100-2 Flashcards
What kind of organism causes equine granulocytic anaplasmosis?
A - Protozoa
B - Ehrlichia
C - Chlamydia
D - Spirochete
E - Anaplasma
E - Anaplasma
Which common cardiac conduction disturbance generally is considered normal in the horse but abnormal in the dog?
Second-degree AV block.
What are examples of animals that are referred to as chelonians?
Chelonians are the group that includes turtles, terrapins, and tortoises.
In dogs but not cats, an enzyme in the corneal stroma converts glucose to sorbitol causing diabetic dogs to be at risk for irreversible cataract formation. What is this enzyme?
Aldose reductase
Which process in rabbits is an important oral source of protein and vitamins B and K that does not require the rabbit to eat more food?
Coprophagy
Which organism is most likely to be cultured from canine pyometra?
Escherichia coli
Which nerve block would most specifically relieve lameness resulting from fracture of the navicular bone?
Palmar digital - Palmar digital
Tibial and peroneal - Tibial and peroneal
Abaxial sesamoidean - Abaxial sesamoidean
Low four-point - Low four-point
Median and ulnar - Median and ulnar
Palmar digital - Palmar digital
In dermatology, what is the difference between a papule and a macule?
A papule is a small, solid elevation of the skin up to 1cm in diameter (i.e., a pimple, but without pus [which would make it a pustule]); a macule is a circumscribed, nonpalpable spot of skin pigmentation up to 1cm in diameter (i.e., a freckle)
In a dog or cat, in which direction should the hindlimb be manipulated to minimize the risk of sciatic nerve damage when placing an intraosseous needle in the proximal femur?
The hindlimb is rotated internally and adducted, to widen access to the trochanteric fossa and reduce the risk of sciatic nerve damage
Name 3 types of transfusion reactions.
1) anaphylactic;
2) acute hemolytic (pre-existing anti-erythrocyte antibodies in recipient);
3) delayed hemolytic (development of anti-erythrocyte antibodies);
4) febrile/bacterial contaminant;
5) volume overload;
6) citrate toxicosis;
7) in vitro hemolytic;
8) infectious disease from donor
A male lizard is presented for evaluation of recent-onset swelling of the ventral tailbase, adjacent and caudal to the cloacal opening. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Normal enlargement of the hemipenes with sexual maturity, or abnormal debris accumulation (seminal plugs)
Which hormone does the corpus luteum produce?
Progesterone
A high-producing dairy cow that freshened three weeks ago is off feed. On physical exam her heart and respiratory rates are within normal limits. T=101.2°F (38.4°C) [N=100.4–102.8°F (38.0–39.3°C)]
There is decreased rumen motility and a urine test for ketone bodies is positive. There is no evidence of mastitis and the uterus is clear of infection.
On the left side, a high-pitched musical “ping” is audible via stethoscope during percussion over the ribs on a line between the elbow and tuber coxae (hip).
What acid-base abnormality is most likely in this cow?
Respiratory alkalosis -
Metabolic alkalosis -
Depends on severity of displacement -
Metabolic acidosis -
Respiratory acidosis -
Metabolic alkalosis -
A nine-year-old male neutered German shepherd is presented with unchecked bleeding from a cut on the gums above the right canine tooth. The owner relates that the dog has lost weight and had an episode of collapse three days ago, but he recovered.
On physical exam, the gums are pale with petechiae and ecchymotic hemorrhages. There is tachycardia and a palpable cranial abdominal mass.
A coagulation profile shows the following:
Thrombocytes= 82,533 per microliter. [N=200,000-900,000]
Buccal mucosal bleeding time (BMBT), increased
Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT), increased
Prothrombin time (PT), increased
Fibrin degradation products (FDPs), increased
What disorder of coagulation best fits this pattern?
Disseminated intravascular coagulation -
Idiopathic thrombocytopenia -
Von Willebrand’s disease -
Hepatic insufficiency -
Anticoagulant rodenticide toxicity -
Disseminated intravascular coagulation -
A practice is using an FeLV test with a sensitivity of 90% and a specificity of 95%.
Assuming the prevalence of feline leukemia in the area is 5%, what is the predictive value negative (PVN) of the test?
75% -
55% -
88% -
45% -
99% -
99%
A four-year-old Rat Terrier is presented with a three day history of progressive stumbling and falling.
Physical exam reveals a right head tilt, left sided hypermetria, generalized ataxia and vertical nystagmus.
Which one of the following choices is at the top of the differential list?
Ascending and descending myelomalacia -
Granulomatous meningoencephalitis
Fibrocartilagenous embolism -
Central pontine myelinolysis -
Amyotrophic lateralizing sclerosis -
- Granulomatous meningoencephalitis
The coagulation factors are numbered I to XIII. However, there are only 12. Which factor does not exist?
