1.01 - Immunology Flashcards

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1
Q

What organ is the largest lymphoid organ that is also referred as the graveyard of blood cells?

A

Spleen

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2
Q

Tears have ___ which is a chemical that can degrade peptidoglycan layer present in bacterial cell walls

A

Lysozyme

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3
Q

Epithelial barriers, phagocytes, complement, and NK cells are the components of ____ kind of immunity

A

Innate immunity

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4
Q

B lymphocytes producing antibodies, and T lymphocytes producing effector T cells are components of the ___ kind of immunity

A

Adaptive/acquired, specific immunity

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5
Q

Describe mechanism of immune evasion by pneumococcus

A

Capsular polysaccharide of the organism inhibits phagocytosis

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6
Q

Describe mechanism of immune evasion by staphylococci

A

Staphylococci produces catalase which breaks down reactive oxygen intermediates, therefore resists phagocytosis

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7
Q

Describe mechanism of immune evasion by neisseria meningitides

A

resists complement activation by expressing sialic acid which inhibits C3 and C5 convertases

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8
Q

Describe mechanism of immune evasion by streptococcus

A

M protein blocks C3 binding to organism, and C3b binding to complement receptors

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9
Q

Describe mechanism of immune evasion by Pseudomonas

A

resists antimicrobial peptide antibiotics by synthesizing modified LPS that resists action of antibiotics

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10
Q

Enumerate antigen-presenting cells

A

Dendritic cells, macrophages, follicular dendritic cells

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11
Q

Name the interleukin that is also the Lymphocyte Activating Factor

A

IL1

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12
Q

Name the interleukin that is a T-Cell Growth Factor. It activates cytotoxic cells, NK cells, LAK cells

A

IL2

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13
Q

Name the interleukin that is also IFN beta 2. It induces secretions of Ig and other plasma proteins

A

IL6

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14
Q

Name the interleukins that are produced by activated T cells to stimulate proliferation of B cells

A

IL4 and IL5

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15
Q

Give the function and source of IFN-y

A

Function: activation of macrophages, and stimulates some antibody responses

Source: NK cells, T lymphocytes

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16
Q

___ are incomplete antigen that needs a carrier protein to become immunogenic

A

Haptens

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17
Q

Classification of Antigens:

Antigen stimulates the production of autoantibodies

A

Autologous or AutoAg

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18
Q

Classification of Antigens:

Antigen with and antibody that is specific for that antigen

A

Homologous

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19
Q

Classification of Antigens:

Antigen that reacts with an antibody other tan the one it induced

A

Heterologous

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20
Q

Antibody which can cross the placenta; major Ig in secondary immune response

A

IgG

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21
Q

Antibody which is predominant Ig in secretions, contains a J chain

A

IgA

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22
Q

Antibody which is the predominant Ig in primary immune response and has J chain

A

IgM

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23
Q

Antibody which is involved in B cell activation and also heat and acid labile

A

IgD

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24
Q

Antibody which is associated with immediate hypersensitivity, binds basophils and mad cells, and elevated during parasitic infections

A

IgE

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25
Q

Only antibody that readily crosses the placenta, and thus, is most abundant in newborns

A

IgG

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26
Q

Give location of MHC in the genome

A

Located on the short arm (p-arm) of chromosome 6

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27
Q

Enumerate mechanisms of complement protein destruction

A

Heat inactivation (56 degree celsius for 30 minutes, or 60-62 degree councils for 5-10 minutes)

Anti-coagulant (makes Ca unavailable; Ca holds C1 together)

Neormal serum inhibitor

Prolonged storage

28
Q

Forms the C3 convertase

A

C4b2a

29
Q

Forms the c5 convertase

A

C4b2a3b

30
Q

Complement regulation:

__ cleaves C3b and C4b

A

Factor I

31
Q

Complement regulation:

__ competes for factor B, regulator of alternative pathway

A

Factor H

32
Q

Complement regulation:

___ acts as a cofactor with I to inactivate C4b

A

C4 binding protein

33
Q

Complement regulation:

___ prevents attachment of the C5b67 complex to cell membrane

A

S protein (vitronectin)

34
Q

Complement regulation:

___ accelerates dissociation of C3 convertase

A

Decay accelerating factor (DAF or CD 55)

