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107 P2 Flashcards

1
Q

To be eligible to operate over human beings under Category 4 operations, the small unmanned aircraft must
1 be 0.55 pounds or less on take off and throughout the duration of the flight.
2 must not cause injury equivalent to 25 foot-pounds of kinetic energy upon impact.
3 be operated in accordance with the operating limitations specified in the approved Flight Manual.

A

be operated in accordance with the operating limitations specified in the approved Flight Manual.

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2
Q

Your surveying company is a title sponsor for a race team at the Indianapolis 500. To promote your new aerial surveying department, you decide to video part of the race using a small UA. The FAA has issued a Temporary Flight Restriction (TFR) for the race in the area you plan to fly. In this situation
1 you may fly your drone in the TFR since your company is sponsoring a team at the race.
2 flying your drone is allowed if you notify all non-participating people of the closed course UA operation.
3 the TFR applies to all aircraft; you may not fly in the area without a Certificate of Waiver or Authorization.

A

3 the TFR applies to all aircraft; you may not fly in the area without a Certificate of Waiver or Authorization.

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3
Q

According to 14 CFR Part 48, when must a person register a small UA with the Federal Aviation Administration?
1 When the small UA is used for any purpose other than as a model aircraft.
2 All civilian small UAs weighing greater than .55 pounds must be registered regardless of its intended use.
3 Only when the operator will be paid for commercial services.

A

All civilian small UAs weighing greater than .55 pounds must be registered regardless of its intended use.

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4
Q

To conduct Category 4 operations, the remote Pilot in Command must use a small Unmanned Aircraft that
1 is operated by a Part 61 certified pilot.
2 is only operated over small groups of people.
3 documents maintenance, preventive maintenance, alterations, and inspections.

A

documents maintenance, preventive maintenance, alterations, and inspections.

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5
Q

A category 2 or 3 drone must have which of the following?
1 Published Performance charts.
2 A Declaration of Compliance, issued by the FAA (DOC).
3 Approval from the people the drone will be operating over.

A

A Declaration of Compliance, issued by the FAA (DOC).

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6
Q

Who is responsible for ensuring an aircraft meets the remote ID broadcast requirements?
1 The operator of the aircraft.
2 The manufacturer of the aircraft.
3 The owner of the aircraft.

A

The operator of the aircraft.

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7
Q

You hire an German company to help you work on a technical project that requires special UAS equipment. All their aircraft are currently registered in Germany and will be flown by your team of Part 107 pilots. Can they register their UAS with the FAA Drone Zone under Part 107?
1 No, they will have to obtain operating authority from the Department of Transportation.
2 Yes, it will cost $5 per aircraft.
3 They don’t need to, your aircraft are already registered and your pilots are certificated.

A

No, they will have to obtain operating authority from the Department of Transportation.

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8
Q

The FAA may approve your application for a waiver of provisions in Part 107 only when it has been determined that the proposed operation
1 Involves public aircraft or air carrier operations.
2 Can be safely conducted under the terms of that certificate of waiver.
3 Will be conducted outside of the United States.

A

Can be safely conducted under the terms of that certificate of waiver.

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9
Q

Standard Remote ID broadcasts which of the following information
1 Address and phone number of the pilot.
2 Location and altitude of the controller.
3 Name and Phone Number of the Operator.

A

Location and altitude of the controller.

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10
Q

According to 14 CFR Part 48, when would a small UA owner not be permitted to register it?
1 If the owner is less than 13 years of age.
2 If the owner does not have a valid United States driver’s license.
3 All persons must register their small UA.

A

If the owner is less than 13 years of age.

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11
Q

What source should a remote pilot use to determine if a drone or module is remote ID compliant?
1 The FAA DroneZone.
2 The FAA’s DOC list.
3 The manufacturer’s website.

A

The FAA’s DOC list.

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12
Q

To conduct Category 1 operations, a Remote Pilot in Command must use a small unmanned aircraft that weighs
1 0.75 pounds or less.
2 0.65 pounds or less.
3 0.55 pounds or less.

A

0.55 pounds or less.

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13
Q

You registered your UAS on August 12, 2018, on what day will your Certificate of Registration expire?
1 August 31, 2021.
2 August 12, 2021.
3 August 31, 2020.

A

August 12, 2021.

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14
Q

When can ADSB-Out be used on small Unmanned Aircraft?
1 The FAA does not allow the use of ADSB-out for sUAS.
2 Only when flying in a Temporary Flight Restriction.
3 Anytime you are flying in controlled airspace.

A

The FAA does not allow the use of ADSB-out for sUAS.

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15
Q

Which of the following is permissible with authorization from the Administrator, if the sole purpose of the mission is aeronautical research.
1 Flying in a prohibited area.
2 Flying in class B airspace without ADSB-Out.
3 Flying without Remote ID.

A

Flying without Remote ID.

