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Bad Blood > 108-116 > Flashcards

108-116 Flashcards

0
Q

Synonym for antibody

A

Immunoglobulin

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1
Q

It is the decrease in body temperature

A

Hypothermia

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2
Q

The fluid obtained from a cyst of a dog tapeworm which can be a source of P1 substance and therefore can be used to neutralize anti-P1….

A

Hydatid cyst

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3
Q

Refers to random behavior of genes on separate chromosome inherited separately from each other.

A

Independent assortment

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4
Q

Any substance capable of stimulating an immune response.

A

Immunogen

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5
Q

Immunologic rxn induced ff a second exposure to an antigen

A

Secondary immune response

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6
Q

The in vitro rxn in which under certain condition of time and temp allow antigen-antibody complex to occur

A

Incubation

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7
Q

The gamma or electron treatment of a cellular blood product to prevent transfusion associated graft-vs-host disease (TA-GVHD)

A

Irradiation

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8
Q

A non-penetrating cryoprotective agent added to protect cells against damage

A

HES (hydroxyethyl starch)

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9
Q

Immunodominant sugar for B antigen specificity

A

D-galactose

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10
Q

While the fetus is in the uterus

A

In utero

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11
Q

Number of charged particles in a sol’n

A

Ionic strength

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12
Q

Other term for Secondary Immune response

A

Anamnestic response

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13
Q

Immunodominant sugar for H antigen specificity

A

L-fucose

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14
Q

A rare dominant gene that inhibits the production of all Lutheran antigens.

A

In Lu

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15
Q

The presence of agglutination or hemolysis in compatibility testing

A

Incompatible

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16
Q

Immunologic rxn induced by initial exposure to the antigens

A

Primary immune response

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17
Q

Study of blood-related antigens and antibodies

A

Immunohematology

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18
Q

Refers to the passing of one gene from each parent to the offspring

A

Independent segregation

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19
Q

Immunodominant sugar for A antigen specificity

A

N-acetyl-D-galactosamine

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20
Q

In reference to glycolipid antigens and glycoprotein, it is the sugar molecule that gives the antigen its specificity or identifies it uniquely.

A

Immunodominant sugar

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21
Q

Ability of an antigen to stimulate an antibody response

A

Immunogenicity

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22
Q

Transfusion administered to a fetus while still in the uterus

A

Intrauterine transfusion

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23
Q

A rxn of the body to respond and recognize foreign substances

A

Immune response

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24
Q

A condition due to an increase in unconjugated bilirubin

A

Kernicterus

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25
Q

States that the ABO antibodies are present in plasma/serum when the corresponding ABO blood antigens are not present on the erythrocytes.

A

Landsteiner law

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26
Q

Liley graph, mild or no disease

A

Zone I

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27
Q

A condition of abnormal presence of high molecular weight immunoglobulins

A

Macroglobulinemia

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28
Q

A trait that appears when the gene that has been inherited can be found in each generation occurs with equal frequency in males and females

A

Autosomal dominant

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29
Q

Combination of antibody and a multivalent sntigen to form cross links and result in a visible agglutination rxn

A

Lattice formation

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30
Q

Enumerate: autosomal recessive inherited chorva

A

Rh negative (dd), Lu (a-b-), Bombay phenotype

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31
Q

Replacement of one or more blood volumes within 24 hour interval

A

Massive transfusion

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32
Q

Agglutinate red cells with N antigen

A

Vicia graminea (anti-N)

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33
Q

Agglutinate red cells with Tn antigen

A

Salvia sclaera (anti-Tn)

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34
Q

Moderate disease (Liley graph)

A

Zone II

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35
Q

Traits transmitted to all daughters of affected father but not to sons

A

Sex-linked Dominant

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36
Q

Ex of inherited sex-linked recessive

A

Hemophilia A

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37
Q

Test performed on maternal blood specimen to detect fetal maternal hemorrhage

A

Kleihauer-Betke acid elution test

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38
Q

A graph used to predict severity of HDN during pregnancy by evaluation of the amniotic fluid

A

Liley graph

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39
Q

Agglutinate red cells with A1 antigen

A

Dolichos biflorus (anti-A1)

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40
Q

Severe and life threatening hemolysis (liley graph)

A

Zone III

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41
Q

Common drug used in the treatment of hypertension; frequently the cause of positive DAT

A

Methyl Dopa (Aldomet)

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42
Q

Traits,manifested by people who are homozygous for the alleles.

