100-1 Flashcards

1
Q

A dog with acute, non-productive retching, abdominal distention, and tympanic gas on auscultation of the abdomen (positive ping on abdominal percussion) should have at least one radiograph taken of its abdomen. Which view is most useful for your suspected diagnosis?

A

Right lateral (gastric dilatation-volvulus)

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2
Q

Which components of the eye make up the uvea?

A

Choroid, ciliary body, and iris.

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3
Q

What is the average litter size for guinea pigs?

A

2 to 4 (a range of 1-13 has been reported)

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4
Q

What is the most common species of coccidia found in poultry?

A

Eimeria spp.

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5
Q

A one-year-old female spayed German Shepherd is presented for a two-week history of lameness.

Although the dog limps on the right foreleg as it enters the exam room, the owner reports that the dog was lame on the left hindleg last week.

On physical exam, the dog reacts painfully on palpation of the long bones of the right foreleg.

What is the most likely diagnosis?

Value Normal
99.8°F (37.7°C) 99.5-102.5°F (37.2-39.2°C)
HR=100 bpm 80-120
RR=24 brpm 15-34

A - Panosteitis
B - Hypertrophic osteodystrophy
C - Hypertrophic osteopathy
D - Osteosarcoma
E - Multiple cartilaginous exostoses

A

A - Panosteitis

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6
Q

A herd of ewes has had an abortion storm in which 80% of animals are affected.

All stages of gestation are affected, and lambs that are born are very weak.

On the placentas, cotyledons have white foci of necrosis.

Which one of the following choices is the primary differential diagnosis?

A - Listeria monocytogenes
B - Chlamydiosis
C - Histophilus ovis
D - Brucella
E - Toxoplasma gondii

A

E - Toxoplasma gondii

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7
Q

A six-year-old male neutered Yorkshire terrier is presented for routine examination. The owner has no current concerns.

Exam reveals a grade 3/6 left-sided systolic heart murmur. Pulse quality is strong and synchronous and there are no other abnormalities.

What is the most likely cause of the heart murmur?

A

A - Myxomatous mitral valve disease- (MMVD)

This is the most common heart disease in dogs. It is the most common cause of a heart murmur in adult small–> med sized dogs especially cavaliers, dachshunds, yorkies, chihuahuas, and mini poodles

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8
Q

What are 3 anatomic sites of predilection for hemangiosarcoma in the dog?

A

Spleen, right atrium, liver and/or lung (metastases);
rarely kidney, other sites.

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9
Q

The foramen ovale is an opening in which structure?

A

The interatrial septum (in utero)

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10
Q

An older white cat has an erosive lesion that has been expanding on the rostralmost nasal planum for several months. What neoplasm is of the greatest concern?

A

Squamous cell carcinoma.

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11
Q

At what age are guinea pigs sexually mature?

A

Two months of age in females, three months of age in males.

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12
Q

Which type of canine distemper virus vaccine should be given to ferrets?
A-chick embryo,
B- canine tissue culture,
C- ferret tissue culture adapted vaccines

A

Chick embryo-adapted vaccines. Canine or ferret tissue culture-adapted vaccines can induce disease and should never be used.

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13
Q

Which canine parasite can cause cutaneous larva migrans in people?

A - Spirocerca sp.
B - Ancylostoma spp.
C - Trichostrongylus spp.
D - Habronema spp.
E - Trichuris spp.

A

B - Ancylostoma spp.

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14
Q

A female veterinarian is pregnant and her physician tests her serologically for toxoplasmosis.

IgM is negative.
IgG is positive.

What is the most appropriate interpretation?

A - Mother at risk, baby is safe
B - Both mother and baby are safe
C - Both mother and baby at risk
D - Mother is safe, baby at risk
E - Need to re-check in 2 weeks for rising titers

A

B - Both mother and baby are safe

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15
Q

During examination of a newborn male cria, adhesions between the free end of the penis and the prepuce are evident.

What is the most likely explanation?
A - Common congenital malformation of preputial ring, associated with phimosis
B - Failure of separation of preputial diverticulum
C - Sequella of hypospadias; Heritable
D - Normal finding
E - Secondary to stress in utero, 5th month

A

D - Normal finding

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16
Q

A two-day-old pup has a GGT level of 500 times the adult upper reference range.

