100-2 Flashcards
1
Q
What kind of organism causes equine granulocytic anaplasmosis?
A - Protozoa
B - Ehrlichia
C - Chlamydia
D - Spirochete
E - Anaplasma
A
E - Anaplasma
2
Q
Which common cardiac conduction disturbance generally is considered normal in the horse but abnormal in the dog?
A
Second-degree AV block.
3
Q
What are examples of animals that are referred to as chelonians?
A
Chelonians are the group that includes turtles, terrapins, and tortoises.
4
Q
In dogs but not cats, an enzyme in the corneal stroma converts glucose to sorbitol causing diabetic dogs to be at risk for irreversible cataract formation. What is this enzyme?
A
Aldose reductase
5
Q
Which process in rabbits is an important oral source of protein and vitamins B and K that does not require the rabbit to eat more food?
A
Coprophagy
6
Q
Which organism is most likely to be cultured from canine pyometra?
A
Escherichia coli
7
Q
Which nerve block would most specifically relieve lameness resulting from fracture of the navicular bone?
Palmar digital - Palmar digital
Tibial and peroneal - Tibial and peroneal
Abaxial sesamoidean - Abaxial sesamoidean
Low four-point - Low four-point
Median and ulnar - Median and ulnar
A
Palmar digital - Palmar digital
8
Q
In dermatology, what is the difference between a papule and a macule?
A
A papule is a small, solid elevation of the skin up to 1cm in diameter (i.e., a pimple, but without pus [which would make it a pustule]); a macule is a circumscribed, nonpalpable spot of skin pigmentation up to 1cm in diameter (i.e., a freckle)
9
Q
In a dog or cat, in which direction should the hindlimb be manipulated to minimize the risk of sciatic nerve damage when placing an intraosseous needle in the proximal femur?
A
The hindlimb is rotated internally and adducted, to widen access to the trochanteric fossa and reduce the risk of sciatic nerve damage
10
Q
Name 3 types of transfusion reactions.
A
1) anaphylactic;
2) acute hemolytic (pre-existing anti-erythrocyte antibodies in recipient);
3) delayed hemolytic (development of anti-erythrocyte antibodies);
4) febrile/bacterial contaminant;
5) volume overload;
6) citrate toxicosis;
7) in vitro hemolytic;
8) infectious disease from donor
11
Q
A male lizard is presented for evaluation of recent-onset swelling of the ventral tailbase, adjacent and caudal to the cloacal opening. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A
Normal enlargement of the hemipenes with sexual maturity, or abnormal debris accumulation (seminal plugs)
12
Q
Which hormone does the corpus luteum produce?
A
Progesterone
13
Q
A high-producing dairy cow that freshened three weeks ago is off feed. On physical exam her heart and respiratory rates are within normal limits. T=101.2°F (38.4°C) [N=100.4–102.8°F (38.0–39.3°C)]
There is decreased rumen motility and a urine test for ketone bodies is positive. There is no evidence of mastitis and the uterus is clear of infection.
On the left side, a high-pitched musical “ping” is audible via stethoscope during percussion over the ribs on a line between the elbow and tuber coxae (hip).
What acid-base abnormality is most likely in this cow?
Respiratory alkalosis -
Metabolic alkalosis -
Depends on severity of displacement -
Metabolic acidosis -
Respiratory acidosis -
A
Metabolic alkalosis -
14
Q
A nine-year-old male neutered German shepherd is presented with unchecked bleeding from a cut on the gums above the right canine tooth. The owner relates that the dog has lost weight and had an episode of collapse three days ago, but he recovered.
On physical exam, the gums are pale with petechiae and ecchymotic hemorrhages. There is tachycardia and a palpable cranial abdominal mass.
A coagulation profile shows the following:
Thrombocytes= 82,533 per microliter. [N=200,000-900,000]
Buccal mucosal bleeding time (BMBT), increased
Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT), increased
Prothrombin time (PT), increased
Fibrin degradation products (FDPs), increased
What disorder of coagulation best fits this pattern?
Disseminated intravascular coagulation -
Idiopathic thrombocytopenia -
Von Willebrand’s disease -
Hepatic insufficiency -
Anticoagulant rodenticide toxicity -
A
Disseminated intravascular coagulation -
15
Q
A practice is using an FeLV test with a sensitivity of 90% and a specificity of 95%.
Assuming the prevalence of feline leukemia in the area is 5%, what is the predictive value negative (PVN) of the test?
75% -
55% -
88% -
45% -
99% -
A
99%
16
Q
A four-year-old Rat Terrier is presented with a three day history of progressive stumbling and falling.
Physical exam reveals a right head tilt, left sided hypermetria, generalized ataxia and vertical nystagmus.
Which one of the following choices is at the top of the differential list?
Ascending and descending myelomalacia -
Granulomatous meningoencephalitis
Fibrocartilagenous embolism -
Central pontine myelinolysis -
Amyotrophic lateralizing sclerosis -
A
- Granulomatous meningoencephalitis
17
Q
The coagulation factors are numbered I to XIII. However, there are only 12. Which factor does not exist?
A
Factor VI
18
Q
What is the main antidote for acetaminophen-induced methemoglobinemia in cats?