Factor VI
What is the main antidote for acetaminophen-induced methemoglobinemia in cats?
N-acetylcysteine (Mucumyst). S-adenosyl methionine (SAMe) also may be strongly beneficial
What is the timing of the murmur caused by aortic valve insufficiency?
Diastolic
In birds, dysfunction of which body system is most likely to cause green urates?
Hepatic. Green, bile-stained urates may be observed in feces during liver disease. Birds lack biliverdin reductase and form biliverdin instead of bilirubin as the primary breakdown product of heme
Hypoadrenocorticism is commonly called:
Addison’s disease
Two eight-week old calves are presented down and extremely weak.
They are depressed and lying in pools of foul-smelling brown diarrhea with a small amount of blood.
Another calf died suddenly the previous night with no prior signs.
The down calves are dehydrated, with rectal temperatures of 105.2° and 105.6° F (40.7° – 40.9° C) [N=101.5°-103.5°F, N=37.8°-39.7° C], respectively.
What is the treatment plan?
A.) IV fluids; NSAIDS; frequent milk feedings -
B.) Cull sick calves; prophylactic oxytetracycline in feed for well animals -
C.) Isolate sick calves; oral electrolytes -
D.) Corticosteroids; amprolium in water; rumensin in feed -
E.) Immunize calves and adult cattle with MLV vaccine; probiotics for sick calves -
IV fluids; NSAIDS; frequent milk feedings
At what age do a cow’s permanent 4th incisors begin to erupt in the mandible?
3 years -
5-6 years -
2 to 2.5 years -
3.5 to 4 years -
7-8 years -
3.5 to 4 years
A two-year-old Angus cow is presented with weakness of the hind limbs and a staggering gait.
On physical exam, the heart rate and respiratory rate are slow and irregular, and the pupils are dilated.
The cow’s breath and urine smell like the odor of mouse urine.
Suddenly the cow’s pulse becomes rapid and thready, she collapses, and dies of apparent respiratory failure.
Which one of the following plants is most likely to have caused this spectrum of clinical signs?
Pinus ponderosa (Western yellow pine) -
Veratrum spp (False hellebore, Skunk cabbage) -
Tetradymia spp (Horsebrush) -
Centaurea spp (Knapweed, Yellow star thistle) -
Conium maculatum (Poison hemlock) -
Conium maculatum (Poison hemlock) -
An outbreak of diarrheal disease of piglets has occurred which affected the healthiest animals in the herd, one to two weeks after weaning.
Some affected piglets had no signs except peracute death.
Other affected piglets exhibit diarrhea, ataxia, paralysis, and recumbency.
What condition is at the top of the differential diagnosis list?
Epidemic transmissible gastroenteritis (TGE) -
Streptococcus suis -
Clostridium perfringens type C enteritis -
Edema disease -
Porcine proliferative enteritis -
Edema disease
Which one of the following choices includes the cardinal sign of trigeminal neuritis?
Inability to close the mouth -
Dysphagia, dysphonia and stridor -
Circling &head tilt toward side of lesion, no other signs -
Masseter muscle pain associated with chewing -
Paralyzed eyelid, ear or lip on one or both sides of face -
Inability to close the mouth
What condition is associated with rectal stricture in pigs?
Salmonella typhimurium -
Rotavirus -
Coccidiosis -
Intussusception -
Intestinal spirochetosis -
Salmonella typhimurium
The blood supply to the cow’s udder comes primarily from which artery?
External pudendal artery
What is ophthalmia neonatorum of ferrets?
Infection of the unopened eyes of kits
What is the most common cause of hypercalcemia in the adult dog?
Malignancy
The optimal therapeutic regimen for rhodococcal pneumonia in foals consists of treatment with which antimicrobials?
A macrolide (erythromycin, azithromycin, or clarithromycin) combined with rifampin
In small animals, what is the most likely anatomical location (i.e., small or large bowel) of a lesion when diarrhea is characterized by weight loss, large volume of liquid feces, and melena?
Small bowel diarrhea
A two-year-old male neutered domestic shorthair cat is presented after a suspected fall from a height of approximately 35 feet (over ten meters).
The cat is initially stabilized with intravenous fluids and oxygen therapy. Four hours later, the cat has not urinated and no urinary bladder is palpable.
An abdominal focused assessment with sonography for trauma, triage, and tracking (AFAST) reveals a moderate volume abdominal effusion, with no visible urinary bladder.
What test would confirm the top differential?
Abdominocentesis with Gram stain and cell count -
Total protein and microscopic analysis of the ascites -
Lactate &glucose levels of peritoneal sample and blood -
Measurement of BUN in blood and fluid -
Paired plasma and effusion potassium and creatinine -
Paired plasma and effusion potassium and creatinine
A middle-aged, depressed, coughing, exercise-intolerant Doberman pinscher is presented.
The dog has a rapid and irregular heart rate.