Which one of the following choices is the most likely interpretation?

A - Related to bone development
B - Associated with neonatal cholestasis
C - Caused by traumatic placental detachment
D - Due to colostrum absorption
E - Suggestive of a congenital liver shunt

A

D - Due to colostrum absorption

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17
Q

What recommendation should be given to the owner of a mare that has had Caslick’s vulvoplasty surgery?

A - Higher risk of uterine torsion
B - Mare has a higher than normal risk for metritis
C - Mare has a decreased risk for perineal laceration
D - Mare will need an episiotomy before foaling
E - Mare should not be bred by a stallion

A

D - Mare will need an episiotomy before foaling

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18
Q

Typhlitis is inflammation of which organ?

A

The cecum.

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19
Q

What are the 4 components of the tetralogy of Fallot?

A

Ventral septal defect, dextroaorta, pulmonic stenosis, right ventricular concentric hypertrophy.

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20
Q

Does an animal with paresis, hyperreflexia, and disuse atrophy that is mild and slow to develop have upper or lower motor neuron disease of the affected area?

A

Upper motor neuron disease.

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21
Q

In dogs, Staphylococcus and Proteus urinary tract infections favor the development of which type of urolith?

A

Struvite urolith. These bacteria favor an alkaline urine (e.g., via production of disease), favoring struvite formation

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22
Q

What is the primary differential for a 1-month-old puppy with a dome shaped head and a bilateral strabismus?

A

Congenital hydrocephalus.

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23
Q

When a sow is giving birth, what is the shortest time interval between passage of piglets that indicates dystocia?

A
  • 1 hour
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24
Q

Which diseases are associated with a high anion gap (AG)?
A - Grain overload, ethylene glycol toxicity, renal failure
B - Hypercalcemia of malignancy, hypoadrenocorticism, displaced abomasum
C - Eosinophilic enteritis, hypothyroidism, gastrinoma
D - Prostatic adenocarcinoma, pleural effusion, lymphangiectasia
E - Diabetes mellitus, pancreatitis, chronic diarrhea

A

E - Diabetes mellitus, pancreatitis, chronic diarrhea

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25
Q

What is the earliest stage post-breeding that an experienced practitioner can reliably rectally palpate fremitus in the uterine artery of the gravid uterine horn in a pregnant cow?

A - 90 -120 days
B - 60-75 days
C - 120-150 days
D - 70-80 days
E - 45-60 days

A

C - 120-150 days

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26
Q

The most common clinical signs in dogs and cats with portosystemic shunts reflect dysfunction of which body system secondary to poor liver function?

A

Central nervous system (dullness, seizures)

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27
Q

Which sweetener used in sugar free gum has been associated with hepatic dysfunction and acute liver failure in some dogs

A

Xylitol

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28
Q

The total lung capacity consists of the inspiratory reserve volume, the expiratory reserve volume, the residual volume, and which fourth, essential component?

A

The tidal volume

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29
Q

Calcinosis cutis is a possible clinical sign of this endocrine disease:

A

Hyperadrenocorticism

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30
Q

Carpal valgus denotes a deviation of the distal limb in which direction?

A

Lateral deviation. Carpal varus is medial deviation

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31
Q

A middle-aged, depressed, coughing, exercise-intolerant Doberman pinscher is presented.

The dog has a rapid and irregular heart rate.

Which initial diagnostic step is most appropriate?

q- Ultrasound for pericardial effusion -
w- Thoracic radiographs to evaluate for congestive heart failure -
r- Abdominal focused assessment with sonography for triage, trauma, and tracking rapid (AFAST) for hemoabdomen -
t- CBC to identify anemia -
o-Bronchoscopy for airway assessment -

A

w- Thoracic radiographs to evaluate for congestive heart failure -

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32
Q

The blood supply to the cow’s udder comes primarily from which artery?

A

External pudendal artery

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33
Q

What is ophthalmia neonatorum of ferrets?

A

Infection of the unopened eyes of kits

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34
Q

What is the most common cause of hypercalcemia in the adult dog?

A

Malignancy

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35
Q

The optimal therapeutic regimen for rhodococcal pneumonia in foals consists of treatment with which antimicrobials?