35
Q

Deficiency of C1, C2, C3, C4 produce ___

A

Lupus Erythematous-like syndrome, with severe recurrent infections

36
Q

Deficiency of C5, C6, C7, C8 produce

A

Neisseria Syndrom

37
Q

Deficiency of C1INH produce

A

Hereditary angioedema (HANE)

38
Q

Deficiency of DAF and HRF

A

Paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria (PNH)

39
Q

Deficiency of Factor H or I produce

A

Recurrent bacterial infections

40
Q

Enumerate and describe the 4 types of hypersensitivity reactions

A

Type I: Immediate hypersensitivity; IgE-mediated; Ag induces cross linking of IgE to mast cells, releasing vasoactive mediators (Histamine, Prostaglandins, and Leukotrienes)

Type II: Antibody-mediatic cytotoxic hypersensitivity, cell destruction

Type III: immune complex mediated hypersensitivity. Ag-Ab complexes deposited at various sites induces mast cell degranulation

Type IV: Cell-mediated (delayed type) hypersensitivity

41
Q

SLE expresses itself as ___

A

VASCULITIS
Arthritis
Skin Lesions: butterfly rash/red wolf (rash across nose and cheeks; Malar rash)

42
Q

Most striking laboratory feature of LE

A

Presence of Anti-Nuclear Antibodies (ANA)

43
Q

___ is a T lymphocyte disorder where thymus gland is underdeveloped

A

DiGeorge

44
Q

___ is a B lymphocyte disorder where there is a lack of antibodies, specifically IgG

A

X-Linked agamma glbulinemia

45
Q

A phagocytic disorder where there are toxic granulations found in WBC which results to a higher risk of acquiring infection; patient presents with albinism

A

Chediak Higashi

46
Q

A phagocytic disorder where there is defective mobility of phagocytes; random movement is normal, but directional motility is impaired

A

Job’s syndrome

47
Q

A phagocytic disorder where both random and directed movement of phagocytes are defective

A

Lazy Leukocyte syndrome

48
Q

What type of immunity is primarily concerned with extracellular microbes. (Choices: humoral or cell-mediated immunity)

A

Humoral immunity

49
Q

Cell-mediated immunity is concerned with killing of ___ microbes. (Choices: extracellular or intracellular)

A

Intracellular, usually viruses

50
Q

Helper T cells have __ receptors on their surfaces which are the primary targets in an HIV attack

A

CD4+

51
Q

Cytotoxic T cells have __ receptors on their surfaces

A

CD8+

52
Q

Enumerate the different types of lymphocytes

A

B lymphocytes
Helper T lymphocytes
Cytolytic T lymphocytes
Natural killer cells

53
Q

Which type of lymphocytes has the following functions:

  • neutralization of microbes
  • phagocytosis
  • complement activation
A

B Lymphocytes

54
Q

Which type of lymphocytes has the following functions:

  • activation of macrophages
  • inflammation
  • activation of T and B lymphocytes
A

Helper T lymphocytes

55
Q

Which type of lymphocytes has the following functions:

- killing of infected cells

A

Cytolytic T lymphocytes

Natural killer cells

56
Q

Which group of interleukins is also known as the lymphocyte activating factor

A

IL1

57
Q

Which group of interleukins is produced by activated T cells to stimulate proliferation of B cells

A

IL4 and IL5

58
Q

Which group of interleukins is also known as IFN beta 2 and induces secretion of Ig and other plasma protein

A

Which group of interleukins is also the NK stimulating factor

59
Q

__ are incomplete antigens that need a carrier protein to become immunogenic or active

A

Haptens

60
Q

Region of the Ig molecule that binds with the complement and initiates the complement pathway

A

CH2

61
Q

Region of the Ig molecule which is responsible for specificity; also the antigen binding site

A

Variable region

62
Q

Class I MHC is recognized by __

A

CD8+ cytotoxic t lymphocytes

63
Q

Class II MHC is recognized by ___

A

CD4+ helper T cells

64
Q

Which component of the complement system has the highest concentration and serves as a tool in measuring complement function

A

c3

65
Q

What is the most striking feature in laboratory studies of patients with SLE

A

Anti-nuclear antibodies

66
Q

What is the lab finding found in scleroderma selective for the crest variant of scleroderma

A

Anti-centromere antibody