Which initial diagnostic step is most appropriate?
A.) Ultrasound for pericardial effusion -
B.) Thoracic radiographs to evaluate for congestive heart failure -
C.) Abdominal focused assessment with sonography for triage, trauma, and tracking rapid (AFAST) for hemoabdomen -
D.) CBC to identify anemia -
E.) Bronchoscopy for airway assessment -
Bronchoscopy for airway assessment
A three-year-old white rat is presented with yellowing fur and a brownish, granular sebaceous secretion at the base of affected hair shafts.
What should the owner be told?
A-Normal age-related change -
B-Probable ringworm, resolves spontaneously with sunlight exposure -
C-Moisture-related dermatitis, cage needs more frequent cleaning -
D-Staph dermatitis, responsive to antiseptic shampoo -
E-Common manifestation of chorioptic mange -
Normal age-related change
Several younger sheep in a large herd have died suddenly with a diagnosis of infectious necrotic hepatitis secondary to fluke infestation.
Which choice is the most practical and effective control measure you can take next to prevent future cases?
A - Clostridium hemolyticum bacterin for animals under 3 years
B - Vaccinate all animals with Clostridium novyi toxoid
C - Treat ponds with copper sulfate molluscicide against lymnaeid snails
D - High-dose penicillin for clinical cases
E - Clorsulon antihelmintic for whole herd
B - Vaccinate all animals with Clostridium novyi toxoid
A person calls to say she adopted a friend’s dog and requests a copy of the dog’s medical record and radiographs. The former owner is a client at your clinic.
Which one of the following choices is the most appropriate action to take?
A - Give a summarized record with personal identifiers (vet, owner names) blocked out
B - Give caller a copy of medical record and radiographs
C - Require original owner consent or court order to release information
D - After physical exam, start a new medical record documenting previous issues
E - Give caller a copy of medical record only
C - Require original owner consent or court order to release information
Foal heat diarrhea is typically associated with which of the following?
A - Hemorrhagic enteritis
B - Neutropenia and fever
C - Warm and humid weather
D - Decreased suckling
E - Alterations in diet
E - Alterations in diet
Which one of the following management recommendations is most helpful to reduce the incidence of mare reproductive loss syndrome?
A - Vaccinate mares and stallions against equine coital exanthema
B - Cut down all the black walnut trees on premises
C - Spray paddocks to kill Habronema muscae larvae
D - Remove the horses from affected pastures
E - Progesterone supplementation between four to six months of pregnancy
D - Remove the horses from affected pastures
You are helping a local goat dairy owner interpret the results of semi-annual ELISA serological testing of her herd for caprine arthritis encephalitis (CAE).
One two-month-old kid is CAE-positive by ELISA. Another two-month-old kid is CAE-negative by ELISA.
How do you interpret these results?
A - CAE-positive kid has CAE, cannot say if CAE-negative kid is infected or not
B - Both kids are infected with CAE
C - Cannot tell if either kid is truly CAE positive or negative
D - CAE-positive kid has CAE, CAE-negative kid does not have CAE
E - Cannot say if CAE-positive kid has CAE, CAE-negative kid is not infected
C - Cannot tell if either kid is truly CAE positive or negative
A 22-year-old Thoroughbred mare is presented for bilateral green nasal discharge, retching, coughing, and inappetence noted after feeding this evening.
The owner recently switched the mare to a pelleted diet because of the mare’s poor dentition.
Physical exam reveals bilateral green nasal discharge. The mucous membranes are pink and moist with a capillary refill time of 1.5 seconds.
A slight swelling is notable in the proximal-left jugular groove just caudal to the vertical ramus of the mandible.
manure
Based on the most likely diagnosis, what initial therapy would be recommended?
Value
100.6 F (38.1 C)
HR=40 bpm
R=12 brpm
A - Administer antimicrobials, refer horse immediately for endoscopy and lavage under general anesthesia
B - Pass nasogastric tube; give atropine; lavage the esophagus until the obstruction clears
C - Withhold food and water; give sedatives and oxytocin; recheck in 2 hours
D - Cautious guttural pouch endoscopy with lavage for Streptococcus equi spp. equi PCR, quarantine horse until results are available
E - Ultrasound thorax, perform transtracheal wash for cytology and culture, begin broad-spectrum antimicrobials
C - Withhold food and water; give sedatives and oxytocin; recheck in 2 hours
A two-year-old, male neutered, sick, indoor/outdoor cat is presented with free fluid in the abdomen.
A sample of fluid is obtained and based on the high viscosity of the peritoneal fluid, feline infectious peritonitis is suspected.
What is a reliable and quick diagnostic test that can be performed on this fluid to differentiate it from effusions caused by other diseases?
A - Wright’s stain
B - Coomb’s test
C - Nissl stain
D - Rivalta test
E - Specific gravity
D - Rivalta test