A

Autosomal Recessive

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43
Q

Ex of inherited autosomal dominant

A

Most blood group system

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44
Q

Agglutinate red cells with H antigen

A

Ulex europaeus (anti-H)

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45
Q

Location of a gene on a chromosome

A

Locus

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46
Q

Types of inheritance patterns

A

Autosomal Dominant
Autosomal Recessive
Sex-linked Dominant
Sex-linked Recessive

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47
Q

Agglutinate red cells with T antigen

A

Arachis hypogea (anti-T)

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48
Q

Condition characterized by a yellow appearance of the skin, sclera of the eyes and body secretions caused by increased bilirubin levels

A

Jaundice

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49
Q

Manner by which a gene is passed from one generation to another

A

Mode of Inheritance

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50
Q

Trait appears much more frequently in males than in females due to inheritance from carrier mothers

A

Sex-linked Recessive

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51
Q

Ex of inherited sex-linked dominant

A

Xg^a blood group

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52
Q

Type of agglutination pattern where a population of the red cells has agglutinated and the remainder of the red cells are not agglutinated

A

Mixed Field Agglutination

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53
Q

Condition due to an increase in unconjugated bilirubin

A

Kernicterus

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54
Q

Relating to birth

A

Natal

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55
Q

Another term for neutralization

A

Agglutination-inhibition

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56
Q

d antigen with complete subpart

A

Rh ABCD-D

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57
Q

Refers to a newborn infant up to 4 months of age

A

Neonate

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58
Q

Du variant

A

Mosaic

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59
Q

Basic building blocks of DNA which is comprised of a phosphate group, a sugar group and a base

A

Nucleotide

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60
Q

Principle involved in saliva testing

A

Neutralization

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61
Q

Term for woman having borne more than one child

A

Multiparous

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62
Q

Fusion of a malignant and normal cell that produces large quantities of monoclonal antibodies

A

Murine Hydbrinoma

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63
Q

D antigen with missing C-subpart

A

Rh ABcD-D

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64
Q

Group of sugars found on the red cell membrane attached to a protein backbone

A

NANA (Sialic acid)

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65
Q

Antigen composed of several units or subpart such as the Rho(D) antigen

A

Mosaic (Du variant)

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66
Q

After birth

A

Postnatal

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67
Q

D antigen with missing A-subpart

A

Rh aBCD-D

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68
Q

Major source of the membrane’s net negative charge

A

NANA (Sialic acid)

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69
Q

Before birth

A

Prenatal

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70
Q

D antigen with missing B-subpart

A

Rh AbCD-D

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71
Q

Malignant neoplasm of the bone marrow characterized by abnormal proteins in the plasma and the urine

A

Multiple Myeloma

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72
Q

Refers to the absence of agglutination due to the inability of an antibody to react with red cell antigen bec of previously bound soluble substance

A

Neutralization

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73
Q

D antigen with missing D-subpart

A

Rh ABCd-D

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74
Q

Enzyme that cleaves sialic acid from the red cell membrane

A

Neuraminidase

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75
Q

An individual who fails to express any antigens on the red cells

A

Null Phenotype

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76
Q

Refers to the detectable characteristics of genes

A

Phenotype

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77
Q

Types/Classifications/Kinds of Plasma volume expander

A

Plasma derived volume expander

Synthetic volume expander

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78
Q

Refers to a woman who had at least one pregnancy

A

Primiparous

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79
Q

IgG warm reacting antibody

A

37 oC

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80
Q

Refers to the chance that the alleged father is the biological father

A

Paternity index

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81
Q

(2) plasma derived volume expander

A

NSA (normal serum albumin)

PPF (plasma protein fraction)

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82
Q

A D antigen that is missing part of its typical antigenic structure

A

Partial D

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83
Q

Required temperature in oC by which the antibody is most reactive

A

Optimum temp

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84
Q

Products transfused in patients suffering from hypovolemia(decrease plasma volume) or indicate among burn and shock patients

A

Plasma Volume Expander

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85
Q

Plasma prepared from a whole blood subjected to heavy spin which allow sedimentation of platelets thus leaving a plasma almost free of platelets

A

Platelet Poor Plasma (PPP)

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86
Q

Diagrammatic chart used for illustrating the inheritance patterns of traits in a family study

A

Pedigree chart

87
Q

(2) synthetic volume expander

A

Crystalloids

Colloids

88
Q

Enumerate ex of crystalloids

A

Ringer’s Lactate (Na, K, Cl, Ca,lactate ions)

Normal Saline Solution (0.85-0.9% NaCl)

89
Q

NSA

A

96% albumin + 4% globulin

90
Q

Group O reagent red blood cells that are used for antibody identification

A

Panel cell

91
Q

The initial treatment of elevated bilirubin using lights.