A

A macrolide (erythromycin, azithromycin, or clarithromycin) combined with rifampin

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36
Q

In small animals, what is the most likely anatomical location (i.e., small or large bowel) of a lesion when diarrhea is characterized by weight loss, large volume of liquid feces, and melena?

A

Small bowel diarrhea

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37
Q

What condition is associated with rectal stricture in pigs?
Salmonella typhimurium -
Rotavirus -
Coccidiosis -
Intussusception -
Intestinal spirochetosis -

A

Salmonella typhimurium -

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38
Q

Which one of the following choices includes the cardinal sign of trigeminal neuritis?

p-Inability to close the mouth

o-Dysphagia, dysphonia and stridor -

u-Circling and head tilt toward side of lesion, no other signs -

y-Masseter muscle pain associated with chewing -

k-Paralyzed eyelid, ear or lip on one or both sides of the face -

A

p-Inability to close the mouth

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39
Q

The intratracheal (IT) route of medication administration can be used in emergencies and during cardiopulmonary resuscitation in small patients without an intravenous catheter.

However, not all drugs are safe to give IT. “NAVEL” is an acronym that corresponds to five emergency drugs that may be given IT.

What is the correct meaning of NAVEL in this regard?

A

B - Naloxone, atropine, vasopressin, epinephrine, lidocaine

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40
Q

In cats, at what age is normal testicular descent complete?

A - 8 weeks
B - 14 days
C - 1 year
D - At birth
E - 6 months

A

D - At birth

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41
Q

What is another name for triple phosphate crystals?

A - Calcium carbonate
B - Calcium oxalate
C - Amorphous phosphate
D - Struvite

A

D - Struvite

42
Q

Ketamine is classified as which one of the following types of anesthetic agents?

A - Inhalant
B - Barbiturate
C - Dissociative
D - Opioid
E - Synthetic codeine analogue

A

C - Dissociative

43
Q

What might happen if you push the oxygen flush button on an anesthetic machine?

A - Flow rate increases
B - The patient may start to wake up
C - Oxygen is flushed out of the system
D - The patient will go to a deeper anesthetic plane
E - Anesthetic gas concentration goes up in the breathing circuit

A

B - The patient may start to wake up

44
Q

What is the normal depth of the gingival sulcus in cats?

A - 2-5 mm
B - 4-6 mm
C - 0 mm
D - 1-3 mm
E - 0.5-1 mm

A

E - 0.5-1 mm

45
Q

What fresh gas flow rate is typical of a non-rebreathing anesthetic circuit?

A - 150 ml/lb/hr
B - 200-300 ml/kg/min
C - 30-50 ml/kg/min
D - 50-150 ml/kg/min
E - >450 ml/kg/min

A

B - 200-300 ml/kg/min

46
Q

How early is it possible to determine pregnancy in horses by ultrasonic transrectal examination?

A - 28 days of gestation
B - 10 days of gestation
C - 45 days of gestation
D - 20 days of gestation

A

B - 10 days of gestation

47
Q

What are the three most important factors to remember for radiation safety?

A - Time, distance, shielding
B - Positioning, angle of tungsten target, temperature of filament
C - Power, restraint, x-ray tube length
D - kVp setting, focal-film distance, grid type

A

A - Time, distance, shielding

48
Q

Which choice might explain why a radiograph comes out very light and washed out?

A - Prolonged exposure time
B - High kilovoltage
C - Focal distance is too long
D - High milliampere-seconds

A

C - Focal distance is too long

49
Q

What do significantly increased reticulocytes on a complete blood count (CBC) indicate?

A - Autoimmune hemolytic disease
B - Regenerative anemia
C - Early sign of leukemia or bone marrow dysfunction
D - Inflammatory response
E - Disseminated intravascular coagulation

A

B - Regenerative anemia

50
Q

Which part of the tooth is considered to be living tissue?

A - Sulcus and periodontal ligament
B - Lignum and cementum
C - Enamel and dentin
D - Dentin and pulp
E - Enamel and dura mater

A

D - Dentin and pulp

51
Q

What does polychromasia (color variation) in red blood cells suggest?

A - It is normal in most small animals
B - Polycythemia
C - Acetaminophen toxicity
D - Regenerative anemia
E - Autoimmune hemolysis

A

D - Regenerative anemia

52
Q

What is one of the most common short-term side effects about which you should advise an owner when dispensing glucocorticoids like prednisolone for a dog?