A
N-acetylcysteine (Mucumyst). S-adenosyl methionine (SAMe) also may be strongly beneficial
19
Q
What is the timing of the murmur caused by aortic valve insufficiency?
A
Diastolic
20
Q
In birds, dysfunction of which body system is most likely to cause green urates?
A
Hepatic. Green, bile-stained urates may be observed in feces during liver disease. Birds lack biliverdin reductase and form biliverdin instead of bilirubin as the primary breakdown product of heme
21
Q
Hypoadrenocorticism is commonly called:
A
Addison’s disease
22
Q
Two eight-week old calves are presented down and extremely weak.
They are depressed and lying in pools of foul-smelling brown diarrhea with a small amount of blood.
Another calf died suddenly the previous night with no prior signs.
The down calves are dehydrated, with rectal temperatures of 105.2° and 105.6° F (40.7° – 40.9° C) [N=101.5°-103.5°F, N=37.8°-39.7° C], respectively.
What is the treatment plan?
A.) IV fluids; NSAIDS; frequent milk feedings -
B.) Cull sick calves; prophylactic oxytetracycline in feed for well animals -
C.) Isolate sick calves; oral electrolytes -
D.) Corticosteroids; amprolium in water; rumensin in feed -
E.) Immunize calves and adult cattle with MLV vaccine; probiotics for sick calves -
A
IV fluids; NSAIDS; frequent milk feedings
23
Q
At what age do a cow’s permanent 4th incisors begin to erupt in the mandible?
3 years -
5-6 years -
2 to 2.5 years -
3.5 to 4 years -
7-8 years -
A
3.5 to 4 years
24
Q
A two-year-old Angus cow is presented with weakness of the hind limbs and a staggering gait.
On physical exam, the heart rate and respiratory rate are slow and irregular, and the pupils are dilated.
The cow’s breath and urine smell like the odor of mouse urine.
Suddenly the cow’s pulse becomes rapid and thready, she collapses, and dies of apparent respiratory failure.
Which one of the following plants is most likely to have caused this spectrum of clinical signs?
Pinus ponderosa (Western yellow pine) -
Veratrum spp (False hellebore, Skunk cabbage) -
Tetradymia spp (Horsebrush) -
Centaurea spp (Knapweed, Yellow star thistle) -
Conium maculatum (Poison hemlock) -
A
Conium maculatum (Poison hemlock) -
25
An outbreak of diarrheal disease of piglets has occurred which affected the healthiest animals in the herd, one to two weeks after weaning.
Some affected piglets had no signs except peracute death.
Other affected piglets exhibit diarrhea, ataxia, paralysis, and recumbency.
What condition is at the top of the differential diagnosis list?
Epidemic transmissible gastroenteritis (TGE) -
Streptococcus suis -
Clostridium perfringens type C enteritis -
Edema disease -
Porcine proliferative enteritis -
Edema disease
26
Which one of the following choices includes the cardinal sign of trigeminal neuritis?
Inability to close the mouth -
Dysphagia, dysphonia and stridor -
Circling &head tilt toward side of lesion, no other signs -
Masseter muscle pain associated with chewing -
Paralyzed eyelid, ear or lip on one or both sides of face -
Inability to close the mouth
27
What condition is associated with rectal stricture in pigs?
Salmonella typhimurium -
Rotavirus -
Coccidiosis -
Intussusception -
Intestinal spirochetosis -
Salmonella typhimurium
28
The blood supply to the cow’s udder comes primarily from which artery?
External pudendal artery
29
What is ophthalmia neonatorum of ferrets?
Infection of the unopened eyes of kits
30
What is the most common cause of hypercalcemia in the adult dog?
Malignancy
31
The optimal therapeutic regimen for rhodococcal pneumonia in foals consists of treatment with which antimicrobials?
A macrolide (erythromycin, azithromycin, or clarithromycin) combined with rifampin
32
In small animals, what is the most likely anatomical location (i.e., small or large bowel) of a lesion when diarrhea is characterized by weight loss, large volume of liquid feces, and melena?
Small bowel diarrhea
33
A two-year-old male neutered domestic shorthair cat is presented after a suspected fall from a height of approximately 35 feet (over ten meters).
The cat is initially stabilized with intravenous fluids and oxygen therapy. Four hours later, the cat has not urinated and no urinary bladder is palpable.
An abdominal focused assessment with sonography for trauma, triage, and tracking (AFAST) reveals a moderate volume abdominal effusion, with no visible urinary bladder.
What test would confirm the top differential?
Abdominocentesis with Gram stain and cell count -
Total protein and microscopic analysis of the ascites -
Lactate &glucose levels of peritoneal sample and blood -
Measurement of BUN in blood and fluid -
Paired plasma and effusion potassium and creatinine -
Paired plasma and effusion potassium and creatinine
34
A middle-aged, depressed, coughing, exercise-intolerant Doberman pinscher is presented.
The dog has a rapid and irregular heart rate.
Which initial diagnostic step is most appropriate?
