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-10 Flashcards

1
Q

IAW TC 3-04.33, what are the flying hour requirements for an active duty, RL1, Non-rated crewmember (NCM)?

A

24 semi-annual hours, 5 NVG hours

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2
Q

A NCM is uncurrent in the aircraft after ______ days since their last flight

A

90

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3
Q

Flying status will be terminated and flight pay will stop if:

A
  • Crewmember is reassigned (PCS) to a new unit or activity.
  • Crewmember does not have a current and valid flight medical examination (DA Form 4186).
  • Crewmember fails to complete all Annual Training Program (ATP) requirements.
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4
Q

The NCM is required to turn in their Flight Records at a new duty station within ______.

A

14 calendar days after they sign into the unit or placement on flight status.

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5
Q

IAW AR 95-1, seat belts must be worn in the aircraft during what events?

A

Landing, Takeoff, Turbulance

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6
Q

To be considered aircraft current, NCMs may participate in a flight while performing crew duties in any H-60 they are qualified

A

True

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7
Q

Proper wearing of fire-resistant flight clothing includes

A

Collars up and pant legs bloused. Sleeves rolled down and the use of fire resistant flying gloves.

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8
Q

All personnel aboard Army single engine or multi-engine aircraft that do not have single engine
flight capability that are flown beyond gliding distance of land, will

A

Wear life preservers

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9
Q

Currency is defined as ________ for water egress training

A

4 years

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10
Q

All DD Forms 365–4 in the aircraft weight and balance file and all duplicate DD Forms 365–4 in the aircraft will be checked for accuracy in accordance with the criteria established in TM 55–1500–342–23 at least every

A

90 days

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11
Q

Flying time starts when a helicopter

A

lifts off the ground

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12
Q

Which of the following describes Hypemic Hypoxia?

A

Caused by a reduction in the bloods oxygen carrying capacity.

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13
Q

Which type of hypoxia occurs when there is an interference with the use of oxygen by body tissues?

A

Histotoxic hypoxia

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14
Q

Crewmembers that consume Non-Alcoholic beer are prohibited from performing flight duties for

A

12 hours

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15
Q

To avoid over pressurization of the middle ear, crewmembers should never attempt the Valsalva maneuver during ascent (climb).

A

False

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16
Q

What is the first likely sign of hypoxia?

A

Poor Judgement

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17
Q

AR 40-8 authorizes crewmembers to be a regular blood donor (greater than 2 times during a year).

A

False

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18
Q

Ginseng restricts crewmembers from flight duties for a period of _____ hours after consumption.

A

24 hours

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19
Q

Aircrews will be restricted from flying for a minimum of ______ hours following an immunization with no adverse reactions.

A

12

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20
Q

Aircrew will be restricted from flying duty for ____ hours after general, spinal, or epidural anesthesia
and for a minimum of ____ hours after local or regional anesthesia, to include dental.

A

48, 12

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21
Q

All supplements, herbal and dietary aids and preparations, and performance enhancers are

A

Prohibited unless cleared by the flight surgeon or APA in consultation with applicable APLs

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22
Q

Aircrew will not perform aviation duties for a minimum of

A

12 hours after the last drink consumed and until no residual effects remain

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23
Q

Hypoxic hypoxia occurs when there is

A

Not enough oxygen in the air

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24
Q

The circulatory system and, to a lesser degree, the respiratory system provide some defense against hypoxia at the compensatory stage. Pulse rate, systolic blood pressure, circulation rate, and cardiac output increase. Respiration increases in depth and sometimes in rate. This stage of Hypoxic Hypoxia is known as

A

Compensatory

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25
Q

How long must a crewmember wait prior to servicing the main engines after shutdown?

A

20 minutes

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26
Q

IAW the operator’s manual, dual hearing protection is required when:

A

Firing the window guns
Flight will exceed 100 minutes in a 24-hour period
Airspeed is above 120 KIAS

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27
Q

The backup hydraulic pump takes approximately _____ seconds to recharge the APU accumulator to normal operating limits.

A

90

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28
Q

Which of the following oils are authorized for use in the main engines IAW the operator’s manual

A

MIL-PRF-23699 and MIL-PRF-7808

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29
Q

Which radios are operable with only battery power available?

A

1 FM and UHF

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30
Q

Servicing platforms are capable of supporting _____lbs of static weight IAW the operator’s manual.

A

250

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31
Q

How long may the main transmission gearbox run without oil?

A

30 minutes

32
Q

Temporary changes in basic weight for the aircraft may be on the DA Form 2408-13 series for a period NOT to exceed______.

A

90 days

33
Q

What are the two publications required in the aircraft during flights?

A

Operator’s manual and checklist

34
Q

With the main rotor static, the back-up hydraulic pump’s hot-weather operating limit at -54C to 32C is:

A

Unlimited

35
Q

The refuel servicing system restricts fuel flow to ______ during pressure refueling and ______ during closed-circuit refueling.

A

55 psi, 15 psi

36
Q

What is the definition of the emergency term LAND AS SOON AS PRACTICABLE?

