10-20-14 Histology & Anatomy Flashcards

1
Q

Vasculogenesis

A
  • The generation of blood vessels from hemangioblasts, which come from blood islands
  • Forms the major vessels
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2
Q

Angiogenesis

A

The formation of vessels from existing vessels

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3
Q

Early vasculogenesis occurs when?

A

Week 3

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4
Q

Early vasculogenesis occurs where?

A

Blood islands of yolk sac (Splanchnic Mesoderm)

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5
Q

After vasculogenesis in splanchnic mesoderm, the vasculogenesis begins occuring in ______

A

lateral plate mesoderm (the edges of the embryo)

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6
Q

Blood islands have a collection of what type of cells?

A

Hemangioblasts

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7
Q

The blood islands form tubes. The cells on the inside are ______

A

hemangioblasts, they become RBCs and WBCs

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8
Q

The outside cells of the tubes made by blood islands become ______

A

Endothelial cells

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9
Q

FGF2 does what?

A

Tells primitive mesodermal cells to undergo mitosis and become hemangioblasts

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10
Q

VEGF does what?

A

Signals the development of hemangioblasts

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11
Q

ANG1 does what

A

Recruits cells that can become smooth muscle cells to form the wall of the endothelial tube

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12
Q

ANG2 does what

A

Punches a hole in the wall of the endothelial tube to allow something to grow out of it, by causing the cells to lose contact with the matrix

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13
Q

Summarize relationship of VEGF and ANG1 & ANG2

A
  • VEGF - vasculogenesis to lay down a basic bed of vascular tissue
  • ANG1&2- cause the existing tissue to become a more complex pattern
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14
Q

Maturation and Remodeling of vasculature is regulated by what things besides VEGF & ANG1/2

A
  • PDGF
  • TGF-Beta
  • SHH
    • Induces expression of VEGF (mesoderm)
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15
Q

ANG2 has a potential role in the treatment of _____

A

Cancer

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16
Q

AGM

A

Aorta

Gonad

mesonephros

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17
Q

AGM cells eventually colonize the

A
  • ​Liver
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18
Q

In months 2-7 the embryonic liver is the

A
  • major hematopoietic organ
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19
Q

Hematopoiesis moves from the liver to ____ at month ___

A
  • ​Liver to bone marrow
  • month 7
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20
Q