A.) Ultrasound for pericardial effusion -
B.) Thoracic radiographs to evaluate for congestive heart failure -
C.) Abdominal focused assessment with sonography for triage, trauma, and tracking rapid (AFAST) for hemoabdomen -
D.) CBC to identify anemia -
E.) Bronchoscopy for airway assessment -
Bronchoscopy for airway assessment
35
A three-year-old white rat is presented with yellowing fur and a brownish, granular sebaceous secretion at the base of affected hair shafts.
What should the owner be told?
A-Normal age-related change -
B-Probable ringworm, resolves spontaneously with sunlight exposure -
C-Moisture-related dermatitis, cage needs more frequent cleaning -
D-Staph dermatitis, responsive to antiseptic shampoo -
E-Common manifestation of chorioptic mange -
Normal age-related change
36
Several younger sheep in a large herd have died suddenly with a diagnosis of infectious necrotic hepatitis secondary to fluke infestation.
Which choice is the most practical and effective control measure you can take next to prevent future cases?
A - Clostridium hemolyticum bacterin for animals under 3 years
B - Vaccinate all animals with Clostridium novyi toxoid
C - Treat ponds with copper sulfate molluscicide against lymnaeid snails
D - High-dose penicillin for clinical cases
E - Clorsulon antihelmintic for whole herd
B - Vaccinate all animals with Clostridium novyi toxoid
37
A person calls to say she adopted a friend's dog and requests a copy of the dog's medical record and radiographs. The former owner is a client at your clinic.
Which one of the following choices is the most appropriate action to take?
A - Give a summarized record with personal identifiers (vet, owner names) blocked out
B - Give caller a copy of medical record and radiographs
C - Require original owner consent or court order to release information
D - After physical exam, start a new medical record documenting previous issues
E - Give caller a copy of medical record only
C - Require original owner consent or court order to release information
38
Foal heat diarrhea is typically associated with which of the following?
A - Hemorrhagic enteritis
B - Neutropenia and fever
C - Warm and humid weather
D - Decreased suckling
E - Alterations in diet
E - Alterations in diet
39
Which one of the following management recommendations is most helpful to reduce the incidence of mare reproductive loss syndrome?
A - Vaccinate mares and stallions against equine coital exanthema
B - Cut down all the black walnut trees on premises
C - Spray paddocks to kill Habronema muscae larvae
D - Remove the horses from affected pastures
E - Progesterone supplementation between four to six months of pregnancy
D - Remove the horses from affected pastures
40
You are helping a local goat dairy owner interpret the results of semi-annual ELISA serological testing of her herd for caprine arthritis encephalitis (CAE).
One two-month-old kid is CAE-positive by ELISA. Another two-month-old kid is CAE-negative by ELISA.
How do you interpret these results?
A - CAE-positive kid has CAE, cannot say if CAE-negative kid is infected or not
B - Both kids are infected with CAE
C - Cannot tell if either kid is truly CAE positive or negative
D - CAE-positive kid has CAE, CAE-negative kid does not have CAE
E - Cannot say if CAE-positive kid has CAE, CAE-negative kid is not infected
C - Cannot tell if either kid is truly CAE positive or negative
41
What is the most common cause of iron deficiency?
A - Immune-mediated hemolytic anemia
B - Renal disease
C - Dietary zinc deficiency
D - Chronic external blood loss
E - Copper toxicosis
D - Chronic external blood loss
42
A 22-year-old Thoroughbred mare is presented for bilateral green nasal discharge, retching, coughing, and inappetence noted after feeding this evening.
The owner recently switched the mare to a pelleted diet because of the mare’s poor dentition.
Physical exam reveals bilateral green nasal discharge. The mucous membranes are pink and moist with a capillary refill time of 1.5 seconds.
A slight swelling is notable in the proximal-left jugular groove just caudal to the vertical ramus of the mandible.
manure
Based on the most likely diagnosis, what initial therapy would be recommended?
Value
100.6 F (38.1 C)
HR=40 bpm
R=12 brpm
A - Administer antimicrobials, refer horse immediately for endoscopy and lavage under general anesthesia
B - Pass nasogastric tube; give atropine; lavage the esophagus until the obstruction clears
C - Withhold food and water; give sedatives and oxytocin; recheck in 2 hours
D - Cautious guttural pouch endoscopy with lavage for Streptococcus equi spp. equi PCR, quarantine horse until results are available
E - Ultrasound thorax, perform transtracheal wash for cytology and culture, begin broad-spectrum antimicrobials
C - Withhold food and water; give sedatives and oxytocin; recheck in 2 hours
43
A two-year-old, male neutered, sick, indoor/outdoor cat is presented with free fluid in the abdomen.
A sample of fluid is obtained and based on the high viscosity of the peritoneal fluid, feline infectious peritonitis is suspected.
What is a reliable and quick diagnostic test that can be performed on this fluid to differentiate it from effusions caused by other diseases?
A - Wright's stain
B - Coomb's test
C - Nissl stain
D - Rivalta test
E - Specific gravity
D - Rivalta test
44
A five-year-old female spayed domestic short-haired cat is presented with chronic vomiting, anorexia, and weight loss.
Physical examination reveals icterus, dehydration, and fever. Abdominal palpation identifies thickened small intestinal loops, and serum biochemistry shows increased bilirubin and liver enzymes.
