1000 MCQ Flashcards

1
Q

what is the purpose of inclining the handpiece for lower premolars?

A

to avoid the buccal pulp horn

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2
Q

for an amalgam restoration of a weakened cusp you should…
1. reduce cusp by 2mm on a flat base for more resistance
2. reduce cusp by 2mm following the outline of the cusp
3. reduce 2mm retention form

A

reduce cusp by 2mm on a flat base for more resistance

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3
Q

before filling a class V abrasion cavity with GIC, you should:
1. clean with pumice, rubber cup, water and weak acid
2. dry the cavity thoroughly before doing anything
3. acid etch cavity then dry thoroughly

A

clean with pumice, rubber cup, water and weak acid

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4
Q

describe a class I cavity

A
  • pits and fissures on occlusal surface of molars and premolars
  • lingual surface of maxillary incisors
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5
Q

describe a class II cavity

A

proximal surface of molars and premolars

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6
Q

describe a class III cavity

A

proximal surfaces of incisors and canines that do not involve the incisal angle

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7
Q

describe a class IV cavity

A

proximal surfaces of incisors or canines that involve the incisal angle

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8
Q

describe a class V cavity

A

cervical third of the facial or lingual surfaces of any tooth

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9
Q

describe a class VI cavity

A
  • incisal edges of anterior teeth
  • cusp tips of posterior teeth
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10
Q

the retention pin in an amalgam restoration should be placed parallel to what?

A

the outer wall

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11
Q

what is the most common failure of an IDB?

A

injecting too high

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12
Q

which of the following is not used in water fluoridation?
1. SnF2
2. 1.12% APF
3. H2SiF2
4. CaSiF2
5. 8% stannous fluoride

A

SnF2

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13
Q

what is the best chemical to clean a cavity before the placement of GIC?

A

polyacryclic acid

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14
Q

what is the most mineralised part of dentine?

A

peritubular dentine

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15
Q

what are the symptoms of angioneurotic oedema?

A
  • swollen face
  • puffiness around the eyes
  • oedema of upper lip
  • redness and dryness of skin
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16
Q

what types of resorption could be seen after replantation of an avulsed tooth?

A
  • surface resorption
  • external resorption
  • inflammatory resorption
  • replacement resorption
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17
Q

what is the % of total dentine surface that dentine tubules make up 0.5mm away from the pulp?

A

50%

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18
Q

describe the junction between primary and secondary dentine

A

a resting line

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19
Q

pick the correct sequence of events;
1. differentiation of odontoblast, elongation of enamel epithelium, dentine formation, enamel formation
2. differentiation of odontoblast, dentine formation then enamel formation, elongation of enamel epithelium
3. elongation of enamel epithelium, differentiation of odontoblast, dentine formation then enamel formation

A

differentiation of odontoblast, elongation of enamel epithelium, dentine formation, enamel formation

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20
Q

what is the sequence from syperficial to the deepest in dentine caries?

A
  1. Zone of bacterial penetration
  2. demineralisation
  3. sclerosis
  4. reparative dentine
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21
Q

the nerve supply of the pulp is composed of which type of nerve fibres?

A

afferent
sympathetic

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22
Q

in which direction does the palatal root of the upper first molar usually curve towards?

A

buccal

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23
Q

what is the common appearance of vertical tooth fracture?

A

perio abscess like appearance

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24
Q

give a possible indication for indirect pulp capping?

A

where any further excavation of dentine would result in pulp exposure

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25
Q

what is the main purpose of performing a pulp test on a recently traumatised tooth?

A

obtain a baseline response

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26
Q

what is the main function of EDTA in endodontics?

A

decalcification of dentine

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27
Q

what is EDTA?

A

Ethylenediamide tetraacetic acid
a chelating agent which combines with calcium ion and inactivates it

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28
Q

when should a prscription of 5/10mg of diazepam be given for sedation in order to obtain an acceptable level of anxiolytic action?

A

one hour preoperatively

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29
Q

how long can active metabolites in a prescription of 5/10mg of diazepam give a level of sedation for post operatively?

A

up to 8 hours

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30
Q

what drug is used to reverse the action of benzodiazepine?

A

flumazepil

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31
Q

is 0.1ml blood from an Hepatitis B or HIV carrier more infective?

A

Hepatitis B

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32
Q

what is the main problem that can be anticipated in routine dental therapy in a patient with severe cirrhosis?

A

tendancy towards prolonged haemorrhage

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33
Q

if a patient presents with a fracture to the right body of the mandible, where should you expect a second fracture to be located?

A

left sub-condylar region

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34
Q

what are 2 signs tha commonly suggest cardiac failure in a patient being assessed for oral surgery?

A

ankle oedema and dyspnoea

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35
Q

what is the treatment for a 1cm cyst present at the apex of an upper central incisor?

A
  • make a mucoperiosteal flap
  • remove the cyst through an opening made in the alveolar bone
  • endodontic treatment
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36
Q

what is the best treatment of a persistent oroantral fistula for a 12 week period following the extraction of a maxillary first permanent molar?

A

excistion of the fistula and surgical closure

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37
Q

what is the purpose of prophylatic prescription of dexamethasone for surgical removal of a lower third molar?

A

may reduce post operative swelling

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38
Q

what is the purpose of prophylatic prescription of an antibiotic for surgical removal of a lower third molar?

A

dramtically reduces the chance of infection

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39
Q

what are enkephalins?