Hemangioma

A

Abnormally dense collection of capillary vessels

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21
Q

Naevus flammeus aka

A

Port wine stain

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22
Q

Naevus flammeus is caused by ____

A

superficial and deep dilated capillaries in the skin

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23
Q

Tumor angiogenesis occurs when tumors secrete their own ____

A

VEGF

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24
Q

The heart starts out as ____

A

two long tubes and folds in on itself

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25
Endocardium
inner endothelial lining/subendothelial connective tissue
26
Myocardium
The muscle Contracts simultaneously has conductive fibers
27
Epicardium
The outer layer of the heart, reduces friction of heart against other surfaces
28
3 Types of Cardiocytes
1. Contractile 2. Myoendocrine 3. Nodal
29
ANF (Atrial Natriuretic factor) does what
* Tells kidneys to * Increase urine output (diuresis) * Excrete more Na * Decreases blood volume so heart doesn't have to work as hard
30
Nodal cells do what?
regulate contraction of the heart
31
Gap junctions allow the heart to do what?
Contract as a unit
32
Intercalated discs are made up of what three types of adhering junctions?
Fascia Adherens - anchoring sites for actin Macula Adherens - Desmosomes - stop separation during contraction Gap junctions - allow APs to spread by allowing ions to pass between cells
33
Tunica Externa/Adventitia
* loose CT that contains elastic & collagen fibers * anchors vessels to other tissues
34
Tunica Media
* ​composed of circularly arranged layers of smooth muscle cells * Vasoconstriction * Vasodilation
35
Tunica Intima/Interna
* Composed of endothelium & subendothelial layer * internal elastic lamina
36
Conducting Arteries
* Receive high pressure blood from heart * Provide continuous circulation, even though heart pumps intermittently * Distend - systole, Recoil - diastole
37
Muscular/Distributing Arteries
* Allows selective distribution of blood to different organs as needed
38
Describe the pathway of an electrical impulse in the heart
39
Difference between Purkinje Fibers and myocardium
Purkinje fibers are much larger & stain more lightly
40
Arterioles AKA
Resistance vessels
41
Arterioles are the major determinants of _____ \_\_\_\_ \_\_\_\_\_\_
Systemic blood pressure
42
How do arterioles regulate the distribution of blood to different capillary beds?
vasoconstrictions/vasodilation
43
Arterioles have a specific structural adaptation, what is it?
walls with circularly arranged smooth muscle
44
What is the order of structures in a microvascular bed of tissue?
Capillaries, arterioles, post capillary venules, and veins
45
Describe the blood flow in a "true capillary"
Intermittent blood flow
46
Describe the flow of blood in the slightly larger "preferential/thoroughfare channels" of a capillary bed
continuous blood flow
47
What "tunica" do capillaries contain
only tunica intima - a basement membrane and endothelium only
48
Capillaries are large enough for how many RBCs to flow through?
1, making them also thin enough for gas diffusion
49
Where are continuous capillaries found?
Brain
50
Describe the lining of the continuous capillaries
endothelium with tight junctions, basal lamina with pericytes
51
Describe fenestrated capillaries and their locations
contain pores, found in GI & kidneys
52
Describe sinusoid capillaries
discontinuous, incomplete endothelial lining and basal lamina, **_gaps and holes_** between and within endothelial cells
53
Tissues containing sinusoid capillaries
Liver and spleen
54
A big difference between veins and arteries
Veins have thinner walls, therefore wider lumen
55
What is the most common site for diapedesis?
postcapillary venules
56
Why are veins able to hold so much blood relative to their own volume?
distensibility of their walls
57
How is the tunica media different in a vein than an artery?
It is thinner in a vein
58
Something veins have that is a big deal
valves - preventing the reflux of blood
59
What causes varicose veins?
improper closing of valves
60
Lymphatic vessels remove fluid accumulated where?
Interstitial spaces
61
Lymphatic vessels transport _____ which are \_\_\_\_\_\_
chylomicrons, which are lipid-containing particles
62
Describe the wall of a lymphatic capillary
endothelium, lacking a complete basal lamina
63
Interestingly only - where are lymphatic capillaries NOT found?
Cartilage, bone, epithelia, CNS & placenta
64
Describe intrinsic contraction of lymph
when vessels expand, smooth muscle in the wall contracts. This all happens in segments separated by valves.
65
Describe extrinsic contraction of lymph vessels
surrounding muscles contract, arterial pulsations, compression of tissues by forces outside of the body cause pumping
66
Lymphedema
defective lymph transport due to abnormal vessels/damaged lymph vessels
67
Filariasis/Elephantiasis
