requirements dictate or aircraft manual prescribes higher airspeed
Aircraft Speed Restrictions, MAJCOM exceptions:
Within restricted areas or MOAs
Within VR/IR routes
Within unpublished DoD and FAA or routes as necessary to accomplish national defense mission
LFEs
Aircraft speed restrictions: Don’t exceed ____ its below _____ within _____ of primary Class C or D
Don’t exceed 200 kts at or below 2500 ft AGL within 4 NM of the primary airport in Class C or D airspace unless authorized by ATC or aircraft manual prescribes otherwise
Aircraft speed restrictions: Don’t exceed ____ its underneath Class __ or in a ______
Don’t exceed 200 kts in the airspace underneath Class B or in a VFR corridor unless required by aircraft manual
Hazard Avoidance: Severe Conditions & Thunderstorms
Don’t operate in any forecast or actual severe conditions, don’t intentionally fly into thunderstorms, don’t fly in IMC near thunderstorms without wx radar
Closest you can be to a thunderstorm:
20 NM
Damage can still occur from storms within 20 NM
Clear thunderstorms by at least 2000 ft, otherwise:
20 nm at or above FL230
10 nm below FL230
5 nm for tactical LL ops if OAT is at or above 0 C at flight altitude
Airspace Classifications/requirements: A
Above 18,000 ft
- ATC clearance
Airspace Classifications/requirements to enter: B
B: busy airports, up to 10,000 ft normally with layers
- Clouds/Vis: Clear of Clouds/3SM
- Requirements: Transponder Mode-C w/ ADSB-out, explicit clearance, 2-way comms
Airspace classifications/requirements C:
smaller airports
- Clouds/Vis: 500 below, 1,000 above, 2,000 horizontal, 3sm vis
- Requirements: Transponder Mode-C w/ ADSB-out, 2-way comms
Airspace classifications/requirements D:
D: small airports
- Clouds/Vis: 500 below, 1,000 above, 2,000 horizontal, 3sm vis
- Requirements: 2-way comms
Airspace classifications/requirements E:
E: controlled airspace that’s not ABCD
- Clouds/Vis: 500 below, 1,000 above, 2,000 horizontal, 3sm vis, BELOW 10,000ft
Above 10,000 ft is 1000, 1000, 1000 5 sm vis
Airspace classifications/requirements G:
Uncontrolled airspace
VFR flying: Wx minimums
1500 ft and 3 SM vis?
Clear of clouds, discernible horizon, 3sm
VFR Hemispheric Altitudes
NEODD/SWEVEN + 500 above 3000 ft AGL
VFR flying: Altitude Over Non-Congested
Non-Congested: 500 ft AGL clearance except over open water or sparsely populated area, avoid any person, vessel, vehicle or structure by 500 ft
VFR flying over congested:
Congested: 1000 ft clearance above highest obstacle within 2000 ft radius
VFR flying over National Recreation Areas:
National Recreation Areas: 2000 ft AGL
When are flight following services provided: and what do they do?
Requested by the pilot and ATC workload/equipment allows.
- ATC provides separation from IFR traffic and VFR traffic
- ULTIMATE responsibility still lies on the PIC for separation
What are your options if unable to maintain VFR?
Alter route, obtain IFR clearance, or land at a suitable location
Closing a VFR Flight Plan: Do they automatically close? If not closed what happens?
VFR plans are not automatically closed upon landing, pilots must ensure flight plans are closed
Search and rescue operations if not closed
RNAV and RNP Operations:
Flying direct limitations with RNAV flight plans:
Don’t file flight plan nor accept clearance that requires navigating direct to a fix unless primary navigation equipment is certified for the appropriate RNAV capability
State “unable” if required
RNAV and RNP Operations
- Alternate vs substitute use
- Alternate means other means are still available instead of GPS
- Substitute is fully replacing with GPS and no other means are available
RNAV and RNP Operations
Allowed Use:
- Determining aircraft position relative to distance from a conventional NAVAID
- Navigate to or from conventional NAVAIDS
- Holding over conventional NAVAID or DME navigational fix
- Fly an arc based on DME
RNAV and RNP Operations
Prohibitions:
- Substituting for NAVAID providing lateral course guidance during final approach segment of a VOR/TACAN/NDB
- Lateral navigation on localizer based courses
- Navigation with DME/DME/IRU systems without GNSS/WAAS input
- Any procedure with “NA” Not Authorized without exception by NOTAM
Holding pattern standard turn direction is:
Standard is RIGHT turns
Maximum holding airspeeds: USAF fields:
310
Holding lengths: Time and altitudes and what is holding time based off of?
