10 peritonitis Flashcards

1
Q

What are the clinical signs of megacolon in cats?

A
  • Severe constipation (obstipation)
  • Tenesmus
  • Pain when attempting to defecate
  • Arching back
  • Vocalising
  • Stiff gait
  • Reluctance to move
  • Enlarged abdomen
  • Anorexia
  • Vomiting
  • Weight loss
  • Dehydration
  • Some paradoxical diarrhoea around the feces

None

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2
Q

What is the most common cause of megacolon in cats?

A

Idiopathic causes (62% of cases)

Acquired megacolon can result from mechanical or functional causes.

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3
Q

What are some mechanical causes of acquired megacolon in cats?

A
  • Pelvic canal stenosis
  • Colonic or rectal neoplasia
  • Foreign bodies
  • Extracolonic masses

These causes can lead to obstruction.

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4
Q

What is pseudohyperreflexia?

A

A condition where the patellar reflex appears hyperreflexive due to decreased tone in the muscles that flex the stifle.

It can occur with a sciatic nerve or L6 to S1 spinal cord segment lesion.

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5
Q

What are the clinical signs of reverse shunting in a dog with PDA?

A
  • Differential cyanosis
  • Exercise intolerance
  • Lethargy
  • Weakness
  • Diminished or absent continuous murmur
  • Tachypnoea
  • Collapse during exercise
  • Dyspnoea

Cyanotic caudal mucous membranes but pink cranial mucous membranes.

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6
Q

What is the pathogenesis of reverse shunting in dogs with PDA?

A

Pulmonary arterial over-circulation can lead to pulmonary hypertension, reversing blood flow through the PDA, causing right-to-left shunting.

This results in hypoxaemia, especially in organs caudal to the heart.

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7
Q

What factors contribute to the development of GDV in dogs?

A
  • Breed/size
  • Deep-chested
  • Anxious/aggressive behavior
  • History of GDV in a first-degree relative
  • Increased gastrohepatic ligament length
  • Previous splenectomy

Husbandry factors include few meals, exercise after eating, rapid ingestion of food, and small food particles.

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8
Q

What are the subjective methods to determine if gastrectomy is required during GDV surgery?

A
  • Examine gastric wall thickness
  • Assess color of the stomach wall
  • Evaluate presence/lack of muscular peristalsis
  • Incise the serosa to check bleeding
  • Check blood supply to the stomach

These methods have an accuracy of 85%.

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9
Q

What are the ideal properties of suture for gastric surgery?

A
  • Monofilament
  • Long lasting
  • Swaged on needle
  • Resistant to acid and enzyme-rich environments
  • Sterile

Examples include Polyglyconate (75 days), Polyglecaprone (15 days), Polyglycolide, and Polydioxanone (12 days).

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10
Q

Define gastropexy.

A

Creating a permanent adhesion between the stomach and the side of the abdominal wall to prevent gastrointestinal volvulus.

It reduces the recurrence rate of GDV.

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11
Q

What are the four different types of gastropexy surgery?

A
  • Incisional gastropexy
  • Belt loop gastropexy
  • Circumcostal gastropexy
  • Gastrocolopexy

Each type has specific techniques and indications.

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12
Q

What is a cm incision made over in surgical procedures involving the rib?

A

11th/12th rib at level of costochondral junction

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13
Q

What are the major salivary glands in dogs and cats?

A
  • Parotid
  • Mandibular
  • Sublingual
  • Zygomatic
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14
Q

What is gastrocolopexy?

A

An incision/suture line between the greater curvature of the stomach and the transverse colon

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15
Q

Which gland is triangular shaped and located superficial to the vertical ear canal?

A

Parotid gland

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16
Q

Where does the parotid duct open into the mouth?

A

Through a small papilla at level of upper 4th premolar

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17
Q

What is the location of the zygomatic gland?

A

Ventral and rostrolateral to the globe and medial to zygomatic arch

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18
Q

What are the two portions of the sublingual gland?

A
  • Monostomatic
  • Polystomatic
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19
Q

What is one reason for dehiscence of oesophageal wounds?

A

Lack of serosa

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20
Q

What role does the serosa play in intestinal surgery?

A

Facilitates tissue healing by providing a smooth, protective surface

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21
Q

What are the four types of hiatal hernias?

A
  • Type 1: Sliding hiatal hernia
  • Type 2: Paraesophageal hiatal hernia
  • Type 3: Combination of Type 1 and 2
  • Type 4: Non-stomach organ herniation
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22
Q

What can contribute to the pathogenesis of perianal fistulas?