A - Ataxia
B - Decreased appetite
C - Increased itching
D - Diabetes mellitus
E - Increased drinking and urination

A

E - Increased drinking and urination

53
Q

Which species cannot normally regurgitate or vomit?

A

Horse

54
Q

A three-day-old female alpaca (cria) is presented in respiratory distress.

The cria’s cheeks flare noticeably during inspiration, and the distress is more pronounced during nursing, when the animal gasps and inhales milk.

What is the most likely diagnosis?

A

A - Choanal atresia

55
Q

What is the most common congenital problem in South Amarican Camelids?

A

A - Choanal atresia

56
Q

Which part of the stomach and foregut system occupies the most space in a newborn calf?

A

C - Abomasum

57
Q

What color does a gram-positive bacteria stain on a Gram-stained microscopic slide?

A

Blue

58
Q

For the last ten years, your state has had a mandatory vaccination program against “pedunculated giblet disease” in fur-bearing turtles and the prevalence of this terrible disease has decreased markedly.

How does this decrease in prevalence affect the predictive value positive (PVP) of the best serologic test for pedunculated giblet disease?

A - PVP increases as prevalence decreases
B - PVP decreases as prevalence decreases
C - PVP stays the same as prevalence decreases
D - PVP is affected by specificity, not prevalence
E - PVP depends on the number tested, not prevalence

A

B - PVP decreases as prevalence decreases

59
Q

Under what conditions is a very sensitive test used?

A - Rare disease; early diagnosis improves prognosis
B - Common disease; infectious diseases
C - Treatment does not affect prognosis; non-infectious diseases
D - Lethal disease; highly prevalent disease
E - Zoonoses; untreatable diseases

A

A - Rare disease; early diagnosis improves prognosis

60
Q

An eight-month-old male intact German shepherd dog is presented for poor weight gain, chronic diarrhea, and polyphagia.

Fasting serum trypsin-like immunoreactivity (TLI) measurement is <2.0 µgL (Normal = 5.7-45.2 µg/L).

What is the most likely cause of this dog’s clinical signs?

A - Acute pancreatitis
B - Inflammatory bowel disease
C - Acinar cell atrophy
D - Pituitary dwarfism
E - Small intestinal bacterial overgrowth

A

C - Acinar cell atrophy

61
Q

Retained placenta and metritis can predispose to which one of the following secondary conditions in horses?

A - Cystic endometriosis
B - Colic
C - Postpartum dysgalactia syndrome
D - Laminitis
E - Contagious equine metritis

A

D - Laminitis

62
Q

The incidence of dilated cardiomyopathy in cats decreased dramatically after the 1987 discovery that a significant cause was a dietary deficiency of which nutrient?

A

Taurine.

63
Q

A Siberian Husky presents with photophobia, blepharospasm, conjunctivitis, and skin lesions consisting of the dorsal muzzle, periorbital region, planum nasale and lips. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A

Uveodermatologic syndrome (Vogt-Koyanagi-Harada-like syndrome)

64
Q

When observing for symmetry of facial expression in the dog, you are mainly assessing the status of which cranial nerve?

A

Facial nerve (CN VII).

65
Q

Which medication increases detrusor muscle contractibility? What is its main contraindication?

A

Bethanechol; urethral obstruction.

66
Q

When a foal is being treated with erythromycin (for Rhodococcus equi, for example), the mare is at risk of developing enterocolitis due to which one of the following organisms?

A - Lawsonia intracellularis (a.k.a. proliferative enteropathy)
B - Escherichia coli
C - Clostridium novyi
D - Clostridioides difficile (formerly Clostridium difficile)
E - Rhodococcus equi

A

D - Clostridioides difficile (formerly Clostridium difficile)

67
Q

Damage to which tissues can cause increases in serum alanine aminotransferase (ALT) levels in dogs and cats?

A - Pancreas and intestine
B - Red blood cells and brain
C - Liver and muscle
D - Spleen and adrenals
E - Heart and kidneys

A

C - Liver and muscle

68
Q

A stray dog is presented after being hit by a car.

The dog has hypotonic forelimbs and spastic paresis in the hinds.