1 min at or below 14,000, 1.5 min above 14,000
Based on inbound leg NAS
Based on outbound leg ICAO
Maximum airspeed holding table
Table 13.1 in 202v3
Drift Corrections in holding:
Compensate for known winds to arrive at an outbound position from which a turn places the aircraft on the inbound holding course (triple drift on outbound)
IFR Alternate Minimums - Inverse (Trouble) A: Advises alternate minimums are non-STD
Air Force pilots are not required to comply with weather minimums in the IFR ALTERNATE MINIMUMS section
Straight-In/Sidestep WX requirements:
The forecast weather must meet the required visibility minimums
Circling wx:
Circling: Wx must meet required ceiling and prevailing visibility minimums
Arrival phraseology: “Cleared XX arrival”
follow lateral profile only, no descents
Arrival phraseology: “Cleared XX arrival descend (at pilot’s discretion/maintain YY”
follow lateral profile, fly directed altitude
Arrival phraseology: Descend “via the XX arrival”
Follow lateral profile, follow published altitude restrictions
Arrival phraseology: “Descend via the XX arrival, except after YY maintain ZZ”
Follow lateral profile, follow altitude restrictions until YY then maintain ZZ
Arrival phraseology: “Descend via the XX arrival, except cross YY at ZZ, then maintain AA”
Follow lateral profile, pilot’s discretion to ZZ altitude at YY, then maintain AA
Arrival phraseology: “Proceed direct XX, cross XX at or above YY, then descend via the ZZ arrival”
Proceed direct, follow lateral of the arrival, descend at pilots discretion to published or atc assigned then comply with published restrictions
Vectors to Intercept Final APCH
- Distance and max angle
At all other times, unless requested by the pilot, aircraft is vectored to intercept final APCH course at least 3 miles from FAF at a max angle of 45 degrees (30 degrees in the NAS)
Altitude & Airspeed Prior to APCH:
- What altitude do you fly on approaches and when can you descend?
- Do approach clearances cancel previous assigned airspeed adjustments?
- Maintain last assigned altitude until established on a published segment of the IAP, once cleared, descend once inside a TAA sector to the minimum altitude depicted unless otherwise instructed
- APCH clearances cancel any previously assigned airspeed adjustments unless restated. Pilots maintain prerogative of rejecting a speed adjustment if safe airspeed cannot be maintained
Declared Distances: marking on IAP and meaning
Marked on IAP or airfield diagrams with inverse D, it’s the maximum distances available and suitable for meeting takeoff and landing distance performance requirements
Takeoff Runway Available (TORA)
Typically the physical length of the runway but may be shorter to satisfy design standards
Takeoff Distance Available (TODA)
Takeoff run available plus the length of any remaining runway or clearway beyond the far end of the takeoff run available. Pilots do not use TODA without MAJCOM authorization and training
Accelerate-Stop Distance Available (ASDA)
RWY plus stopway length declared available and suitable for acceleration and deceleration of an airplane aborting a takeoff. ASDA may be longer than the physical length of the rwy when the stopway has been designated available by the airfield operator, or it may be shorter than the physical length of the rwy if necessary for rwy design
Landing Distance Available (LDA)
Rwy length declared available and suitable for landing an airplane
Who authorizes us to be allow to do this:
Practice Instrument Approaches under VFR
Don’t do this unless OG/CC authorized
Practice Instrument Approaches under VFR requirements:
- Maintain VFR cloud clearances and visibility requirements
- Use terminal radar services when available
- Make position reports when:
- Departing FAF inbound
- Established on final or immediately upon being released by ATC
- Completion or termination of the approach
- Executing the missed approach procedure
- Receive ATC approval to fly the published missed approach
Required position reports when flying an approach under VFR:
Make position reports when:
- Departing FAF inbound
- Established on final or immediately upon being released by ATC
- Completion or termination of the approach
- Executing the missed approach procedure
Title of Circling Only APCHs - Single letter “A” means what?
When only circling minimums are provided
Circling protected area is defined by the tangential connection or arcs drawn from each runway end
Flying a Visual APCH definition:
IFR procedure conducted under IFR in VMC
If Glideslope Fails on an approach:
If Glideslope Fails (16.8.2) - Revert to an approach without glidepath guidance
If NOT established and the course becomes unreliable/outside of CDI limits; you should do what?