Parasitic infection transmitted via mosquitos - legs and genitals
68
Chylous Ascites
accumulation of high fat containing fluid (chyle) in abdomen/thorax. Due to rauma, obstruction or abnormal development
69
How do endothelial cells regulate blood flow?
NO & prostacyclin
70
What do NO & prostacyclin do in endothelial cells?
relax smooth muscle
71
Prostacyclin has what effect on platelets?
prevents adhesion and clumping leading to blood clotting
72
Endothelin 1 is a very potent _____ \_\_\_\_\_\_
Vasoconstrictor peptide
73
Describe atherosclerosis
Hardening of walls of arteries due to plaques of lipds, cells, CT deposited in the tunica intima
74
What arteries is atherosclerosis frequently seen in?
* Arteries sustaining higher BP. It does not affect veins. * Causes MI, Stroke, & ischemic gangrene
75
Atherosclerosis is associated with a genetic defect in lipoprotein metabolism and results in MI in patients younger than what age?
Age 20
76
Which of the following is not a component of the tunica intima of a muscular artery? 1. Internal Elastic Lamina 2. Simple Squamous Epithelia 3. Smooth Muscle 4. Subendothelial CT 5. All of the above
1 & 4 are true, but Smooth Muscle is found in the Tunica Media according to slide 32.
77
Why is blood considered a connective tissue?
Because it contains cells, a liquid ground substance, and dissolved proteins.
78
Percentage of RBCs in blood = \_\_\_\_\_
Hematocrit
79
What is the buffy coat?
The leukocyte and platelet portion of blood, less than 1% of the blood
80
What part of the blood makes up the plasma?
The fluid component
81
What is plasma made up of?
water, proteins, & other solutes
82
What is plasma called when the proteins are removed from it?
serum
83
What are the proteins in plasma?
* Albumin * Globulins * Fibrinogen * Regulatory Proteins - Primarily enzymes and hormones
84
What plasma protein is involved in clotting?
Fibrinogen
85
Aside from water what is the most abundant material in plasma?
plasma proteins
86
Albumin is important in maintaining what?
Oncotic pressure of the blood - keep the fluid from leaking out into the tissues.
87
Where is albumin concentration highest?
ICF
88
What sorts of small molecules does albumin carry?
bilirubin, Ca, progesterone, drugs
89
Decreased albumin levels might indicate what?
liver disease
90
Decreased serum albumin is also indicative of _____ & \_\_\_\_\_
kidney disease & malnutrition
91
Fibrinogen is converted into ____ when there is a need for clotting
Long, insoluble strands of fibrin
92
What do globulins do?
Transport things in the blood that are part of regulatory/immune function in the blood
93
Gamma-globulins are -\_\_\_\_
immunoglobulins/antibodies
94
Alpha & beta globulins do what?
transport things in the blood to help regulate & perform immune function in the blood
95
What are the formed elements?
* Erythrocytes 99% * Leukocytes 0.01% * Platelets 1%
96
Fx. of erythrocytes
transport respiratory gases in the blood
97
Fx. of leukocytes
defend against pathogens
98
Platelets come from
megakaryocytes
99
Why don't RBCs have nuclei?
Lack of nucleus allows them to carry respiratory gasses more efficiently
100
Why are erythrocytes shaped so dinstinctively?
Their shape allows them to carry oxygen and slide through little tiny capillaries
101
What are the structural components of an erythrocyte?
plasma membrane, underlying cytoskeleton, hemoglobin & and some glycolytic enzymes
102
Erythrocyte membrane has glycophorin, what is the fx. of glycophorin?
prevents the RBC from sticking to endothelial walls
103
What is the fx. of the ion transporter in the RBC membrane?
It allows HCO3- to be exchanged for Cl-, releasing CO2 in the lungs
104
What is spectrin
Allows the erythrocyte to maintain its biconcave shape, which allows the erythrocyte to maintain its proper function
105
What is elliptocytosis?
AD, Oval shaped RBCs. Defective spectrin self-association. Results in Anemia, jaundice & splenomegaly
106
What is spherocytosis?
AD, Deficiency in Spectrin, results in jaundice, anemia, splenomegaly. tx. is splenectomy
107
What is polychromasia?
When bone marrow cells secrete immature RBCs
108
Approximately how many hemoglobin are on 1 erythrocyte?
280 million
109
Each hemoglobin has 2 alpha and 2 beta chains, with 4 total heme molecules. How many O2 molecules can one hemoglobin bind?
4 O2 molecules
110
Why is oxygen binding fairly weak?
To allow rapid attachment and detachment of oxygen
111
Describe sickle cell anemia
Mutation in the b-globin chain where glutamic acid is replaced with valine. THis causes improper shape - the sickle shape
112
What happens with sickle cell anemia?
RBCs get stuck and cut of oxygen supply to tissue
113
Thalassemia syndromes
* a-globulin - a-thalassemia * hydrops fetalis - usually fatal * b-globulin - b-thalassemia * b-thalassemia major - dependent on transplant
114
Describe Anemia
quantity of erythrocytes is lower than it should be. Whether not enough are synthesized or not enough survive
115
Describe polycythemia