All four limbs have proprioceptive deficits and sensation loss-signs are worse in the forelimbs.

Where is the lesion?

A - Cervicothoracic: C6-T2
B - Cannot say without cutaneous trunci reflex results
C - Lumbosacral L4-S3
D - Thoracolumbar T3-L3
E - Cranial cervical: C1-C5

A

A - Cervicothoracic: C6-T2

69
Q

What two blood chemistry findings are common in canine hyperadrenocorticism?

A - Decreased alanine aminotransferase; decreased creatinine
B - Hypocalcemia; low albumin:globulin ratio
C - Hyponatremia; hyperkalemia
D - Hypercholesterolemia; increased alkaline phosphatase
E - Hypoglycemia; azotemia

A

D - Hypercholesterolemia; increased alkaline phosphatase

70
Q

Which one of the following animals has an os penis?

A - Boar
B - Stallion
C - Ram
D - Dog
E - Bull

A

Dog

71
Q

A six-month-old female spayed Labrador retriever is presented for left pelvic limb lameness of one month’s duration. The owner reports that the dog is slow to rise from a lying position and bunny hops when chasing a ball.

Exam reveals that the dog has decreased muscle mass of the left compared to right pelvic limb. There is decreased weight-bearing on the left pelvic limb and a positive Ortolani sign.

Which of the following statements is correct based on the top differential?

A - Radiographic findings correlate closely with clinical signs
B - Orthopedic Foundation for Animals screening will predict future development of degenerative joint disease
C - Perform a triple pelvic osteotomy if no coxofemoral osteoarthritis
D - Juvenile pubic symphysiodesis is the treatment of choice
E - Intra- and extra-capsular surgical repair have similar success rates

A

C - Perform a triple pelvic osteotomy if no coxofemoral osteoarthritis

72
Q

What angle should be AVOIDED when using a magnetostrictive ultrasonic scaler to prevent tooth damage?

A - Tooth surface contact is important, not the angle
B - Parallel
C - 90°
D - 45°
E - 180°

A

90

73
Q

What is the correct definition of leukopenia?

A

A decrease in white blood cells

74
Q

What does a “zone of inhibition” indicate when using the Kirby-Bauer disc diffusion method?

A - Need to reinoculate the culture plate
B - The disc inhibits fungal spread across the corneal surface
C - Radiographic evidence that dog needs surgical therapy for intervertebral disc disease
D - The antibiotic prevents bacterial growth
E - Catheter was placed subcutaneously rather than intravenously

A

D - The antibiotic prevents bacterial growth

75
Q

From which one of the following embryonic tissues is the vagina formed?

A - Ectoderm and mesoderm
B - Mesoderm and endoderm
C - Splanchnopleuric mesenchyme
D - Endoderm and ectoderm
E - Gastrula and endoderm

A

A - Ectoderm and mesoderm

76
Q

When evaluating feline reticulocytes on a complete blood cell count, which kind of reticulocytes are counted?

A - Poikilocytic
B - Spherocytic
C - Aggregate
D - Punctate
E - Target cells

A

C - Aggregate

77
Q

A 14-yr-old Dachshund that was seen last week has presented today for evaluation of flaccid paresis of his caudal limbs.

What problem is the dog having today?

A - Stiff and paralyzed on his right side only
B - Weak and stiff in his front legs
C - Limp and paralyzed in all four legs
D - Weak and limp in his rear legs
E - Inability to mate

A

D - Weak and limp in his rear legs

78
Q

In temperate North America, one animal is seasonally polyestrous (multiple estrous cycles) in the winter when the weather is cold and the other animal is seasonally polyestrous in the spring and summer when weather is warm.

Both give birth the following spring.

Identify the two species.

A - Cow, goat
B - Horse, dog
C - Cow, pig
D - Sheep, horse
E - Cat, sheep

A

D - Sheep, horse

79
Q

You are called to help examine a six-year-old Appaloosa gelding.

The owner is worried because the horse seems sensitive and head-shy when he has a bit in his mouth.

On physical exam you note a prominent pair of wolf teeth.

What, anatomically, is an equine wolf tooth?