A
  • Broad based tails
  • Deeper anal sacs in GSDs
  • Immune mediated cause
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23
Q

What are the types of congenital extrahepatic portal vein shunts in cats?

A
  • Splenocaval
  • Left gastrophrenic
  • Left gastrocaval
  • Left gastroazygous
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24
Q

What is the first phase of wound healing following small intestinal anastomosis?

A

Inflammation/Exudative/Lag phase (day 1-5)

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25
Q

What happens during the proliferative phase of wound healing?

A

Fibroblasts deposit collagen, replacing fibrin clot with granulation tissue

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26
Q

What is the last phase of wound healing characterized by the formation of a permanent scar?

A

Remodelling phase (day 14-weeks)

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27
Q

What is the typical strength of ileal/small intestinal anastomoses by 4 weeks?

A

Near normal strength

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28
Q

What are short term complications of oesophageal foreign bodies?

A
  • Tearing/damage to oesophageal wall
  • Inflammation/pain
  • Regurgitation
  • Possible aspiration and pneumonia
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29
Q

What are the two types of thoracotomies for foreign bodies located cranial to the heart base?

A
  • Intercostal thoracotomy
  • Left sided or right sided
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30
Q

What is the ideal suture pattern for esophagotomies?

A

Simple interrupted pattern using strong suture like 2/0

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31
Q

What increases the risk of dehiscence in esophageal surgery?

A
  • Lack of serosal layer
  • Segmental blood supply
  • Constant movement of the esophagus
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32
Q

What is the main reason for choosing a gastrostomy feeding tube over an enterostomy tube?

A

Allows for a large gauge ostomy tube that can deliver decent amounts of food and water

33
Q

What is the main cell type during the remodelling phase of wound healing?

A

Fibroblasts

34
Q

What happens to collagen during the remodelling phase of wound healing?

A

Type 3 collagen is replaced by type 1 collagen

35
Q

What is the typical timeline for healing in the colon?

A
  • Lag/inflammatory phase: 1-4 days
  • Proliferative phase: 3-14 days
  • Maturation: 17 days +
36
Q

What is the most proximal function part of the GI tract for enterostomy tube placement?

A

The stomach

It is distal to the diseased section (oesophagus) and allows for a large gauge ostomy tube.

37
Q

What are the typical gauge sizes for an enterostomy tube?

A

14-24G

These sizes allow decent amounts of food and water to be given parenterally.

38
Q

What are the complications associated with enterostomy/duodenostomy or jejunostomy tubes?

A

Obstruction with food/liquid, kinking, intestinal irritation, and perforation

These tubes are more technically difficult to place and use smaller sizes (8Fr).

39
Q

What are the techniques for gastrotomy tube placement?

A

Surgically or Percutaneously

40
Q

What is the surgical approach for gastrotomy tube placement?

A

Midline celiotomy or left paracostal approach

41
Q

During a celiotomy, how is the stomach secured?

A

The stomach is pexied to the lateral or ventrolateral left body wall

42
Q

What type of catheter is used during surgical gastrotomy placement?

A

Mushroom tipped Melecot or Pezzer catheter

43
Q

What is the purpose of a full thickness purse string suture during gastrotomy placement?

A

To secure the feeding tube in the wall of the proximal half of the left gastric body

44
Q

What is the method of securing the catheter to the skin after gastrotomy placement?

A

Fingertrap pattern

45
Q

What is a limitation of percutaneous endoscopic gastrotomy placement?

A

Does not allow sutured gastropexy for an early and permanent seal between stomach and abdominal wall

46
Q

What is the animal position for percutaneous endoscopic placement?

A

Right lateral recumbency

47
Q

What are the signs of gastric dilatation volvulus (GDV)?

A

Distended abdomen, tachycardia, pale mucous membranes, delayed CRT

48
Q

What is the initial assessment for a dog suspected of GDV?

A

Unwell, unstable patient needing emergency intervention and urgent diagnostics

49
Q

What is the problem list in a case of GDV?

A
  • Recumbent
  • Depressed
  • Large, distended abdomen
  • Pale mucous membranes
  • Delayed CRT
  • Reduced peripheral pulses
  • Tachycardia
  • Tachypnoea
50
Q

What should be done immediately for a dog with suspected GDV?

A

Place large bore catheters and infuse crystalloids while getting abdominal radiographs

51
Q

What type of fluid is associated with pure transudate?

A

Low protein <2.5g/dL and low number of nucleated cells

52
Q

What are the characteristics of modified transudate?

A
  • Total protein <2.5g/dL
  • < 5x 10^3 nucleated cells
  • Mostly macrophages and neutrophils
53
Q

What defines chylous effusion?