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16
Q

What must a person, who is manipulating the controls of a small unmanned aircraft, do if the standard remote identification fails during a flight?
1 Activate the aircraft’s navigation lights.
2 Notify the nearest FAA Air Traffic facility.
3 Land the aircraft as soon as practicable.

A

Land the aircraft as soon as practicable.

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17
Q

Which Category of small unmanned aircraft must have an airworthiness certificate issued by the FAA?
1 2
2 3
3 4

A

4

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18
Q

You crashed your $1,200 quadcopter to the point where it cannot be repaired, you should
1 cancel the registration on the FAA Drone Zone.
2 notify the FAA within 10 days.
3 send the remaining parts to the FAA for investigation.

A

cancel the registration on the FAA Drone Zone.

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19
Q

Category 4 aircraft are required to
1 be operated by a Part 61 pilot.
2 receive type certification under Part 21.
3 have remote ID for all operations over human beings.

A

receive type certification under Part 21.

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20
Q

For older drones that are not remote ID compliant, how can a remote pilot comply with part 89?
1 You must purchase a new drone to comply with Part 89.
2 Older drones are grandfathered in and don’t need to comply with Part 89.
3 Equip the aircraft with a remote ID broadcast module.

A

Equip the aircraft with a remote ID broadcast module.

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21
Q

A flight control failure causes your UAS to collide with the ground without damage to any other property. A report
1 is not required.
2 must be made within 10 days to the FAA.
3 must be made immediately to the NTSB.

A

must be made immediately to the NTSB.

22
Q

After selling your UAS on eBay, how many days do you have to update the registration information on the FAA Drone Zone website?
1 1 calendar month.
2 7 days.
3 14 days.

A

14 days.

23
Q

Where must a small unmanned aircraft’s serial number be listed when using standard remote identification?
1 The Certificate of Aircraft Registration.
2 The manufacturer’s Means of Compliance.
3 The aircraft’s Document of Compliance

A

The Certificate of Aircraft Registration.

24
Q

(Refer to FAA-CT-8080-2H, Figure 48.) Area C on the airport depicted is classified as a

1 stabilized area.
2 closed runway.
3 multiple heliport.

A

closed runway.

25
Q

Which is the correct traffic pattern departure procedure to use at a noncontrolled airport?
1 Depart in any direction consistent with safety, after crossing the airport boundary.
2 Make all turns to the left.
3 Comply with any FAA traffic pattern established for the airport.

A

Comply with any FAA traffic pattern established for the airport.

26
Q

(Refer to FAA-CT-8080-2H, Figure 65.) This sign confirms your position on (Refer to F)

1 routing to runway 22.
2 taxiway 22.
3 runway 22.

A

runway 22.

27
Q

(Refer to FAA-CT-8080-2H, Figure 65.) Which sign identifies where aircraft are prohibited from entering?

1 D.
2 G.
3 B.

A

1 D.

28
Q

The recommended entry position to an airport traffic pattern is
1 45° to the base leg just below traffic pattern altitude.
2 to cross directly over the airport at traffic pattern altitude and join the downwind leg.
3 to enter 45° at the midpoint of the downwind leg at traffic pattern altitude.

A

to enter 45° at the midpoint of the downwind leg at traffic pattern altitude.

29
Q

What purpose does the taxiway location sign serve?
1 Provides general taxiing direction to named runway.
2 Identifies taxiway on which an aircraft is located.
3 Denotes entrance to runway from a taxiway.

A

Identifies taxiway on which an aircraft is located.

30
Q

(Refer to FAA-CT-8080-2H, Figure 65.) Which sign is a designation and direction of an exit taxiway from a runway?

1 F.
2 K.
3 J.

A

K.

31
Q

(Refer to FAA-CT-8080-2H, Figure 65.) This sign is a visual clue that (Refer to E)

1 confirms the aircraft’s location to be on taxiway “B.”
2 warns the pilot of approaching taxiway “B.”
3 indicates “B” holding area is ahead.

A

confirms the aircraft’s location to be on taxiway “B.”

32
Q

The numbers 8 and 26 on the approach ends of the runway indicate that the runway is orientated approximately
1 008° and 026° true.
2 080° and 260° true.
3 080° and 260° magnetic.

A

080° and 260° magnetic.

33
Q

A military air station can be identified by a rotating beacon that emits
1 two quick, white flashes between green flashes.
2 green, yellow, and white flashes.
3 white and green alternating flashes.

A

two quick, white flashes between green flashes.

34
Q

When operating near an airport located in uncontrolled airspace, you should
1 submit a LAANC request.
2 be sure to not interfere with airport operations.
3 request approval from the airport manager to fly in the airspace.

A

be sure to not interfere with airport operations.