A - Permanent canine (C)
B - Permanent incisor 3 (I3)
C - Deciduous premolar 1 (Dp1)
D - Permanent premolar 1 (P1)
E - Deciduous canine (Dc)

A

D - Permanent premolar 1 (P1)

80
Q

A birnavirus causes which one of these avian diseases?

A - Infectious laryngotracheitis
B - Infectious bursal disease
C - Marek’s disease
D - Newcastle disease
E - Infectious bronchitis

A

B - Infectious bursal disease

81
Q

Which one of these contrast media is radiolucent?

A - Air
B - Iodine
C - Thorium
D - Barium
E - Diatrizoate

A

A - Air

82
Q

What part keeps exhaled gasses moving away from the patient in a circular rebreathing anesthetic delivery system?

A - Y-valve on endotracheal tube
B - Oxygen flush valve
C - Rebreathing bag
D - One-way valves
E - Passive scavenger

A

D - One-way valves

83
Q

Which of the following choices are effects of acepromazine in dogs and cats?

A - Anti-emesis, vasodilation
B - Sedation, piloerection
C - Increase blood pressure, muscle tremors
D - Anti-arrhythmic, hypertension
E - Muscle relaxation, analgesia

A

A - Anti-emesis, vasodilation

84
Q

What is the most common effect of a persistent corpus luteum in the horse during the breeding season?

A - Anestrus
B - Endometrial hyperplasia
C - Nymphomania
D - Follicular cysts
E - Uterine involution

A

Anestrus

85
Q

Which one of the following choices may cause a radiograph to come out blurry?

A - Patient movement
B - Static electricity
C - kVp too low
D - mAs too high
E - Focal-film distance too short

A

A - Patient movement

86
Q

What is the most common dermatophyte in dogs and cats?

A

Microsporum canis

87
Q

What is the most common cause of hindlimb ataxia in ferrets?

A

Hypoglycemia caused by insulinoma

88
Q

What are the veterinary terms for the crop and the gizzard in birds?

A

Ingluvies (crop) and ventriculus (gizzard)

89
Q

What is meant by the term “intermural” in reference to ectopic ureters?

A

The uterus courses within the bladder wall but inserts in an excessively caudal location.

90
Q

What is the most common cause of swollen limbs in reptile patients?

A

Fibrous osteodystrophy, resulting from metabolic bone disease.

91
Q

A dog has a Schirmer tear test result of 6mm/minute in both eyes. What is the most accurate interpretation: inadequate, adequate, or excessive tear production?

A

Inadequate (normal >or = 15mm/min.

92
Q

What is the most common cause of diabetes mellitus in ferrets?

A

Iatrogenic. Usually secondary to pancreatectomy to treat insulinoma

93
Q

With respect to hair rubbing against the cornea: what is the difference between ectopic cilia, distichiasis, and trichiasis?

A

Ectopic cilia: aberrant individual eyelashes arising from meibomian glands and growing through conjunctiva towards the globe. Distichiasis: presence of an additional row of eyelashes on the eyelid margin, in addition to the normal lashes. Trichiasis: normal facial hair that rubs on the conjunctiva or cornea.

94
Q

This cause of stranguria in the male chinchilla is more common in stud animals.

A

Paraphimosis, also known as fur-ring.

95
Q

What is the causative agent of canine scabies, and what is the most common synonym for this disorder?

A

Sarcoptes scabiei; sarcoptic mange.

96
Q

Which fungus is found in the dropping of starlings and has been associated with systemic mycotic infection in dogs and humans?

A

Histoplasma capsulatum.

97
Q

An adult box turtle has a circumscribed, firm subcutaneous swelling in the cranial neck, ventral and caudal to the eye. The diet is not nutritionally balanced. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A

Aural abscess.

98
Q

What are the treatment options for fibrosarcoma in a dog?

A

Surgical resection, radiation therapy, and chemotherapy may all be appropriate, depending n the location of the tumor, presence or absence of metastasis, availability of treatment modalities, and client wishes and finances.

99
Q

What is a leiomyosarcoma, and what is its best recognized paraneoplastic syndrome?

A

A malignant tumor of smooth muscle origin (whereas a leiomyoma is a benign tumor of smooth muscle origin). Hypoglycemia is the best-described paraneoplastic syndrome.

100
Q

The term “trigone” refers to an anatomic region in which organ?

A

Urinary bladder.