A

morphine like substances produced in the CNS, adrenal medulla and other peripheral tissues which can control pain

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40
Q

suppuration is the result of the combined action of which four factors?

A
  • necrosis
  • presence of lymphocytes
  • accumulation of tissue fluid
  • autolysis by proeolytic enzymes
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41
Q

name 4 intra-epithelial lesions

A
  • herpes simplex infections
  • pemphigus vulgaris
  • herpangina
  • hand, foot and mouth disease
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42
Q

name 4 characteristics of trigeminal neuralgia

A
  • pain usually lasts for a few seconds up to a minute in the early stages of disease
  • the pain is usually unilateral
  • patients characteristically have sites on the skin that when stimulated precipitate an attack of pain
  • has a sudden unexpected onset and may respond to the treatment with carbamazepine
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43
Q

how does geographic tongue manifest?

A

atrophy of filiform papillae in multiple irregularly outlined areas

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44
Q

what is the clinical name for geographic tongue?

A

benign migratory glossitis

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45
Q

what infection is oral hairy leukoplakia associated with?

A

HIV

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46
Q

where is oral hairy leukoplakia usually seen?

A

lateral surface of the tongue

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47
Q

basal cell carcinoma is characterised by…
1. rapid growth and metastasis
2. local cutaneous invasion
3. inability to invade bone
4. poor prognosis
5. radiation resistance
6. can not metastasise to the bone

A

local cutaneous invasion

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48
Q

what is the mechanism of action of trichloroacetic acid?

A

protein precipitation PPT

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49
Q

why might a patient who has been taking quantities of aspirin show increased post operative bleeding?

A

aspirin inhibits synthesis of thromboxane A2 and prevents platelet aggregation

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50
Q

a patient eho recently had calculus removed from the kidney presents with a radiolucent area in the left maxilla with clinical evidence of swelling. what disease would you immediately suggest?

A

hyperparathyroidism

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51
Q

which factor does Von Willebrand’s disease affect?

A

factor VIII

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52
Q

what is the normal range for red blood cells?

A

male- 4.3-5.9 million
female- 3.5-5.5 million

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53
Q

what is the normal range for white blood cells?

A

4,500-11,000

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54
Q

what is the normal range for platelets?

A

150,000-400,000

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55
Q

what is the normal range for haemoglobin?

A

male- 13.5-17.5
female- 12-16

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56
Q

what is the normal blood test result for hematocrit?

A

41-53%
36-46%

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57
Q

which diseases can be indicated by high levels of bilirubin in the blood?

A
  • abnormal red blood cell destruction (hemolysis)
  • adverse medication reactions
  • bile duct blockage
  • Gilbert’s syndrome
  • hepatitis
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58
Q

what is ALT?

A

An enzyme found in the liver

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59
Q

what diseases can high levels of ALT in the blood indicate?

A
  • cirrhosis
  • hepatitis
  • liver cancer
  • liver damage
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60
Q

what is the role of triiodothyronine (T3)?

A

regulates heart rate and body temperature

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61
Q

what is the role of thyroxine (T4)?

A

regulates metabolism and growth

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62
Q

what is the role of thyroid stimulating hormone? (TSH)?

A

helps regulate the levels of hormones that the thyroid releases

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63
Q

what are normal levels of T3?

A

80–180 nanograms per deciliter of blood (ng/dL)

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64
Q

what are normal levels of T4?

A

0.8–1.8 ng/dL in adults.

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65
Q

what are normal levels of TSH?

A

0.5–4 milli-international units per liter of blood (mIU/L)

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66
Q

the tonsillar lymph node is situated at the level of which anatomical feature?

A

the angle of the mandible

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67
Q

name 4 factors which can reduce exposure of the patient to ionising radiation when taking a radiograph

A
  • the use of fast film
  • the addition of filtration
  • collimation of the beam
  • the use of an open and lead lined cone
  • decreasing the kilovoltage KvP
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68
Q

what particles do the emulsions on x-ray films consist of?

A

silver bromide in gelatine

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69
Q

You wish to purchase a dental X ray machine and
have the choice between 60kVp and 70kVp machines. With single
change from 60kVp to 70kVp what would the approximate affects on exposure time?

A

half the time

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70
Q

what is the obturating material of choice for primary teeth following complete pulpectomy?

A

zinc oxide and eugenol cement

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71
Q

why is proximal reduction greater on a primary molar when preparing for a SS crown greater than that of the buccal and lingual surfaces?

A

to allow the crown to pass the contact area

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72
Q

what is the appropraite treatment of a child who has sustained a fracture of the 11 in which 2m of the pulp is exposed, 3 hours after the injury?

A

remove the surface 1-2mm of the pulp tissue and place calcium hydroxide

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73
Q

which primary teeth are least affected with nursing bottle caries?

A

mandibular incisors

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74
Q

during which stages of tooth development does oligodontia occur?

A

initiation and proliferation

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75
Q

what are the stages of tooth development?

A
  1. initiation
  2. proliferation
  3. histodifferentiation
  4. morphodifferentiation
  5. mineralisation
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76
Q

what is the preferred treatment for a healthy 6 year old presenting with a carious maxillary second primary molar with a necrotic pulp?

A

pulpectomy

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77
Q

to produce a table correction of an upper labial segment in lingual crossbite it is essential to;
* use fixed appliances
* have adequate overbite
* treat during growth
* use posterior capping
* increase vertical dimension

A

have adequate overbite

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78
Q

how are the lamina dura seen on periapicals?