A

Phototherapy

92
Q

PPF

A

83% albumin + 17% globulin

93
Q

Plasma prepared from a whole blood subjected to soft spin which allows slow sedimentation of platelets thus leaving a plasma that contains high number of platelets

A

PRP (Platelet Rich Plasma)

94
Q

A type of cold autoimmune hemolytic anemia in which a biphasic IgG antibody can be demonstrated with anti-P specificity

A

Paroxysmal Cold Hemoglobinuria

95
Q

The spontaneous clumping of rbc against a given serum

A

Panagglutination

96
Q

Refers to the fibrinogen containing liquid portion of anticoagulated blood

A

Plasma

97
Q

The extra blood sample collected during whole blood donation from a donor which is intended for serological test

A

Pilot tube

98
Q

A chemical compound formed by a small number of simple carbohydrate molecules

A

Oligosaccharide Chain

99
Q

Can be used as a specimen for backward typing to detect antibodies however might present problem because it can bring about rouleaux formation

A

Plasma

100
Q

Useful in the identification of antibodies in the Kidd blood group system

A

Polybyrene

101
Q

Refers to a 2 x 2 grid used for gene combination in genetics

A

Punnett square

102
Q

Term referring to after child birth

A

Post partum

103
Q

Refers to a person who benefits and receives blood transfusion

A

Recipient

104
Q

The close monitoring of laboratory operations to allow maximum reliability of test result

A

Quality Control

105
Q

The blood group system showing several allelic forms therefore rendering more than one alternative phenotype

A

Polymorphism

106
Q

Inability of the patient to respond favorably after platelet transfusion thus the desired increment in platelet is not achieved

A

Platelet refractoriness

107
Q

Has lower ionic strength that increases the rate of antibody association.

A

LISS (Low Ionic Strength Saline solution)

108
Q

Required potency in anti-A and anti-B

A

1:256

109
Q

The spontaneous agglutination of red cells by most normal adult sera regardless of blood type

A

Polyagglutination

110
Q

Enhances the antigen-antibody rxn by concentrating antibody in the mixture through removal of water

A

Polyethylene Glycol (PEG)

111
Q

Refers to the required speed in a given time to sediment particles from a fluid mixture

A

Relative Centrifugal Force (RCF)

112
Q

A positively charge polymer that reduces zeta potential by neutralizing the negative charge in red cell

A

Polybyrene

113
Q

A system of procedures that ensures a laboratory to operate with the most minimal errors

A

Quality Assurance

114
Q

Incubation may be shortened to 5-15mins if this medium is used

A

LISS (Low Ionic Strength Saline solution)

115
Q

LISS

A

0.2 % NaCl in glycine

116
Q

The relative strength of an antibody present in a given antiserum usually expressed in titer

A

Potency

117
Q

Any substance that enhances antigen-antibody interaction from a given cell-serum mixture which may be used to detect low-titered antibodies in routine testing

A

Potentiator

118
Q

Term referring to after transfusion

A

Post transfusion

119
Q

RCF formula

A

RCF= 1.118 x 10^5 x radius x (rpm)^2

120
Q

Enumerate potentiators.

A

LISS (Low Ionic Strength Saline solution)
Polybyrene
Polyethylene Glycol

121
Q

Procedure that happens intravascularly

A

In Vivo sensitization

122
Q

An inherited characteristic showing decreased expression of Rh antigens

A

Rhmod

123
Q

Explain Rh Immune Globulin (RhIg) protection coverage.

A

Each vial of 300ug protects against 30ml fetal whole blood or 15ml packed cells

124
Q

Respiratory Distress Syndrome is formerly known as…

A

Hyaline Membrane Disease

125
Q

The group “O” cells with complete profile of antigens used in antibody detection

A

Screening Cells

126
Q

Samples collected after actual blood transfusion

A

Post Transfusion sampling

127
Q

A person who doesn’t inherit the Se gene (sese) and is incapable of producing ABH substances in secretions

A

Non Secretor

128
Q

A phenotype of a person who suffers from anemia and whose red cells do not express any Rh antigens

A

Rhnull

129
Q

A disease of unknown cause most frequently seen among premature infants characterized primarily by acute difficulty in breathing

A

Respiratory Distress Syndrome

130
Q

Used to determine fetomaternal hemorrhage based on the ability of fetal cells to aggregate aroung indicator cells (0.2 - 0.5% O-cell suspension, R2R2 rbc)

A

Rosette test

131
Q

A person who acquired the Se gene either homozygously (SeSe) or heterozygously (Sese) and is capable of producing ABH substances in secretions.