35
Q

(Refer to FAA-CT-8080-2H, Figure 52.) Traffic patterns in effect at Lincoln Municipal are

1 to the left on Runway 14 and Runway 32; to the right on Runway 18 and Runway 35.
2 to the right on Runway 14 and Runway 32; to the left on Runway 18 and Runway 35.
3 to the right on Runways 14 - 32.

A

to the left on Runway 14 and Runway 32; to the right on Runway 18 and Runway 35.

36
Q

A lighted heliport may be identified by a
1 flashing yellow light.
2 green, yellow, and white rotating beacon.
3 blue lighted square landing area.

A

green, yellow, and white rotating beacon.

37
Q

You are scheduled to conduct aerial inspections of a nearby power plant, what are some of the factors to consider.
1 thermal plumes may create turbulence or cause reduced visibility.
2 you can’t fly there since it is restricted airspace.
3 the radioactivity may affect the signal between the UAS and the Control Station.

A

thermal plumes may create turbulence or cause reduced visibility.

38
Q

An airport’s rotating beacon operated during daylight hours indicates
1 that weather at the airport located in Class D airspace is below basic VFR weather minimums.
2 there are obstructions on the airport.
3 the Air Traffic Control tower is not in operation.

A

that weather at the airport located in Class D airspace is below basic VFR weather minimums.

39
Q

Absence of the sky condition and visibility on an ATIS broadcast indicates that
1 the sky condition is clear and visibility is unrestricted.
2 weather conditions are at or above VFR minimums.
3 the ceiling is at least 5,000 feet and visibility is 5 miles or more.

A

the ceiling is at least 5,000 feet and visibility is 5 miles or more.

40
Q

The most comprehensive information on a given airport is provided by
1 Terminal Area Chart (TAC).
2 Notices to Airmen (NOTAMS).
3 the Chart Supplements U.S. (formerly Airport Facility Directory).

A

the Chart Supplements U.S. (formerly Airport Facility Directory).

41
Q

A Security Identifications Display Area (SIDA) is
1 an area at the airport where Remote ID is required.
2 an area where LAANC requests are required.
3 an area where airport badges are required to access.

A

an area where airport badges are required to access.

42
Q

If you are flying near an untowered airport with no CTAF, how would you keep track of local traffic?
1 121.5 MHz.
2 Flight Watch on 122.0 MHz
3 MULTICOM 122.9 MHz.

A

MULTICOM 122.9 MHz

43
Q

(Refer to FAA-CT-8080-2H, Figure 26, Area 4.) The CTAF/UNICOM frequency at Jamestown Airport is

1 122.2 MHz.
2 123.0 MHz.
3 123.6 MHz.

A

123.0 MHz.

44
Q

(Refer to FAA-CT-8080-2H, Figure 21, Area 2.) The CTAF/MULTICOM frequency for Garrison Airport is (Area 2)

1 122.9 MHz.
2 122.8 MHz.
3 123.0 MHz.

A

122.9 MHz.

45
Q

(Refer to FAA-CT-8080-2H, Figure 25, Area 2.) The control tower frequency for Addison Airport is

1 133.4 MHz.
2 126.0 MHz.
3 122.95 MHz.

A

126.0 MHz.

46
Q

The correct method of stating 10,500 feet MSL to ATC is
1 TEN POINT FIVE.
2 ONE ZERO THOUSAND, FIVE HUNDRED.
3 TEN THOUSAND, FIVE HUNDRED FEET.

A

ONE ZERO THOUSAND, FIVE HUNDRED.

47
Q

As standard operating practice, all inbound traffic to an airport without a control tower should continuously monitor the appropriate facility from a distance of
1 25 miles.
2 10 miles.
3 20 miles.

A

10 miles.

48
Q

(Refer to FAA-CT-8080-2H, Figure 22, Area 2.) At Coeur D’Alene which frequency should be used as a Common Traffic Advisory Frequency (CTAF) to monitor airport traffic?

1 122.05 MHz.
2 122.8 MHz.
3 135.075 MHz.

A

122.8 MHz.

49
Q

(Refer to FAA-CT-8080-2H, Figure 26, Area 5.) What is the CTAF/UNICOM frequency at Barnes County Airport?

1 122.8 MHz.
2 122.2 MHz.
3 123.6 MHz.

A

122.8 MHz.

50
Q

(Refer to FAA-CT-8080-2H, Figure 25, Area 3.) If Dallas Executive Tower is not in operation, which frequency should be used as a Common Traffic Advisory Frequency (CTAF) to monitor airport traffic?

1 126.35 MHz.
2 122.95 MHz.
3 127.25 MHz.

A

127.25 MHz.

51
Q

The correct method of stating 4,500 feet MSL to ATC is
1 FOUR THOUSAND FIVE HUNDRED.
2 FORTY-FIVE HUNDRED FEET MSL.
3 FOUR POINT FIVE.

A

FOUR THOUSAND FIVE HUNDRED.

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