Discontinue the approach if course becomes unreliable or outside of CDI limits
ILS Critical Area:
When ceiling is less than 800 or vis less than 2 NM, stay clear of the ILS critical area when an aircraft is between the FAF and the airfield. Autopilot only?
Flying a Localizer Back Course:
Set published front course, unless aircraft has reverse sensing capability, steer opposite of the course deflection (if CDI on the left, turn right). Don’t use glideslope on a back course approach unless it’s specified on the approach and landing chart
When can you descend Below DH/DA/MDA
Do not descend below MDA, DA or DH unless sufficient visual references with the runway environment has been established and aircraft is in a safe position to land
When can you descend Below 100’ AGL on an approach
Do not descend below 100 ft above touchdown zone elevation TDZE using the approach lights as a reference unless the runway termination bars or the red side row bars are visible and identifiable
Emergency safe altitude (ESA):
Emergency Safe Altitude provides 1000 ft of obstacle clearance, 2000 ft in mountainous terrain within 100 NM of the facility or fix
Minimum Sector Altitude:
provides at least 1000 ft of obstacle clearance within 25 NM (may be 30 NM), the MSA may be further divided into a maximum of four sectors when more than one minimum sector altitude is required
How do you identify you’re on a PRECISION approach?
When do you need to be on approach speed/configured?
Precision GS intercept: lightning bolt
Normally cross FAF at approach speed and in landing configuration, 11-248 states must be configured prior to FAF or glideslope intercept
How do you identify you’re on a NON-PRECISION approach?
When do you need to be on approach speed/configured?
Non-Precision: maltese cross (use DME)
Normally cross FAF at approach speed and in landing configuration, 11-248 states must be configured prior to FAF or glideslope intercept
When is timing required on an approach?
- Timing is required when the final approach does not terminate at a published fix.
If used, when do you start timing on an approach?
When timing is used to identify the MAP, begin timing when passing the FAF or the starting point designated in the timing block on an instrument procedure
When is timing not authorized for MAP?
Timing is NOT authorized if it’s NOT specifically depicted as a means to ID the MAP
If there are two means of identifying the MAP, which takes primary; timing or the other means?
If both timing and another means of identifying the MAP are published, timing is normally used as a backup unless the other means are inop
What Constitutes RWY Environment?
- Rwy or rwy markings
- Rwy end identifier lights
- Rwy lights
- Visual glideslope indicator
- Threshold, threshold markings, or threshold lights
- Touchdown zone, touchdown zone markings, or touchdown zone lights
- Approach light system
Can you execute a missed APCH Prior to MAP point?
No, Fly the instrument procedure as specified to the MAP at or above MDA, DA, DH before executing missed approach instructions
If going missed on an approach, what should you NOT do?
Do not make any turns until reaching the MAP, likewise, if aircraft reaches MAP before descending to the MDA, initiate the missed approach at the MAP
When do you go missed for a Circling approach?
If unable to maintain visual references, execute the missed approach for the instrument approach just flown, unless otherwise directed.
How do you fly a circling missed approach?
Fly the missed approach for the instrument approach just flown, unless otherwise directed.
- Execute a climbing turn towards the landing runway, returning to circling altitude or higher. Continue to turn until established on the missed approach course or alternate missed approach instructions
- For example: Fly RNAV missed approach if RNAV was flown to get to the circling procedure
How do you execute a circling missed approach?
Execute a climbing turn towards the landing runway, returning to circling altitude or higher. Continue to turn until established on the missed approach course or alternate missed approach instructions
Use of Constant Descent Final Approach (CDFA)
Many ICAO states require CDFA and apply increased vis or RVR requirements when CDFA is not used, use it when practicable
Industry Practice Derived Decision Altitude
MDA plus 50 for derived decision altitude
DDA is an altitude above the MDA where a missed approach should be initiated to ensure the aircraft does not descend below the published MDA.
(Industry practice 50 feet above the MDA as the DDA)
Derived decision altitude: (DDA)
DDA is an altitude above the MDA where a missed approach should be initiated to ensure the aircraft does not descend below the published MDA.
(Industry practice 50 feet above the MDA as the DDA)
When MUST you report that your gear is down on approach?
Prior to crossing the threshold
If you are in a crew aircraft; what can you omit prior to crossing the threshold?
Multiple crew aircraft may omit gear down call if crew has verified prior to crossing threshold
Land and Hold Short Operations (LAHSO)
Only passively participate in LAHSO (AETC)
- This means PIC may land/takeoff when another A/C has been given a LAHSO clearance)
- otherwise must be MAJCOM trained to actively receive LAHSO clearance