A

Landing at a suitable landing area, the primary consideration is urgency of the emergency

37
Q

Which of the following is the definition of a WARNING IAW the operator’s manual?

A

A procedure or practice, which if not correctly followed, could result in personal injury or death

38
Q

If required, the searchlight must be extended prior to reaching a max forward airspeed of______ KIAS

A

100

39
Q

IAW the operator’s manual, what are the steps for Emergency Engine Shutdown

A

ENG power control lever(s)-off
ENG fuel Sys Selector(s)-off
Fuel boost pump control switch(s)-off

40
Q

The #1 or #2 fuel low light and master caution warning light flashes with approximately ______ remaining in each tank

A

172 lbs

41
Q

What are the restraint criteria (in G force) for internal loads

A

Forward: 12 Gs; Rear: 3 Gs; Lateral: 8 Gs; Vertical: 3 Gs

42
Q

The operating limitation for the APU at ambient temperatures of 43°C or above, with engines and rotor system operating is:

A

30 minutes

43
Q

The cargo floor tie-down rings can restrain _________ lbs of load in any direction

A

5000

44
Q

IAW the operator manual, adjusting the manual or emergency vertical release lever requires _______ lbs in the pilot/copilot seat.

A

150

45
Q

What are the minimum parking requirements used to secure the helicopter for temporary periods?

A

Gust lock engaged, parking brakes set, landing gear chocked, and tail wheel lock pin engaged.

46
Q

In case of a fire when AC electrical power is NOT applied, the ____ must be discharged. Fire extinguisher agent CANNOT be discharged into the _____ compartment

A

Reserve fire extinguisher, #2 engine

47
Q

The oil tank is an integral part of the engine. Tank capacity is

A

7 qts

48
Q

The hydraulic reservoir holds

A

1 qt

49
Q

The use of rain repellent on the windshields will improve visibility above speeds of 50 KIAS

A

True

50
Q

Both main fuel tanks may be serviced simultaneously through pressure refueling or closed circuit refueling

A

True

51
Q

Both main fuel tanks may be serviced simultaneously through pressure refueling or closed circuit refueling

A

False

52
Q

Counterweight bags used for NVG operations must not exceed _____ in weight

A

22 oz

53
Q

Fading color and shades is what kind of monocular cue

A

Aerial Perspective

54
Q

What occurs when aircrews are familiar with large/wide runways and they may perceive the distance of a small/narrow runway as being farther away than their actual position?

A

Size-distance illusion

55
Q

Comparing an object of known size to an object of unknown size, is which monocular cue?

A

Terrestrial association

56
Q

IAW TC 3-04.93, dark adaptation for optimal night vision with minimal lighting conditions is ______

A

30-45 minutes

57
Q

Defects indicating instability of the image intensifier deadlines the NVG’s immediately, and are this type of condition:

A

Operational defects

58
Q

During low levels of light (dawn and dusk/full moon light), individuals utilize _______ vision

A

Mesopic

59
Q

Which of the following is a cosmetic blemish for the ANVIS?

A

Bright Spots

60
Q

The primary battery port on the ANVIS battery pack is located on the right side

A

True

61
Q

The ability to detect natural or manmade features at night depends primarily on

A

Size, shape, contract, and effective scanning technique

62
Q

What is the primary source of natural light at night.

A

Moon

63
Q

The following conditions indicate restricted visibility

A
  • Loss of celestial lights and loss of ground lights
  • Reduced ambient light levels and visual acuity
  • Scintillation
64
Q

Electrons are accelerated away from the photocathode to the ___ via an electrical field produced by the power supply

A

Microchannel plate

65
Q

___ reduces the voltage to the photocathode when exposed to sudden bright light sources.

A

Bright Source Protection (BSP)

66
Q

Communicate Effectively and Timely is a ___ of Aircrew Coordination?

A

Principle

67
Q

Crewmembers must anticipate the need to provide information or warnings during critical phases of flight best defines which aircrew coordination quality

A

Offer Assistance

68
Q

To ensure effective and well-coordinated actions in the aircraft, all crewmembers must be informed of decisions, movement of crew and aircraft, and individual actions best defines which aircrew coordination quality

A

Announce and acknowledge decisions and actions

69
Q

A crewmember will provide assistance, information, or feedback in response to another crewmember best defines which aircrew coordination quality

A

Offer assistance

70
Q

How many principles does the aircrew coordination program contain

A

4

71
Q

The pilot-in-command and the co-pilot must actively participate in the mission planning process to ensure a common understanding of mission intent and operational sequence

A

False

72
Q

This description “A crewmember will provide assistance, information, or feedback in response to another crewmember” is known as

A

Offer Assistance

73
Q

Define Standard Crew Terminology

A

crews should use words or phrases that are understood by all participants. They must use clear, concise terms that can be easily understood and complied with in an environment full of distractions. Multiple terms with the same meaning should be avoided.

74
Q

Define Cease Fire

A

Command to Stop Firing and Continue to track

75
Q

Define Abort

A

Terminate a preplanned maneuver

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