A

Secretor

132
Q

Additional blood bag attached to the primary bag generally intended for component preparation

A

Satellite bags

133
Q

A procedure done in a tube

A

In Vitro sensitization

134
Q

A group of red cells whose appearance resembles stack of coins associated with the used of plasma extenders or presence of abnormal plasma proteins

A

Rouleaux Formation

135
Q

A process of allowing interaction or attachment of an incomplete antibody to red cell antigen but no subsequent agglutination rxn seen

A

Sensitization

136
Q

Samples collected prior to actual blood transfusion

A

Pre Transfusion sampling

137
Q

An inherited characteristic showing decreased expression of Rh antigens

A

Rhmod

138
Q

Method of getting a sample to an individual

A

Sampling

139
Q

The concentrated and purified anti-D given as a prophylactic or preventive treatment to Rh(-) person who is exposed to D-antigen either through pregnancy or blood transfusion.

A

Rh Immune Globulin (RhIg)

140
Q

2 major categories of persons in Saliva testing

A

Secretor

Non Secretor

141
Q

Procedure used to determine blood group soluble substances

A

Saliva testing

142
Q

A systemic disease caused by the presence of pathogenic microorganisms in the body

A

Septicemia

143
Q

Brief loss of consciousness related to fainting

A

Syncope

144
Q

This test is useful in establishing real blood group if the expression is so weak to be detected by routine cell typing

A

Saliva testing

145
Q

Achieved by dropping 2 drops serum to 1 drop 5% red cell suspension

A

40: 1 serum to cell ratio

146
Q

Also called as therapeutic apheresis

A

Therapeutic Phlebotomy

147
Q

Ex of thiol rgt

A

DTT: dithiotreitol

2-ME: 2-mercaptoethanol

148
Q

Antigens within the ABO group that are weakly expressed thus react less strongly with their corresponding antibody subgroup

A

Subgroup

149
Q

Anticoag with 35 days shelf-life

A

CPDA-1

150
Q

The biochemical changes happening on blood upon in vitro storage

A

Storage lesion

151
Q

Other term for surface of shear

A

Slipping plane

152
Q

A severe physiologic rxn to trauma characterized by pallor, cyanosis, weak rapid pulse, drop on blood which often leads in unconsciousness

A

Shock

153
Q

Achieved by dropping 4 drops serum to 1 drop 3% red cell suspension

A

133:1 serum to cell ratio

154
Q

Often leads to ABO discrepancy

A

Subgroup

155
Q

Useful in differentiating IgM from IgG antibodies

A

Thiol reagent

156
Q

A chemical preservative used in commercial typing sera to prevent bacterial contamination

A

Sodium Azide (0.1%)

157
Q

Anticoags with 21 days shelf life

A

ACD, CPD, CP2D

158
Q

Refers to the boundary of the ionic cloud surrounding RBC in saline at which zeta potentialis measured

A

Surface of shear (slipping plane)

159
Q

The characteristic of an antibody to react with cell expressing the corresponding antigen only

A

Specificity

160
Q

Refers to the length of time when blood can still be used before it expires, and is usually related to the type of anticoagulant used

A

Shelf life

161
Q

The yellowish liquid portion of blood after clotting or centrifugation which can also be used as a source of antibody

A

Serum

162
Q

It refers to removal of blood components for treatment purposes

A

Therapeutic Phlebotomy

163
Q

Refers to the required drops of serum to mix with certain drops of red cell suspension to achieve greater reactivity

A

Serum to Cell Ratio

164
Q

A reagent that can be used to disperse agglutination caused by cold reactive IgM autoantibodies

A

Thiol reagent

165
Q

A set of guidelines developed to protect healthcare workers from exposure to infectious reagents

A

Universal precaution

166
Q

Enumerate: warfarin shiz

A

Coumadin
Panwarfin
Sofarin

167
Q

Classifications of Weak D

A

Acquired D^u
Hereditary D^u
D^u variant/Mosaic

168
Q

A batch test that includes ABO,Rh, and antibody screening test

A

Type and Screen (T/S)

169
Q

Used in infants with erythroblastosis fetalis

A

Exchange transfusion

170
Q

Refers to type AB and type O indiv who are considered popularly as universal recipient and donor respectively