The cat is diagnosed with extrahepatic biliary obstruction with accompanying cholangitis and inflammatory bowel disease.
Which one of the following normal anatomic features may predispose cats to this triad of diseases?
A - Decreased diameter and increased branching of the hepatic ducts in comparison to other species
B - Common opening of the pancreatic and common bile ducts into duodenum
C - Enlarged duodenal papilla in comparison to other species
D - Decreased proportion of alpha-smooth muscle actin in muscle fibers of the wall of the gall bladder in cats
E - Narrowing of the duodenum distal to the entry of the common bile and pancreatic ducts
B - Common opening of the pancreatic and common bile ducts into duodenum
45
A three-year-old white rat is presented with yellowing fur and a brownish, granular sebaceous secretion at the base of affected hair shafts.
What should the owner be told?
A - Normal age-related change
B - Staph dermatitis, responsive to antiseptic shampoo
C - Probable ringworm, resolves spontaneously with sunlight exposure
D - Moisture-related dermatitis, cage needs more frequent cleaning
E - Common manifestation of chorioptic mange
Normal age- related change
46
A four-year-old stallion is presented with urine scald, fecal retention, tailhead rubbing, and a right head tilt.
Rectal examination reveals atonia of the anus and rectum, however, no fracture is palpated.
Which one of the following tests help provide evidence of the top differential diagnosis?
A - Search the pasture for yellow star thistle
B - Antibodies against P2-myelin protein
C - Tibial muscle and nerve biopsies
D - Cervicothoracic spinal radiography
E - Immunoblot against DNA fragments from P. tenuis
B - Antibodies against P2-myelin protein
47
What kind of organism causes equine granulocytic anaplasmosis?
A - Spirochete
B - Ehrlichia
C - Protozoa
D - Chlamydia
E - Anaplasma
E - Anaplasma
48
A hobbyist fish owner is concerned because, within just a few hours, many of the fish in his freshwater tank have developed cloudy eyes, increased mucus, and are gasping at the surface. Fish also seem to be moving slowly.
Based on this history, which of the following would be the most relevant question to ask?
A - Did you use chlorine or other chemicals near the tank/equipment or do a recent water change with tap water?
B - Were these fish treated with ivermectin, levamisole, or praziquantel?
C - What are the levels of vitamin A, thiamine, and vitamin E in the feed, and how do you store the feed?
D - How often do you measure ammonia levels in the tank water and what was the last reading?
E - Do you feed frozen or live brine shrimp or bloodworms, and if so, a) how often are these fed and b) are they rinsed prior to use?
A - Did you use chlorine or other chemicals near the tank/equipment or do a recent water change with tap water?
49
What is the neuroanatomic cause of extensor rigidity in the forelimbs of a patient with Schiff-Sherrington posture?
A - Polyradiculoneuritis of peripheral nerve sheaths at cervical intumescence
B - Damage to thoracic spinocerebellar tracts in superficial white matter
C - Interruption of inhibitory neuron input from lumbar spinal cord
D - Brachial plexus trauma
E - Subdural white matter compression at C6-T3
C - Interruption of inhibitory neuron input from lumbar spinal cord
50
Which nerve block would most specifically relieve lameness resulting from fracture of the navicular bone?
A - Tibial and peroneal
B - Median and ulnar
C - Low four-point
D - Abaxial sesamoidean
E - Palmar digital
E - Palmar digital
51
A nine-year-old male neutered German shepherd is presented with unchecked bleeding from a cut on the gums above the right canine tooth. The owner relates that the dog has lost weight and had an episode of collapse three days ago, but he recovered.
On physical exam, the gums are pale with petechiae and ecchymotic hemorrhages. There is tachycardia and a palpable cranial abdominal mass.
A coagulation profile shows the following:
Thrombocytes= 82,533 per microliter. [N=200,000-900,000]
Buccal mucosal bleeding time (BMBT), increased
Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT), increased
Prothrombin time (PT), increased
Fibrin degradation products (FDPs), increased
What disorder of coagulation best fits this pattern?
A - Anticoagulant rodenticide toxicity
B - Disseminated intravascular coagulation
C - Von Willebrand's disease
D - Hepatic insufficiency
E - Idiopathic thrombocytopenia
B - Disseminated intravascular coagulation
52
A practice is using an FeLV test with a sensitivity of 90% and a specificity of 95%.
Assuming the prevalence of feline leukemia in the area is 5%, what is the predictive value negative (PVN) of the test?
A - 45%
B - 88%
C - 99%
D - 75%
E - 55%
C - 99%
53
Two eight-week old calves are presented down and extremely weak.
They are depressed and lying in pools of foul-smelling brown diarrhea with a small amount of blood.
Another calf died suddenly the previous night with no prior signs.
The down calves are dehydrated, with rectal temperatures of 105.2° and 105.6° F (40.7° – 40.9° C) [N=101.5°-103.5°F, N=37.8°-39.7° C], respectively.
What is the treatment plan?
A - Immunize calves and adult cattle with MLV vaccine; probiotics for sick calves
B - Isolate sick calves; oral electrolytes
C - IV fluids; NSAIDS; frequent milk feedings
D - Corticosteroids; amprolium in water; rumensin in feed
E - Cull sick calves; prophylactic oxytetracycline in feed for well animals
C - IV fluids; NSAIDS; frequent milk feedings
54
At what age do a cow's permanent 4th incisors begin to erupt in the mandible?