A

a pattern of radiopaque lines in supporting alveolar bone

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79
Q

Which of the following organisms are pathognomonic of acute necrotic ulcerative gingivitis?

A. Spirochaetes and fusobacterium SP
B. Spirochaetes and eikenella corrodes
C. Polymorphs and lymphocytes
D. Actinobacillus actinomycetes comitans oral capnocytophaga
E. Porphyromonas gingivalis and prevotella intermedia

A

spirochaetes and fusobacterium

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80
Q

In testing for mobility, which of the following statement is true?

A. Heavy pressure must sometimes be used to test mobility
B. Only lateral mobility is significant in diagnosis and
treatment of chronic
inflammatory periodontal disease
C. Hyper mobility indicates that the tooth supporting structure have been weakened
D. During the periodontal examination each tooth should be tested individually for hyper mobility
E. Reliance on radiograph is essential

A

hyper mobility indicares that the tooth supporting structures have been weakened

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81
Q

true or false:
desquamative gingivitis is frequently caused by lichen planus

A

true

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82
Q

why is the treatment of localised aggressive periodontitis frequently supplemented with tetracycline?

A

because the flora involved are predominantly facultative or microaerophilic

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83
Q

what is the most accurate wat to evaluate the effectiveness of root planning?

A

evaluate the soft tissues 10-14 days later

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84
Q

When treating a non vital tooth with a fistula present: the fistula should be treated by…

A

The usual root canal procedures for a non-vital teeth and no special procedures for fistula

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85
Q

To increase the setting time of phosphate cement you would?

A

Use a cold glass slab

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86
Q

A 27 year old female has a sudden odematous rash after an injection of barbiturates. What is your management

A

IM 0.5ml of 1:1000 adrenaline with oxygen administration

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87
Q

50 year old man presented after a full mouth extraction complaining he bled all night. Which of the following pre existing could be responsible for post op bleeding

A

Blood pressure reading of 180/100

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88
Q

Long bone growth by

A

C. Appositional growth in cartilage epiphysis

D. Interstitial growth in cartilage epiphysis

Research

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89
Q

What is true in regard to oral lesions of reticular lichen planus ?

A

Lesions may present anywhere

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90
Q

Bone graft method that has shown the greatest osteogenesis potential is

A

Cancellous bone graft

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91
Q

A patient states that for almost a year they have had a rubbery, firm painless nodule within the substance of parotid gland. This is most likely

A

Pleomorphic adenoma

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92
Q

The best method to radiate a specific area of the head is

A

Use a lead Collimator

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93
Q

The best reading on radiograph to diagnose ankylosis in deciduous molar is

A

Density of lamina dura

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94
Q

What is not characteristic of dentinogenesis imperfecta

A

Dentinal tubules are more than usual

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95
Q

A child wi the less than normal number of teeth, mandibular lateral incisor is larger than usual; on an X-ray it shows two roots and two root canals; the diagnosis is

A

Fusion

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96
Q

The most stable area to evaluate the craneofacial growth is

A

Anterior cranial base

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97
Q

7 year old with class I malocclusion, slight version of maxillary class I; adequate arch length. What is the management

A

Inclined plane on mandibular anterior teeth

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98
Q

Tongue thrust with tongue to lip swallow is seen in

A

Incompetent lips

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99
Q

Clinical indication of pathogenic chronic periodontitis

A

Presence of true pockets
Apical migration of gingival epithelium!!!
Presence of subgingival calculus

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100
Q

To prevent exposure of a ? On a permanent root; the best dentist approach for elevating a flap is to use

A

Split thickness flap

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101
Q

What is true in regards to primary occlusal trauma

A

Mobility caused by excessive forced on normal periodontal ligament

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102
Q

In advanced periodontitis with marked mobility: teeth should be splinted

A

To improve comfort and function

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103
Q

Exam reveals area of gingival recession,exposed wide area of dental roots. Which is the procedure of choice to obtain coverage of the root surface

A

Free gingival autograft

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104
Q

What does contra indicate distal wedge in molar areas

A

Sharply ascending ramus that limits space distal to molars

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105
Q

What is not a property of a fluoride ion

A

Produces extrinsic tooth strain

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106
Q

Two conditions of enamel facilitate post eruptive uptake of Fluoride element

A

Dental fluorosis and enamel opacities

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107
Q

In regards to topically applied fluoride

A

A & B?

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108
Q

Flexibility of the retentive clasp arm does not relate to

A

Undercut area

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109
Q

Protrusive movement in wax

A

Can not be perforated

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110
Q

Least use of blood count

A

Infectious mononuclears

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111
Q

What is the best advantage of using 10,000 rpm and over motors is

A

Less vibration on the patient

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112
Q

How long would it take to see the dentinal bridge after direct pulp capping by using calcium hydroxide

A

6-8 weeks

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113
Q

The optimum crown to root ratio for an abutment tooth is

A

2:3

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114
Q

What contraindicates bridge work

A

Long edentulous spaces which will lead to damage of abutments

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115
Q

Elasticity of impression material will (ideally)

A

Prevent distortion when impression is removed out of the mouth

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116
Q

Patient has come in several time complaining about soreness what would you do?

A

Check occlusion of lower buccal cusps

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117
Q

What is the difference between argon and non arcon articulator

A

In Arcon the condylar element is in the lower compartment

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118
Q

Purplish lesion on the buccal mucosa since birth is diagnosed as

A

Haemangiona

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119
Q

Elevators are not used in

A

Dividing third lower molar roots

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120
Q

What is contraindicated to the use of calcium hydroxide for pulp capping

A

Various exposure of pulp in tooth that has been painful for weeks

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121
Q

How would you treat a hyperaemic tooth?