too many erythrocytes, blood becomes to thick and viscous
116
Congenital hemolytic anemia
RBCs are too fragile, due to an abnormal plasma membrane
117
Pernicious anemia
chronic, caused by impaired abosrption of B-12 in gut, due to lack of intrinsic factor (IF).
118
What is something required in RBC synthesis?
Vitamin B12
119
Iron deficiency anemia
caused by excessive menstrual bleeding, ulcers & colon cancer
120
Aplastic anemia
Decreased RBC & heme synthesis in bone marrow
121
Compensatory polycythemia
* Due to chronic hypoxia * Long term smoking and tobacco use
122
Erythrocytosis
increase in erythrocyte production due to increased erythropoietin
123
polycythemia vera
RBC growth in red marrow is not regulated. RBCs continue to grow even in absence of EPO
124
EPO =
Erythropoietin
125
Blood doping
* increased athletic performance due to increased amount of RBCs * Causes more viscous blood
126
Describe the significance of fetal Hb
It has a higher affinity for oxygen, so the O2 in oxygenated blood in the placenta is pulled to the fetus
127
Erythroblastosis Fetalis (HDN) Parameters
* Rh- mom, Rh+ fetus -\> Mom gains antibodies against the Rh+ RBCs after first pregnancy with baby who is Rh+. * 1st baby not affected
128
How does Rh- mom respond to second Rh+ pregnancy?
* The mom's IGG antibodies can cross placental barrier and agglutinate baby's RBCs, causing anemia & ultimately killing fetal RBCs
129
What effect does Erythroblastosis Fetalis have on the baby's CV system?
CV system fails because it has to work to hard to supply the fetus with blood, secondary to anemia
130
Tx. of Erythroblastosis Fetalis
Mom is given Rhogam (anti-D globulin), soon after 1st baby is delivered
131
How does the anti-D globulin work to prevent erythroblastosis fetalis?
masks antigenic sits on the fetal RBCs that may have leaked into mom's blood from 1st Rh+ baby.
132
Leukocyte classes
1. Granulocytes 2. Agranulocytes
133
Granulocytes contain what types of granules?
Primary - contain lysosomes Secondary cytoplasmic granules - vary depending on cell fx.
134
Agranulocytes have only ______ granules
Primary
135
Leukocytes can leave the bloodstream via
diapedesis
136
What is the mechanism by which WBCs diapedese to CT
Homing mechanism
137
What is leukopenia?
reduced number of WBCs, seen in leukemia
138
Leukocytosis = \_\_\_\_\_\_
elevated WBC count - dehydration, allergy, infection
139
How are WBCs attracted to sites of ifx?
chemotaxis
140
3 types of Granulocytes are?
1. Neutrophils 2. Eosinophils 3. Basophils
141
Neutrophil amount relative to other Granulocytes?
Most abundant-60-70%
142
Why do neutrophils have both primary and secondary granules?
Eliminate opsonized bacteria, regulating inflammatory response
143
Another name for neutrophils
PMNs
144
How are neutrophils able to complete the homing mechanism?
They have specific receptors for integrins, ICAM1&2
145
Neutrophils role regarding bacteria and dead cells?
Remove them/phagocytosis
146
What is special about the nucleus of an eosinophil?
bilobed nucleus
147
What type of infection do eosinophils respond to?
parasitic infections
148
Eosinophils can also reduce the severity of \_\_\_\_\_\_
allergic reactions
149
eosinophils can trigger _____ \_\_\_\_
bronchial asthma
150
Distinguishing characteristics of basophils
granules that contain histamine & heparin
151
Basophils play a role in what type of hypersensitivity reactions?
immediate and delayed
152
What are the types of agranulocytes?
Lymphocytes and monocytes
153
What is special about a lymphocyte nucleus
round nucleus that occupies most of the cell
154
Lymphocytes exist in what tissues?
* Lymph nodes, spleen, * GALT, BALT * little pockets of lymphatic tissue in the GI or Resp. system
155
Two types of lymphocytes
T-cells and B-cells
156
T lymphocytes do what
manage and direct the immune response
157
B lymphocytes do what
Become plasma cells and synthesize antibodies
158
Difference between a monocyte and leukocyte is
Monocyte has much more cytoplasm
159
Shape of nucleus in monocytes
kidney or u-shaped
160
Monocytes can become
tissue macrophages, antigen presentation, clean up cell debris, bacterial phagocytosis
161
Role of selectins in homing and inflammation
THey are bound to endothelial cells and help neutrophils recognize the right spot to adhere to the endothelium
162
How do neutrophils disrupt the endothelial wall
they disrupt the interaction of junction adhesion molecules and vascular endothelial cadherins
163
Describe the "positive feedback system" of homing and inflammation
TNF-a and IL-1 are secreted by EC neutrophils to the endothelium to increase selectin expression and CAMs.
164
Leukocyte adhesion deficiency I &II
* No migration into CT * deficient wound healing * recurring infections * Leukocytosis (increased Leukocytes in blood)
165
Plateltes are derived from \_\_\_\_\_
megakaryocytes
166
Megakaryocytes are controlled by
thrombopoietin
167
thrombopoietin is produced by which organs
kidneys and liver
168