A

Universality concept

171
Q

Ability of red cell to survive in vivo after transfusion

A

Viability

172
Q

Debunk WARFARIN acronym

A

Wisconsin Alumni Research Foundation + (Coum) ARIN

173
Q

The transfusion of blood stored in blood bag coming from a homologous donor

A

Indirect transfusion

174
Q

Weaker variant of D-antigen that is detectable only through indirect globulin test

A

Weak D (D^u)

175
Q

Plasma dyscrasia characterized by excessive production of gamma M globulin

A

Waldenstrom’s macroglobulinemia

176
Q

An inherited characteristic based from gene action

A

Trait

177
Q

The administration of blood or its component intravenously

A

Transfusion

178
Q

A colorless crystalline compound widely used as an anticlotting drug

A

Warfarin

179
Q

Blood transfusion to fetus in utero

A

Intrauterine transfusion

180
Q

Refers to successive suspension of whole blood with NSS, centrifugation and decantation; preferably done 3x

A

Washing

181
Q

Refers to withdrawal of small volume of blood and subsequent replacement with compatible blood

A

Exchange transfusion

182
Q

Vascular skin rxn commonly signaling allergic rxn

A

Urticaria (hives)

183
Q

Anticoagulant drug that inhibits synthesis of vit K dependent factors ( II, VII, IX, X)

A

Warfarin

184
Q

Transfer of blood directly from one person to another

A

Direct transfusion

185
Q

Vitamin K dependent factors

A

II, VII, IX, X

186
Q

Grades of Weak D

A

High grade

Low grade

187
Q

Blood taken from a patient to be used for the same patient

A

Autologous transfusion

188
Q

Zone of maximum or greatest rxn

A

Equivalence zone

189
Q

Requires AHG for detection

A

Low grade

190
Q

Blood group whose genes are located int he X-chromosome; Xg^a antigen is seen in greatest frequency among females than males

A

Xg blood group

191
Q

Widely used in preparation of red cell suspension

A

Washing

192
Q

A soluble haptenic forms of A and B antigens capable of neutralizing their corresponding antibodies

A

Witebsky substances

193
Q

Enumerate types of transfusion

A 
Autologous 
Direct
Indirect
Exchange
Intrauterine
194
Q

The thick gelatinous substance rich in hyaluronic acidthat make up the matrix of the umbilical cord

A

Wharton’s jelly

195
Q

Does not require AHG for detection

A

High grade

196
Q

Period of time when the disease is present but tested serologically negative

A

Window period

197
Q

Zone of antibody excess (happens if more serum is added)

A

Prozone

198
Q

A mixture of 0.1 M DTT + 0.1% cysteine-activated papain used to dissociate IgG molecules from erythrocytes showing a positive DAT reaction

A

ZZAP

199
Q

If reduced, red cells tend to become closer to each other and therefore easier to agglutinate

A

Zeta potential

200
Q

Zone of antigen excess (happens if red cell suspension is too heavy)

A

Post zone

201
Q

The net negative charge of red cell measured at the surface of shear

A

Zeta potential

202
Q

Reaction that is influenced by the amount of antigen and antibody from the cell-serum mixture

A

Zonal reaction

203
Q

Presence of prozone or post zone leads to …

A

False negative result

204
Q

3 zonal reactions

A

Prozone
Post zone
Equivalence zone

205
Q

A seed extract capable of agglutinating red cells carrying the corresponding antigen

A

Lectin

206
Q

IgM cold reactive antibody

A

1-6 oC/ 20-24oC (cold temp or room temp)

207
Q

Agglutinate red cells with M antigen

A

Iberis amara (anti-M)

208
Q

Enumerate lectins

A 
Dolichos biflorus (anti-A)
Ulex europaeus (anti-H)
Iberis amara (anti-M)
Vicia graminea (anti-N)
Arachis hypogea (anti-T)
Salvia sclaera (anti-Tn)
209
Q

The reciprocal of the highest dilution that shows a visible rxn

A

Titer

211
Q

Synonym for antigens in the Rh blood group system

A

Rh factor

212
Q

Examples of Colloids

A

Dextran (6% - 10%)

HES (hydroxyethyl starch)

213
Q

Sabog na ba?

A

Kaya yan. :D

214
Q

Synonym for antigens in the Rh blood group system

A

Rh factor

215
Q

Example of Colloids

A

Dextran (6%-10%)

HES (hydroxyethyl starch)

Bad Blood (3 decks)

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