A

Corticosteroid paste

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122
Q

Patient is complaining of pain in a tooth, it has a composite filling placed a long time ago, what do you do

A

X-ray, remove the filling and restore with temporary filling

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123
Q

Use of inhalation general anaesthesia

A

Oxygen must not be less than 30%

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124
Q

Bilateral symmetrical swelling of the mandible of a child is likely to be because by

A

Giant cell lesion

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125
Q

What is the fissure sealant treatment for prevention

A

Place sealant on pre molar and molar teeth as soon after they erupt

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126
Q

Periodontal pocket is measured between

A

Top of gingiva to the base

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127
Q

When you apply pressure of 0.25n to measure pocket depth what depth indicates possible periodontitis

A

Greater or equal to 4mm

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128
Q

What is not found in normal periodontal membranes

A

Inflammatory plasma cells and lymphocytes

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129
Q

What makes periodontal disease more severe

A

Missing proximal contacts

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130
Q

The auxiliary occlusal test of a tooth for partial denture should be placed

A

Adjacent to edentulous space

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131
Q

A vital root has a crown cemented to a pin retained amalgam cored: where does failure occur

A

Between core and cement

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132
Q

What does not result of a toxic dosage of local anaesthetic

A

Respiratory depression

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133
Q

Swallowing aids in the diagnosis of

A

Thyroglossal duct cyst

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134
Q

What is not true about tobacco smoking

  • redox potential favours growth of anaerobic bacteria
  • it is caries immuno- suppressive
  • it is adrenergic
  • affects neutrophils and chemotactic factors
A

It is caries immunosuppressive

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135
Q

On X-ray you found the gutta percha cone extending 1mm beyond the apex without any symptoms; what would you do

A

C

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136
Q

On X-ray you found the cement of previous root canal treatment is extending 1mm beyond the apex without any symptoms; what would you do

A

C

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137
Q

What is the main purpose of using corticosteroids in pimpla obturation material

A

B

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138
Q

What nerve supplies upper first molars

A

Posterior and mid superior alveolar nerves

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139
Q

The main of damage gingival tissues after placing rubber dam is

A

B

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140
Q

The advantage of using the lingual plate on lingual bar is

A

It acts as indirect retention

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141
Q

Retention in precision attachment is achieved by

A

Frictional resistance

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142
Q

How much under cut area a clasp arm should engage

A

C

Should be 1mm above the CEJ and 0.25mm under survey line

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143
Q

What is characteristic of fibrotic gingivitis

A

B

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144
Q

Bone is characterised by

A

A

The small vascular canals that run longitudinally in the centre of Haversian systems of compact osseous tissue, through which the blood vessels ratify in bind

145
Q

Why we do not use in long span bridge works

A

Because of the high casting shrinking of porcelain

146
Q

You have a patient with class II div II, which if the following is contraindicated

A

964
B

147
Q

How would you cover buccal bicuspid for lower premolar when making a metallic porcelain crown

A

965 b

148
Q

What is the main cause of bilateral cheilosis

A

966 b

A if only denture options

149
Q

What sort of alloys do you use for bridges

A

967
A

150
Q

What sort of material is used for the fabrication of Maryland bridges

A

968 c

151
Q

When the neck of the condyle is fractured; what muscles determine the movement of the superior segment

A

969 a

152
Q

Patient with prosthetic heart Valves and an INR value of 3; requires surgery, what is your management

A

970
A

153
Q

Chronic OAF for some time after extraction. What is your management

A

971
B

154
Q

Pigment naevus can undergo malignant

A

972 c

155
Q

The most common sites for SCC in the oral cavity are

A

973
B

Lateral tongue
Floor of mouth
Lower vermillion border
Lip border
Alveolar ridge

156
Q

Patient has painful lesions on buccal mucosa. Biopsy reports scantholysis and supra basilare; your diagnosis is

A

975 a

157
Q

Oral mucosal pigmentation: what is true

Commonly seen in ethnic groups
Commonly an amalgam tattoo
Commonly oral melanoma
Commonly melanotic naevus

A

975 a

158
Q

What is true about osteogenesis imperfecta

A

976 b

159
Q

Increasing what will decrease density of the radiograph

A

977 E

160
Q

What increases sharpness of a radiograph

A

B

161
Q

The most common staphylococcal infection is

A

979 a

162
Q

What is true about basal cell carcinoma

A

D

163
Q

Im severe periodontitis the probe

A

981
B? C?

164
Q

What is characteristic of mucogingival involvement

A

982
C

165
Q

The role of guided tissue regeneration is

A

983 a

166
Q

Critical plaque pH is

A

984 b

167
Q

When is it acceptable for dentist to hold radiographic film packet in their mouth

A

985 c

168
Q

What is a common because of poor diagnosis in avulsion replantation

A

External resorptive defects

169
Q

Posterior vital molar with core the best material to restore it with is

A

Amalgam

170
Q

The function of incisor pin of an articulator is

A

Horizontal and vertical overlap

171
Q

Which of the following is important consideration when deciding whether to design an upper partial denture without anterior flange