A - 2 to 2.5 years
B - 5-6 years
C - 3.5 to 4 years
D - 3 years
E - 7-8 years
C - 3.5 to 4 years
55
A four-year-old male neutered mixed breed dog is presented with acute collapse and respiratory distress. The dog has a two-month history of coughing and progressive exercise intolerance.
Exam reveals pale mucous membranes with a prolonged capillary refill time. Pulse quality is poor and there is jugular distention with a jugular pulse. There is abdominal distention with a palpable fluid wave.
Value
T=103.5°F (39.7°C)
HR=120
RR=34
Echocardiogram identifies a mass of worms in the right atrium and caudal vena cava.
What is the treatment of choice?
A - Immediately administer melarsomine
B - Surgical worm removal
C - Start ivermectin and doxycycline
D - Grave prognosis, recommend euthanasia
E - Prescribe furosemide and imidocarb
B - Surgical worm removal
56
A two-year-old Angus cow is presented with weakness of the hind limbs and a staggering gait.
On physical exam, the heart rate and respiratory rate are slow and irregular, and the pupils are dilated.
The cow's breath and urine smell like the odor of mouse urine.
Suddenly the cow's pulse becomes rapid and thready, she collapses, and dies of apparent respiratory failure.
Which one of the following plants is most likely to have caused this spectrum of clinical signs?
A - Tetradymia spp (Horsebrush)
B - Conium maculatum (Poison hemlock)
C - Pinus ponderosa (Western yellow pine)
D - Centaurea spp (Knapweed, Yellow star thistle)
E - Veratrum spp (False hellebore, Skunk cabbage)
B - Conium maculatum (Poison hemlock)
57
An outbreak of diarrheal disease of piglets has occurred which affected the healthiest animals in the herd, one to two weeks after weaning.
Some affected piglets had no signs except peracute death.
Other affected piglets exhibit diarrhea, ataxia, paralysis, and recumbency.
What condition is at the top of the differential diagnosis list?
A - Edema disease
B - Clostridium perfringens type C enteritis
C - Streptococcus suis
D - Porcine proliferative enteritis
E - Epidemic transmissible gastroenteritis (TGE)
A - Edema disease
58
Which one of the following choices includes the cardinal sign of trigeminal neuritis?
A - Inability to close the mouth
B - Paralyzed eyelid, ear or lip on one or both sides of the face
C - Masseter muscle pain associated with chewing
D - Dysphagia, dysphonia and stridor
E - Circling and head tilt toward side of lesion, no other signs
A - Inability to close the mouth
59
What condition is associated with rectal stricture in pigs?
A - Intestinal spirochetosis
B - Rotavirus
C - Coccidiosis
D - Salmonella typhimurium
E - Intussusception
D - Salmonella typhimurium
60
A two-year-old male neutered domestic shorthair cat is presented after a suspected fall from a height of approximately 35 feet (over ten meters).
The cat is initially stabilized with intravenous fluids and oxygen therapy. Four hours later, the cat has not urinated and no urinary bladder is palpable.
An abdominal focused assessment with sonography for trauma, triage, and tracking (AFAST) reveals a moderate volume abdominal effusion, with no visible urinary bladder.
What test would confirm the top differential?
A - Lactate and glucose levels of peritoneal sample and blood
B - Total protein and microscopic analysis of the ascites
C - Paired plasma and effusion potassium and creatinine
D - Measurement of BUN in blood and fluid
E - Abdominocentesis with Gram stain and cell count
C - Paired plasma and effusion potassium and creatinine
61
A three-year-old white rat is presented with yellowing fur and a brownish, granular sebaceous secretion at the base of affected hair shafts.
What should the owner be told?
A - Normal age-related change
B - Staph dermatitis, responsive to antiseptic shampoo
C - Probable ringworm, resolves spontaneously with sunlight exposure
D - Moisture-related dermatitis, cage needs more frequent cleaning
E - Common manifestation of chorioptic mange
A - Normal age-related change
62
Which diseases are associated with a high anion gap (AG)?
A - Eosinophilic enteritis, hypothyroidism, gastrinoma
B - Diabetes mellitus, pancreatitis, chronic diarrhea
C - Hypercalcemia of malignancy, hypoadrenocorticism, displaced abomasum
D - Prostatic adenocarcinoma, pleural effusion, lymphangiectasia
E - Grain overload, ethylene glycol toxicity, renal failure
E - Grain overload, ethylene glycol toxicity, renal failure
63
When a sow is giving birth, what is the shortest time interval between passage of piglets that indicates dystocia?
A - 4 hours
B - 1 hour
C - 2 hours
D - 15 minutes
E - 1/2 hour
B - 1 hour
64
What recommendation should be given to the owner of a mare that has had Caslick's vulvoplasty surgery?
A - Mare should not be bred by a stallion
B - Mare has a higher than normal risk for metritis
C - Mare will need an episiotomy before foaling
D - Higher risk of uterine torsion
E - Mare has a decreased risk for perineal laceration
C - Mare will need an episiotomy before foaling
65
A two-day-old calf has a GGT level of 500 times the adult upper reference range.