when there is sufficient numbers of platelets, what happens to thrombopoietin?
the platelets degrade it, abolishing the signal to make more platelets
169
Megakaryocytes develop cytoplasmic projections that eventually become
platelets
170
How long does it take to make a platelet
10-12 days
171
What are platelets' role in blood clotting?
they are trapped by the fibrin web to halt blood flow
172
Thrombocytopenia
* A reduced amount of platelets, leads to increased susceptibility to bleeding. * Results in Purpura - small reddish-purple blotches
173
What causes thrombocytopenia
decreased production of platelets, increased platelet destruction, or drugs - penicillin, sulfonamides, digoxin
174
Superior THoracic Aperture is also called
THoracic inlet
175
Thoracic outlet is where
the inferior portion of the ribcage
176
Superior thoracic aperture is bounded by \_\_\_\_
cervical vertebrae, 1st rib, manubrium
177
What goes through the superior thoracic aperture?
Esophagus
178
What goes through the inferior thoracic diaphragm?
IVC,
179
Bones we need to know
12 thoracic vertebrae, sternum ribs
180
The sternum is made up of how many separate bones
3 1. Manubrium 2. Body of Sternum 3. Xiphoid Process
181
What is the part of the sternum that turns?
Sternal angle
182
Bottom half of the seventh costal process is where?
xiphoid process
183
True ribs
Vertebrocostal 1st-7th ribs All the way around from the back and meet up with their own cartilage
184
False Ribs
Vertebrochondral ribs 8,9,10 Attach to the cartilage of Rib 7
185
Floating ribs
Vertebral Ribs 11 & 12
186
Crest of head on a rib is between ____ and \_\_\_\_
Superior facet and inferior facet
187
What is the only reason there is a neck on a rib?
Because there is a tubercle, Head - space - tubercle
188
Where is the rib most commonly fractured
costal angle
189
what goes in the costal groove
Nerve, Artery, Vein
190
The head meets up with what?
Articular facet on body of thoracic vertebrae
191
Atypical ribs
1st rib - flat broad, head neck tubercle, small bump - scalene tubercle - attachment site for anterior scalene muscle ## Footnote 2nd rib - has the tuberosity for the serratus ant. muscle (part of its origin) 11&12 - have no tubercle, therefore no neck
192
Vein is _____ to anterior scalene muscle on first rib
anterior
193
Groove for sublcavian artery on 1st rib is _____ to subclavian vein
Posterior
194
What does the serratus anterior attach to on the second rib?
tuberosity for serratus anterior muscle
195
What attaches to the scalene tubercle?
anterior scalene m.
196
How many facets are on each of ribs 10-12?
1
197
Supernumerary ribs in the cervical ribs can cause what?
Thoracic outlet syndrome
198
Where does a supernumerary rib come from?
An extremely overdeveloped costal element of a thoracic vertebrae
199
Sternal joints
Symphysis type cartilaginous
200
Between body of sternum and xiphoid process what type of joint exists?
synchondrosis
201
What type of joint exists between manumbrium and body of sternum?
symphysis
202
Ligament that holds ribs to sternum
Anterior & posterior radiate sternocostal ligaments
203
Costovertebral joints
Planar synovial joints Radiate ligament intraarticular ligament
204
A rib meets up with the inferior costal demifacet of which vertebra?
The rib just above it
205
Which transverse process does a rib meet up with?
Its own segental number
206
A rib attaches to the superior costal demifacet of which vertebra?
The vertebra at its own level
207
Where does the superior costotransverse ligament come from?
one vertebra up, for rib 6 it would come from T5
208
Lateral costotransverse ligament comes from where?
transverse process of vertebra to rib of same level
209
How do ribs move?
Bucket handle movement on the sides Pump handle movement in front
210
Breathing in does what to the thoracic space?
Increases it
211
Breathing out does what to the thoracic space
decreases it
212
Costcochondral joint is the junction of what?
rib and cartilage
213
Rib dislocation
Rib cartilage moves away from sternum
214
Separation of rib = \_\_\_\_
rib moves away from cartilage
215
Interchondral joints
Ribs 7-9 meet = planar synovial joint
216
Names of rib muscles
External, Internal, innermost intercostal muscles
217
Innervation of intercostal muscles
intercostal nerves
218
Where do external intercostal muscles become membranous?
anteriorly
219
Where do internal intercostal muscles become membranous
Posteriorly
220
Internal intercostal muscles move which direction in relation to the external intercostal muscles?
perpendicularly
221
What do external intercostal muscles do?
Elevate ribs, (bucket and pump handle motion) Inspiration
222
Internal intercostal muscles fx.
depress ribs, inspiration
223
Thoracentesis
Sticking a needle in between two ribs, not right next to one though
224
Thorascopy
Sticking a camera in between ribs
225
Transverse thoracic muscle
depresses ribs
226
Subcostal muscles
always in posterior thoracic wall goes more than one rib space Intercostal nerves
227
228