A

The amount of labial alveolar bone resorption

172
Q

Zinc oxide and Eugenol impression paste

A

Can not be used in areas with undercuts

173
Q

When restoring with composite resins, why do we do the Cabo surface bevelling

A

Aesthetics

174
Q

What causes denture stomatitis

A

Due to over growth of some normal commensal of oral cavity

175
Q

What is the most unfavourable root fracture

A

In the cervical third

176
Q

The greatest reliable finding to confirm a necrotic pulp is

A

Area of radiolucency surrounding the apex of the tooth

177
Q

When prepping a class II cavity, there is a hard dark brown spot on the adjacent tooth just below the contact point: it is most likely to be

A

Demineralised enamel

178
Q

When opening the mouth; in TMJ area

A

Initial rotation follows by translation of the condyle

179
Q

In cavity prep, 1mm below the DEJ what is seen

A

997 b

180
Q

Pulp with multiple microabscesses will eventually because

A

Necrosis

181
Q

Endodontix therapy completed in tooth with periapical radiolucency. Marked reduction in size of radiolucency is expected approximately

A

One year

182
Q

Well constructed complete dentures

A

1000 c

183
Q

What drug is taken to reduce disability associated with osteoarthritis

A

NSAIDs

184
Q

The personnel involved in dental radiographic examination occurs in what order?

A

Referrer, practicioner and operator

185
Q

In radiographic localisation, the acronym SLOB stands for

A

Same lingual opposite buccal

186
Q

The probability of photo electric absorption effects occurring in radiography is proportional to

A

Atomic Number 3 (ZE3)

187
Q

What is the correct colour of film holder to use when taking conventional periapical of tooth 26

A

Yellow

188
Q

What is true for practitioners according to IRMER 2017

A

The practitioner must justify every exposure

189
Q

What is a downstream approach that could help reduce dental caries in the child population

A

Delivery of practice based one to one chairside advise and clinical prevention

190
Q

What is a possible sign of physical child abuse?

A

multiple injuries around the mouth

191
Q

What is indication for primary molar Endodontics?

A

good co-operation

192
Q

The property of occlusal forces that the dentist is most able to influence through careful design of occlusal surfaces is

A

Direction

193
Q

Which percentage of phosphoric acid is normally used to etch enamel prior to placing composite restorations

A

37% Phosphoric acid

194
Q

In relation to complete dentures, one of the principal objectives of the jaw registration is

A

to determine the inter maxillary relationship in the retruded contact position

195
Q

In development of dentinal caries, what is the earliest observed event?

A

beading of tubules

196
Q

A fast irregular pulse in a patient who is suddenly acutely breathless would suggest

A

Atrial Fibrillation

197
Q

In healthy teeth, the biological width, comprising the supra-alveolar connective tissue attachment and junctional epithelium has an approximate dimension of:

A

2mm

198
Q

At re-evaluation under what circumstances would periodontal surgery be indicated?

A

excellent oral hygiene and pockets greater than or equal to 5mm

199
Q

The inverse care law is used to describe

A

areas most in need of good health care are least likely to receive it

200
Q

What is the maximum safe dose of paracetamol that a fit healthy patient can take in 24 hours

A

4g

201
Q

For epidemiological purposes periodontal health can be measured by which index?

A

CPITN

202
Q

You are examining the neck of a patient who had a recent throat infection. Which nodes would likely to be enlarged

A

deep cervical nodes only

203
Q

What of the following community fluoride delivery initiatives are currently in place across Scotland

A

Fluoride varnish schemes in nurseries and schools

204
Q

What can be defined as an individuals belief that they can succeed at a particular task or behaviour

A

self efficacy

205
Q

in terms of medical devices, which statement best defines sterility

A

an instrument is sterile if the probability that there are viable microbes on the instrument is equal to 1 in a million

206
Q

explain all classes of Spaulding classification

A

Critical - contact normally sterile tissue and must be sterilised

semi critical - are those that contact only intact mucous membranes and should be sterilised

non critical - only contact intact skin and are cleaned/disinfected

207
Q

synthesis of extracellular polysaccharide in plaque formation is greatest when which one of the following sugars is present within the diet

A

sucrose

208
Q

what is the role of glycocalyx in biofilms

A

it provides a protective barrier

209
Q

deamination of amino acids

A

produces amines

210
Q

when thinking about potential post op bleeding following tooth extraction, what is a systemic homeostatic agent that could be used to help alleviate prolonged bleeding

A

Tranexamic acid

211
Q

What is the documented incidence of permanent neuro-sensory damage to the inferior alveolar nerve following extraction of low risk wisdom teeth

A

<1%

212
Q

If treating a patient with a 7mm overate and deep traumatic overbite what instruction would you include on the laboratory prescription

A

flat anterior bite plane 10mm wide

213
Q

In orthodontist anterior bite planes are used for

A

reducing overbite

214
Q

what is a common symptom of childhood leukaemia

A

Bleeding gingiva

215
Q

during root canal instrumentation of a scleroses canal what provides greatest benefit in making exploration easier

A

EDTA

216
Q

A patient who has a satisfactory root treated lower molar and you intend to place a crown. What is the best method of retaining a core

A

Use of adhesion only

217
Q

What is the most common space for an acute absecess to track from in an upper lateral incisor tooth

A

Buccal

218
Q

An elderly patient feels faint when they stand up from lying in the dental chair. The most likely reason for this is

A

Reduced baroreceptor response – postural hypertension

219
Q

A 25 year old with severe intellectual disability attends the practice with his carers. He needs several restorations and extractions . who can consent to this

A

Welfare guardian

220
Q

A 25 year old with severe intellectual disability attends the practice with his carers. He needs several restorations and extractions . who can consent to this