A
  • Protein >2.5g/dL
  • > 3 x 10^3 nucleated cells
  • Small lymphocytes mainly
54
Q

What indicates exudate in body cavity effusions?

A
  • Usually >2.5g/dL
  • > 5 x 10^3 nucleated cells
  • Neutrophils mostly
55
Q

What is the initial approach for diagnostic abdominocentesis?

A

Use ultrasound to find a good area for fluid aspiration

56
Q

What is the importance of preserving the left gastroepiploic arteries during splenic mass surgery?

A

To maintain blood supply to the pancreas

57
Q

What is the prognosis for a dog with a ruptured splenic mass?

A

Poor prognosis, likely 1-3 months survival without further treatment

58
Q

What are the four functions of the gastrointestinal tract?

A
  1. Digestion
  2. Absorption
  3. Motility
  4. Secretion
59
Q

What is the purpose of omental patching during enterotomy augmentation?

A

Drape omentum over the enterotomy site

Omental patching helps provide a rich blood supply and promotes healing.

60
Q

What are the four functions of omentum?

A
  • Lymphatic drainage
  • Provides leukocytes
  • Angiogenic activity
  • Absorbs bacteria and particulate matter
61
Q

What are the physical properties of septic peritonitis?

A

Cloudy opaque fluid with vegetable fibers likely visible on cytology, high protein > 5mg/dL

62
Q

What is the first step in managing a cat presenting with megacolon?

A

Address fluid/electrolyte/acid-base abnormalities

This is crucial for stabilizing the patient before further interventions.

63
Q

What are the immediate treatments for managing a cat with megacolon?

A
  • Manually remove feces
  • Administer stool softeners/enemas
  • Administer laxatives
  • Administer prokinetic drugs
  • Ensure access to litter
  • Modify diet
  • IV Abs during enema
64
Q

What blood supply supplies the terminal ileum?

A

Jejunal arteries

65
Q

What physiological benefits come from preserving the ileocolic junction during a subtotal colectomy?

A

Prevents reflux of colonic contents and bacterial overgrowth

Removal may lead to postoperative diarrhea and complications.

66
Q

What is the healing timeline for the colon?

A
  • Lag phase: 1-4 days
  • Proliferative phase: 4-14 days
  • Maturation phase: 17 days +
67
Q

What are the four radiographic signs of intestinal obstruction?

A
  • Multiple loops of gas-dilated small intestine
  • Stacked loops of small intestine
  • Ratio of intestinal diameter to vertebral height
  • Visible radiopaque foreign body
68
Q

What are the two methods for assessing small intestinal viability?

A
  • Color assessment
  • Pulsing arterial blood supply visible
69
Q

What are the layers of the small intestine?

A
  • Inner mucosa
  • Submucosa
  • Muscularis
  • Serosa
70
Q

What are the two methods for augmenting enterotomy closure?

A
  • Omental patching
  • Serosal patching
71
Q

What are the predisposing factors for GDV?

A
  • Large pure breeds
  • Close genetic relatives
  • Anxious/fearful/aggressive dogs
  • Exercising shortly after eating
  • Eating fewer larger meals
  • Longer gastrosplenic ligament
  • Deep-chested breeds
72
Q

What are the underlying causes of small intestinal intussusception?

A
  • Enteritis secondary to intestinal parasitism
  • Viruses
  • Linear foreign bodies
  • Cecal inversion
  • Previous abdominal surgery
  • Neoplasia
73
Q

What are the three circumstances when resection anastomosis is needed to treat intussusception?

A
  • Lesion cannot be reduced
  • Necrosis of bowel
  • Underlying neoplasia suspected
74
Q

What is the justification for using monofilament suture material?

A

Has less chance of wicking bacteria along its length

75
Q

What is enteroplication?

A

Creation of planned adhesions of bowel loops to avoid kinking/sharp bends

Involves suturing loops of intestines together.

76
Q

What are the diagnostic tests for septic peritonitis?

A
  • Increasing abdominal free fluid
  • Abdominal fluid aspiration and analysis
  • Lactate and glucose levels in abdominal fluid
  • Blood tests for increasing CRP
  • Clinical signs like pyrexia or hypothermia
77
Q

What are the SIRS criteria for cats?

A
  • HR >225
  • RR >40
  • WBCs >19500 or <5000
  • Band neuts >5%
  • Temp >39.7 or <37.8
78
Q

What are the SIRS criteria for dogs?

A
  • HR >120
  • RR >20
  • Temp >39.2 or <38.1
  • WBC >18000 or <5000