Which one of the following choices is the most likely interpretation?
A - Due to colostrum absorption
B - Suggestive of a congenital liver shunt
C - Associated with neonatal cholestasis
D - Caused by traumatic placental detachment
E - Related to bone development
A - Due to colostrum absorption
66
During examination of a newborn male cria, adhesions between the free end of the penis and the prepuce are evident.
What is the most likely explanation?
A - Common congenital malformation of preputial ring, associated with phimosis
B - Secondary to stress in utero, 5th month
C - Sequella of hypospadias; Heritable
D - Failure of separation of preputial diverticulum
E - Normal finding
E - Normal finding
67
A female veterinarian is pregnant and her physician tests her serologically for toxoplasmosis.
IgM is negative.
IgG is positive.
What is the most appropriate interpretation?
A - Mother is safe, baby at risk
B - Both mother and baby at risk
C - Mother at risk, baby is safe
D - Need to re-check in 2 weeks for rising titers
E - Both mother and baby are safe
E - Both mother and baby are safe
68
Which canine parasite can cause cutaneous larva migrans in people?
A - Trichostrongylus spp.
B - Spirocerca sp.
C - Habronema spp.
D - Ancylostoma spp.
E - Trichuris spp.
D - Ancylostoma spp.
69
A one-year-old female llama is presented with hyperkeratosis around the nose and mouth.
What is the most likely diagnosis?
A - Dermatophilosis
B - Zinc-responsive dermatosis
C - Munge
D - Dorsal nasal alopecia
E - Wry face
C - Munge
70
A six-year-old male neutered Yorkshire terrier is presented for routine examination. The owner has no current concerns.
Exam reveals a grade 3/6 left-sided systolic heart murmur. Pulse quality is strong and synchronous and there are no other abnormalities.
What is the most likely cause of the heart murmur?
A - Physiologic
B - Myxomatous mitral valve disease
C - Patent ductus arteriosus
D - Aortic stenosis
E - Carnitine-deficient dilated cardiomyopathy
B - Myxomatous mitral valve disease
71
A herd of ewes has had an abortion storm in which 80% of animals are affected.
All stages of gestation are affected, and lambs that are born are very weak.
On the placentas, cotyledons have white foci of necrosis.
Which one of the following choices is the primary differential diagnosis?
A - Histophilus ovis
B - Brucella
C - Chlamydiosis
D - Toxoplasma gondii
E - Listeria monocytogenes
D - Toxoplasma gondii
72
A one-year-old female spayed German Shepherd is presented for a two-week history of lameness.
Although the dog limps on the right foreleg as it enters the exam room, the owner reports that the dog was lame on the left hindleg last week.
On physical exam, the dog reacts painfully on palpation of the long bones of the right foreleg.
What is the most likely diagnosis?
Value Normal
99.8°F (37.7°C) 99.5-102.5°F (37.2-39.2°C)
HR=100 bpm 80-120
RR=24 brpm 15-34
A - Osteosarcoma
B - Multiple cartilaginous exostoses
C - Panosteitis
D - Hypertrophic osteodystrophy
E - Hypertrophic osteopathy
C - Panosteitis
73
A five-year-old female spayed Cocker Spaniel is presented with a drooping right ear and lip and drooling.
There is ptosis OD (right eye) but the remainder of the physical exam is unremarkable. She is otherwise bright, alert, and responsive.
What anatomic structure is damaged?
A - Trigeminal nerve
B - Left side medulla, motor tract
C - Left side inner ear
D - Right side cranial cervical ganglion
E - Facial nerve
E - Facial nerve
74
One description of a typical heart sound is "lub-dub."
What makes the first heart sound (S1) (i.e., the "lub")?
A - Aortic and pulmonic valves shut and the mitral and tricuspid valves open
B - End of rapid ventricular filling period
C - Rapid atrial and auricular expansion due to cranial and caudal vena cavae contraction
D - Atrial contraction
E - Closure of atrioventricular valves, opening of semilunar valves
E - Closure of atrioventricular valves, opening of semilunar valves
75
A stray dog is presented after being hit by a car.
The dog has hypotonic forelimbs and spastic paresis in the hinds.
All four limbs have proprioceptive deficits and sensation loss-signs are worse in the forelimbs.
Where is the lesion?
A - Cannot say without cutaneous trunci reflex results
B - Thoracolumbar T3-L3
C - Lumbosacral L4-S3
D - Cervicothoracic: C6-T2
E - Cranial cervical: C1-C5
D - Cervicothoracic: C6-T2
76
When a foal is being treated with erythromycin (for Rhodococcus equi, for example), the mare is at risk of developing enterocolitis due to which one of the following organisms?
A - Clostridioides difficile (formerly Clostridium difficile)
B - Lawsonia intracellularis (a.k.a. proliferative enteropathy)
C - Clostridium novyi
D - Escherichia coli
E - Rhodococcus equi
A - Clostridioides difficile (formerly Clostridium difficile)
77
Retained placenta and metritis can predispose to which one of the following secondary conditions in horses?