A

Welfare guardian

221
Q

What difference is not a cause of varying temperature regulation in children compared to adults

A

Brown fat metabolism

222
Q

When preparing an upper first permanent molar for a metal ceramic crown, a functional cusp bevel is placed on which cusp

A

Mesiopalatal

223
Q

What is the correct degree of axial taper in an ideal crown prep

A

7 degrees

224
Q

The fit surface of a porcelain laminate veneer is prepared with which acid

A

Hydrofluroic acid

225
Q

What is the recommended treatment for intrusion injury of primary teeth

A

Extraction

226
Q

A patient has been losing weight and getting increasingly breathless, GP takes blood to test for anameia. What is the first line blood test to request

A

Full blood count

227
Q

A male consumes 14 units of alcohol over the week in 2 days. What advise should you give him

A

He is consuming the recommended maximum number of units of alcohol a week but encourage him to spread these out over 5 days with 2 alcohol free days

228
Q

Haemophilia A is caused by deficiency of

A

Factor 8

229
Q

The process of blinding and masking in randomised controlled trial helps to minimise

A

The risk of bias

230
Q

What substance is active against bacteria, fungi, yeast and viruses

A

Chlorhexidine

231
Q

Which study design should be used to: evaluate is ibuprofen and paracetamol are more effective than paracetamol alone in pain relief

A

Randomised control trial

232
Q

When undertaking root canal treatment, what inter-visit regimen should generally be utilised within the toot canal

A

Non setting calcium hydroxide

233
Q

Patient’s with RA have difficulty holding a toothbrush due to the destruction of what joints

A

Metacarpopharyngeal joints

234
Q

What dental problem is associates with children with severe cerebral palsy?

A

Bruxism

235
Q

Patient with dementia needs a new upper denture. What should you do since you have done the additional section 47 training course

A

Consult welfare POA, complete the section 47 form and provide treatment

236
Q

A patient is taking alendronic acid and it is the only medication she has been prescribed. She needs a non surgical tooth extraction. How should they be managed

A

Extract tooth and review 4 weeks later

237
Q

A patient with RA who is dependent on a wheelchair. Your practice is on the 3rd floor and is only accessible by stairs. How should you manage the situation?

A

Refer the patient to a practice or public dental service that has access for wheelchair users

238
Q

A patient attends 6 months after radiotherapy to his left tonsillar tumour. He has a dry mouth and wears a maxillary complete denture and has 10 missing mandibular teeth remaining. You prescribe saliva substitutes. What one should you not prescribe ?

A

Glandosane aersosol spray – damages enamel

239
Q

A female with type 1 Von Willebrands disease needs extraction of 3 molar teeth

What medication will they require prior to removing teeth

A

Desmopressin

240
Q

Hypothyroid patient’s will be found to have

A

A low T4 and high TSH

241
Q

When positioning a patient for panoramic radiograph, what anatomical reference should be horizontal

A

Frankfort plane

242
Q

What is the most likely processing fault resulting in a radiographic image being too dark

A

Too much time in developer

243
Q

How often should test film be exposed and processed in general dental practice for quality assurance

A

Daily

244
Q

The primary aim of a clinical audit is to:

A

Improve patient care and outcomes

245
Q

When positioning a patient for an upper anterior oblique radiograph which reference is used to assess the occlusal plane

A

Ala-tragus line

246
Q

Elastomers can reproduce surface features of width

A

20 um

247
Q

What vessel has bled from a head injury if the patient experiences delayed confusion and unable to walk

A

Superior cerebral vein

248
Q

A class III AP skeletal relationship is defined as

A

The mandible is less than 2-3mm behind the maxilla

249
Q

A fit and healthy patient attends with poor plaque control, generalised gingival erythema and bleeding on gentle probing. There is no evidence of attachment loss. What is the first line treatment

A

Oral hygiene instruction

250
Q

A site has probing depth of 7mm and the gingival margin is located 2mm coronal of the ACJ the loss of attachement is

A

5mm

251
Q

what is true of children with cystic fibrosis

A

Thick mucus prevents the proper movement of cilia in the respiratory tract

252
Q

a patient has a sustained deep cut on the posterior part of the body of the mandible on the left side of the face. The facial artery and the submandibular salivary gland were not damaged. The wound has been sutured. Which of the following clinical tests would be the most appropriate to carry out

A

test sensation of the face

253
Q

What is Christensen’s phenomenon

A

a gap that appears between posterior ends of opposing flat occlusal rims when the mandible is protruded

254
Q

what is the principal radiographic sign of chronic occlusal trauma

A

widening of the PDL space

255
Q

what is the most appropriate post-surgical advice to give to a patient who has just had a tooth extraction

A

avoid eating until the effect of the anaesthetic has worn off

256
Q

A lateral ceph radiograph is taken for a patient requiring what type of orthodontic treatment

A

functional appliance therapy

257
Q

After removal of the lower wisdom tooth a patient returns a week later with sharp shooting pain affecting the lower lip. what is the term used to describe this?

A

dysaesthesia

258
Q

A patient previously taking warfarin has been prescribed a medication directly inhibiting thrombin. He needs multiple extractions and the appointment is 9am. What instruction would you give?

A

miss morning dose of dabigatran and take medication as normal in the evening

259
Q

what is an intravenous bisphosphonate drug that may complicate routine dental extractions

A

Zoledronic Acid

260
Q

what is a rule for flap design

A

The base of the slap should be wider than the apex

261
Q

What is the correct colour of the Rinn film holder for taking bitewing radiographs

A

Red

262
Q

All healthcare workers should be immunised against

A

Hepatitis B

263
Q

as well as mercury vapour suppressant, how would you safely dispose of waste amalgam ?

A

place in spill proof and waste proof container

264
Q

when are alcohol hand rubs/gels effective

A

only when hands are visibly clean

265
Q

Which micro-organism is most commonly responsible for venous cannulae related infections?

A

Staphylococcus epidermidis

266
Q

what is the pH of ideal detergent for the washer disinfector closest to

A

7

267
Q

weakness of lower facial muscles and upper limb on the same side suddenly occurs during dental treatment, what do you suspect the patient has?

A

Transient ischaemic attack

268
Q

In dental panoramic radiography, what is true about the xray beam

A

it is aimed upwards at approximately 8 degrees

269
Q

Intra-oral charge coupled device (CCD) digital x-ray sensors

A

are more sensitive to xrays than F-speed film

270
Q

What bacteria is associated with periodontitis

A

Porphyromonas gingivalis

271
Q

what are candida albican biofilms sensitive to

A

caspofungin

272
Q

a male with cerebral palsy requires 2 restorations. they use a wheelchair and are unable to weight bear. To facilitate his access what is most suitable to use

A

sling and hoist

273
Q

A 60 year old patient has a diagnosis of myeloma for 3 years. He has an area of exposed bone in the lower right posterior aspect of the mandible which has been present for 10 weeks, following a tooth extraction. What is your diagnosis?

A

Medication Related Osteonecrosis of the Jaw (MRONJ)

274
Q

In the most common form of dementia, which protein is a key pathological role

A

Tau Protein

275
Q

an 83 year old woman is eating salmon and thinks that a fish bone is stuck in her throat. She is able to speak and no bone is visible on oral exam. At which site is the fishbone most likely to have lodged?

A

Piriform Fossa

276
Q

A dental radiograph shows the pterygoid hamulus. Of which bone is the pterygoid hamulus a component?

A

Sphenoid

277
Q

When preparing a tooth for a restoration, which factor will help in reducing trauma to the dental pulp

A

Providing adequate coolant

278
Q

Following extraction of a single tooth under local anaesthesia, what is used to determine suitable occlusal contacts ?

A

Use thin articulating paper

279
Q

What nerves are anaesthetised when an upper canine tooth is extracted

A

Nasopalatine and greater palatine nerves, anterior and middle superior alveolar nerves and infraorbital nerve

280
Q

When positioning a patient for an upper anterior oblique occlusal radiograph, which external line or plane is used to assess the occlusal plane

A

Ala-tragus line

281
Q

dose reduction in intraoral radiography is best achieved by which combination

A

Rectangular collimation, F speed film

282
Q

Prescribing medication for children requres alteration from an adult prescription. The most important change to make is

A

The dose of the drug

283
Q

what is a complication of independent living for elderly patients with diabetes.

A

Maculopathy

284
Q

Patients with significant oral ulceration may have underlying anaemia. Which medical problem is likely to because this

A

Peptic Ulcer disease

285
Q

In patients with excellent plaque control, application of an intermittent non-axial occlusal force to a tooth may give rise to

A

widening of the periodontal ligament and increased mobility

286
Q

The retruded axis (centric relation)

A

Is a dynamic relationship during which the mandible oends and closes on a reproducible hinge axis

287
Q

Chroma refers to which element of the restorations colour

A

The intensity of the colour

288
Q

After extraction on a fit and healthy patient they return to the surgery 3 hours later with bleeding from the extraction. What is the immediate management

A

Get the patient to bite on a gauze pack

289
Q

Under conditions of high sugar supply, what chemical is preferably formed under anaerobic conditions

A

Lactate

290
Q

Facultative anaerobes

A

Grow in the presence or asence of oxygen

291
Q

What is not an oral biofilm infection

A

Oesophageal candidosis

292
Q

The zygomatic process of the maxilla is partly seen as a vertical radiopaque line on a panoramic radiograph. With what bony margin of the maxillary sinus can it be confused?

A

Posterior

293
Q

Synthesis of extracellular polysaccharide in plaque formation is greatest when what sugar is present within the diet

A

Sucrose

294
Q

during root canal instrumentation of a sclerosed canal which chemical provides the greatest benefit making exploration easier?

A

EDTA

295
Q

In root canal treatment what is the recommend shape for the access cavity of the maxillary and mandibular premolars

A

Oblong

296
Q

bilateral ankle swelling that worsens as the day progresses would suggest the patient has

A

Congestive Heart Failure

297
Q

Liver cirrhosis is best characterised by

A

Disorganised liver repair

298
Q

A fast irregular pulse in a patient who is suddenly acutely breathless would suggest

A

Atrial fibrillation

299
Q

Persistent lip swelling and recurrent oral ulceration could be a feature of

A

Crohns disease

300
Q

what strength of once daily fluoride mouthwash would you recommend to a nine year old child

A

225 ppm

301
Q

A patient in anaphylaxis has developed sudden obstruction of the upper larynx. Where is an emergency airway needle best inserted

A

Between the thyroid and cricoid cartilage

302
Q

which pair of muscles are important for retaining dentures in their correct position ?