A - Cystic endometriosis
B - Colic
C - Postpartum dysgalactia syndrome
D - Contagious equine metritis
E - Laminitis
E - Laminitis
78
An eight-month-old male intact German shepherd dog is presented for poor weight gain, chronic diarrhea, and polyphagia.
Fasting serum trypsin-like immunoreactivity (TLI) measurement is <2.0 µgL (Normal = 5.7-45.2 µg/L).
What is the most likely cause of this dog’s clinical signs?
A - Small intestinal bacterial overgrowth
B - Inflammatory bowel disease
C - Pituitary dwarfism
D - Acinar cell atrophy
E - Acute pancreatitis
D - Acinar cell atrophy
79
Under what conditions is a very sensitive test used?
A - Lethal disease; highly prevalent disease
B - Treatment does not affect prognosis; non-infectious diseases
C - Common disease; infectious diseases
D - Rare disease; early diagnosis improves prognosis
E - Zoonoses; untreatable diseases
D - Rare disease; early diagnosis improves prognosis
80
For the last ten years, your state has had a mandatory vaccination program against "pedunculated giblet disease" in fur-bearing turtles and the prevalence of this terrible disease has decreased markedly.
How does this decrease in prevalence affect the predictive value positive (PVP) of the best serologic test for pedunculated giblet disease?
A - PVP depends on the number tested, not prevalence
B - PVP is affected by specificity, not prevalence
C - PVP stays the same as prevalence decreases
D - PVP increases as prevalence decreases
E - PVP decreases as prevalence decreases
E - PVP decreases as prevalence decreases
81
Which species has ellipsoid erythrocytes that lack central pallor?
A - Chinchillas
B - Camelids
C - Psittacines
D - Ferrets
E - Reptiles
B - Camelids
82
A four-month-old filly is presented with a four-day history of lethargy, heavy breathing, cough and decreased appetite.
Value Normal
104.9°F (40.5°C) 99.0–100.6°F (37.2–38.1°C)
HR=72 bpm 28-40 bpm
R=44 brpm 10-14 brpm
On lung auscultation asymmetrically-distributed crackles and wheezes are audible. Some areas have no breath sounds and a dull resonance on thoracic percussion. A lateral chest radiograph shows consolidated nodular lung lesions and mediastinal lymphadenopathy.
Pneumonia due to Rhodococcus equi infection is confirmed based on culture and polymerase chain reaction results on a transtracheal wash.
Which one of following choices is the most appropriate treatment?
A - Vancomycin and atropine (if bronchospasm is observed)
B - Chloramphenicol and aminophylline
C - Procaine penicillin G and gentamicin
D - Clarithromycin and rifampin
E - Tilmicosin
D - Clarithromycin and rifampin
83
A three-year-old female spayed Jack Russell terrier is presented with a three day history of progressive stumbling and falling.
Physical exam reveals a right head tilt, left sided hypermetria, generalized ataxia, and vertical nystagmus.
What is the most likely diagnosis?
A - Central pontine myelinolysis
B - Fibrocartilagenous embolism
C - Amyotrophic lateralizing sclerosis
D - Ascending and descending myelomalacia
E - Granulomatous meningoencephalomyelitis
E - Granulomatous meningoencephalomyelitis
84
A seven-week-old pot-bellied pig is presented with a soft swelling ventral to the anus, between the hind limbs.
Which one of the following is the most likely clinical diagnosis?
A - Intersex syndrome
B - Cryptorchidism
C - Inguinal hernia
D - Testicular torsion
E - Perineal hernia
C - Inguinal hernia
85
A birnavirus causes which one of these avian diseases?
A - Infectious laryngotracheitis
B - Infectious bursal disease
C - Marek's disease
D - Newcastle disease
E - Infectious bronchitis
B - Infectious bursal disease
86
During the necropsy of an eight-year-old mixed breed dog from the Southern United States, reactive granulomas in the esophagus containing bright red worms, 40 mm to 70 mm long are found.
Which choice is the most likely diagnosis?
A - Spirocerca lupi
B - Ollulanus tricuspis
C - Physaloptera spp.
D - Haemonchus placei
E - Gastrophilus spp.
A - Spirocerca lupi
87
Fractures of the proximal sesamoid bones in horses are often associated with damage to which structure?
A - Superficial digital flexor tendon
B - Superior check ligament
C - Impar ligament
D - Deep digital flexor tendon
E - Suspensory ligament
E - Suspensory ligament
88
Which are the clinical signs of aflatoxin toxicity in pigs?
A - Agalactia and dry gangrene
B - Anorexia, ascites, and icterus
C - Polyuria/polydipsia with pale firm kidneys
D - Pulmonary edema
E - Sudden mass mortality
- Anorexia, ascites, and icterus
89
A herd of ewes has had an abortion storm in which 80% of animals are affected.
All stages of gestation are affected, and lambs that are born are very weak.
On the placentas, cotyledons have white foci of necrosis.
Which one of the following choices is the primary differential diagnosis?
A - Listeria monocytogenes
B - Histophilus ovis
C - Chlamydiosis
D - Toxoplasma gondii
E - Brucella
D - Toxoplasma gondii
90
In September in the Southeastern U.S., a two-year-old Angus heifer died the previous night. She had a three-week history of poor appetite, unthriftiness, and diarrhea.