A

Buccinator and orbicularis oris

303
Q

What is the purpose of a face bow in the construction of a bridge

A

To record the relationship of the upper arch to the mandibular condyles

304
Q

What material has the best mechanical properties for the restoration of occlusal surfaces

A

Gold

305
Q

In dental panoramic radiography horizontal magnification of all the anterior teeth will be caused by which patient positioning error

A

the patient is too far back in the machine (closer to the xray source)

306
Q

For intra oral cray film and film packet what is true

A

The film has an embossed dot on it which faces towards the xray source

307
Q

What bacteria does alcohol gel not kill

A

C deficile

308
Q

which developmental condition has the characteristic parrot beak nose

A

aperts

309
Q

What are the correct stages of caries hitting dentine

A

beading of tubules, invasion of pioneer bacteria, demineralisation, pulp necrosis

310
Q

what colour of film holder is used for anterior PA

A

blue

311
Q

What chemical is used for cleaning blood spillages

A

Sodium dichloroisocyanurate

312
Q

which enzyme produces glucans

A

glucose transferylase

313
Q

what is the function of a buccal canine retractor

A

moves bucally placed canine palatally

314
Q

what is an intrinsic factor of staining

A

tetracycline

315
Q

carbamine peroxide concentration

A

16%

316
Q

what is the frequency of radiographs for high risk adults

A

6 months

317
Q

when the mandible is moved right and on the other side teeth do not contact

A

group function

318
Q

what is the first line blood test for anaemia

A

FBC

319
Q

what may a person with severee learnign difficulty have

A

welfare guardian

320
Q

What is the function of a facebow registration

A

Transfer the relationshop betwenn the maxillary teeth and the axis of mandibular rotation

321
Q

what is a function of a facebow

A

tranfer the angle of the occlusal plane relative to a horizontal reference plane

322
Q

Through careful design of occlusal surfaces the property of occlusal forces the densist is most able to influence is

A

Direction

322
Q

Through careful design of occlusal surfaces the property of occlusal forces the densist is most able to influence is

A

Direction

323
Q

The principle radiographic sign of occlusal trauma is

A

generalised widening of the PDL space

324
Q

When viewed from the lateral aspect, the downward movement of the condyle during protrusion forms an angle to the horizontal plane known as

A

The saggital condylar guidance angle

325
Q

For complete dentures, one of the principal objectives of the jaw registration is

A

To determine the intermaxillary relationship in the retruded contact position

326
Q

In the intercuspal position, ideally

A

the tips of the palatal cusps of the upper posterior teeth should occlude with the occlusal surfaces of the lower posterior teeth

327
Q

During mastication, whilst chewing on the left molar teeth

A

The right condylar head moves dowwards, forwards and medially

328
Q

What articular is suitable for use when constructing complete dentures

A

simple hinge, fixed condylar, semi adjustable, fully adjustable

329
Q

What is christensen’s phenomenon

A

A gap that appears between psterior ends of opposing flat occlusal rims when the mandible is protruded

330
Q

Which of the following is the most unlikely to be a consequence of adverse occlusal forces

A

Chronic periodontitis

331
Q

During closure along the returded axis, the point at which the teeth contact is called

A

The retruded contact position

332
Q

During lateral excursion the predominant movement of the working condyle is

A

Rotation about a vertical axis

333
Q

The retruded axis is a mandibular position dependant on the presence of teeth

True or False

A

False

334
Q

The retuded axis is a border movement

True or False

A

True

335
Q

When the condylar heads are in the most superior position within the mandibular fossa the mandible is in protrusion

True or False

A

False

336
Q

At the end of the chewing cycle the mandible aims for the intercuspal position

True or False

A

True

337
Q

What is the optimum depth of a self threading pin for an amalgam restoration

A

2mm

338
Q

Who has automatic consent for GA

A

Mother

339
Q

what is the most important factor for long term success of a crown

A

2-3mm from the apex and coronal seal

340
Q

what is the shape of preparation for endo of tooth 21

A

triangular

341
Q

what causes cystic fibrosis

A

blocked hepatic duct

342
Q

on CPITN examination the coloured band remains completely visible in all pockets. There is bleeding on probing but no calculus of plaque retentive factors. What is the CPITN score for this sextant

A

1

343
Q

What s used to correct a buccally positioned canine on a orthodontic laboratory prescription

A

buccal caniine retractor HSSW 0.5mm in 0.5mm tubing

344
Q

what is the balanced force instrumentation in endodontic file movement

A

60 degrees clockwise then 120 degrees anticlockwise repeated

345
Q

removable appliances are effective at which tooth movement

A

tipping

346
Q

how do you assess antero-posterior pattern clinically

A

palpation of the skeletal bases

347
Q

what measurement represents moderate crowding

A

4-8mm

348
Q

what is the definition of a Class II division 1 incisor relationship

A

the lower incisor edges lie posterior to the cingulum plateau of the upper incisors, there is an increased overjet and the incisors are usually proclined

349
Q

what can be used to assess the vertcial skeletal pattern clinically

A

the frankfort mandibular planes angle

350
Q

the aesthetic component of IOTN

A

is of use in rating dental attractiveness

351
Q

the dental health component of IOTN

A

is assessed using the MOCDOO system

352
Q

what grade is given to an unilateral unerupted ectopic canine in the IOTN score

A

5i

353
Q

what is a histological response for light forces generated during orthodontic treatment

A

frontal resorption

354
Q

how much force is required to tip a tooth

A

35-60 grams mN

355
Q

what is the average optimal rate of tooth movement

A

1mm a month

356
Q

what does anchorage mean

A

resistance to unwanted tooth movement

357
Q

What are anterior bite planes used for

A

reducing overbite