Several other younger cows in this herd also look unthrifty and have diarrhea. The cattle are vaccinated yearly and dewormed twice a year with pour-on moxidectin.
Necropsy reveals that the abomasum is edematous and covered in small umbilicated nodules, 1-2 mm in diameter (cobblestone appearance).
What is the most correct action to take next?
A - Treat affected cows with 2 classes of dewormer
B - Vaccinate against Clostridium perfringens C and D with a multivalent bacterin
C - Medicate for liver flukes
D - Provide free-choice monensin and thiamine-supplemented feed
E - Provide loose trace mineral salt to the entire group
A - Treat affected cows with 2 classes of dewormer
91
An emaciated cow is presented. She appears weak and anorexic, with enlarged superficial cervical lymph nodes.
Value Normal
T=102.9°F (39.5°C) 100.4?102.8°F, 38.0?39.3°C
HR=60 bpm 48-84 bpm
BR=30 brpm 26-50 brpm
The cow dies the next day. On necropsy, the following lesions in the lungs are evident.
What is the diagnosis?
(((ADDD PICTURE (( EMAIL FLAGGED))
A - Bovine tuberculosis
B - Johne's disease
C - Actinobacillosis
D - Bovine lymphoma
E - Contagious bovine pleuropneumonia
A - Bovine tuberculosis
92
A 3-year old castrated male Doberman Pinscher presents for acute onset non-productive vomiting of 3 hours duration. On exam, the patient is extremely lethargic, tachycardic, has weak pulses and a distended abdomen. Following standard initial emergency treatment for suspected gastric dilation and volvulus, you would confirm the diagnosis with what imaging procedure?
A) Dorsal recumbency abdominal radiograph
B) Right lateral recumbency abdominal radiograph
C) Barium contrast abdominal radiograph
Abdominal ultrasound exam
D) Ventral recumbency abdominal radiograph
E) Left lateral recumbency abdominal radiograph
B) Right lateral recumbency abdominal radiograph
93
What is the neuroanatomic cause of extensor rigidity in the forelimbs of a patient with Schiff-Sherrington posture?
A - Brachial plexus trauma
B - Polyradiculoneuritis of peripheral nerve sheaths at cervical intumescence
C - Subdural white matter compression at C6-T3
D - Interruption of inhibitory neuron input from lumbar spinal cord
E - Damage to thoracic spinocerebellar tracts in superficial white matter
D - Interruption of inhibitory neuron input from lumbar spinal cord
94
Several younger sheep in a large herd have died suddenly with a diagnosis of infectious necrotic hepatitis secondary to fluke infestation.
Which choice is the most practical and effective control measure you can take next to prevent future cases?
A - Vaccinate all animals with Clostridium novyi toxoid
B - Clostridium hemolyticum bacterin for animals under 3 years
C - Clorsulon antihelmintic for whole herd
D - Treat ponds with copper sulfate molluscicide against lymnaeid snails
E - High-dose penicillin for clinical cases
A - Vaccinate all animals with Clostridium novyi toxoid
95
A person calls to say she adopted a friend's dog and requests a copy of the dog's medical record and radiographs. The former owner is a client at your clinic.
Which one of the following choices is the most appropriate action to take?
A - Give caller a copy of medical record and radiographs
B - Give caller a copy of medical record only
C - After physical exam, start a new medical record documenting previous issues
D - Give a summarized record with personal identifiers (vet, owner names) blocked out
E - Require original owner consent or court order to release information
E - Require original owner consent or court order to release information
96
Foal heat diarrhea is typically associated with which of the following?
A - Warm and humid weather
B - Hemorrhagic enteritis
C - Alterations in diet
D - Neutropenia and fever
E - Decreased suckling
C - Alterations in diet
97
Which one of the following management recommendations is most helpful to reduce the incidence of mare reproductive loss syndrome?
A - Remove the horses from affected pastures
B - Cut down all the black walnut trees on premises
C - Vaccinate mares and stallions against equine coital exanthema
D - Spray paddocks to kill Habronema muscae larvae
E - Progesterone supplementation between four to six months of pregnancy
A - Remove the horses from affected pastures
98
A practice is using an FeLV test with a sensitivity of 90% and a specificity of 95%.
Assuming the prevalence of feline leukemia in the area is 5%, what is the predictive value negative (PVN) of the test?
A - 45%
B - 75%
C - 55%
D - 99%
E - 88%
D - 99%
99
At what age do a cow's permanent 4th incisors begin to erupt in the mandible?
A - 2 to 2.5 years
B - 5-6 years
C - 3 years
D - 3.5 to 4 years
E - 7-8 years
D - 3.5 to 4 years
100
A 2-year old male neutered cat presents to you depressed, hypersalivating, and ataxic with muscle tremors. The owner reports that a pyrethrin-based spot-on formulation for flea control belonging to their Golden Retriever was accidentally applied on the cat earlier today. Which of the following drugs will you use to treat the cat's clinical signs?
2-PAM
Methocarbamol
Acepromazine
Amoxicillin
Atropine
Methocarbamol
