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Cardiopulmonary 1 > 10-20-14 Histology & Anatomy > Flashcards

10-20-14 Histology & Anatomy Flashcards

1
Q

Vasculogenesis

A
  • The generation of blood vessels from hemangioblasts, which come from blood islands
  • Forms the major vessels
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2
Q

Angiogenesis

A

The formation of vessels from existing vessels

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3
Q

Early vasculogenesis occurs when?

A

Week 3

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4
Q

Early vasculogenesis occurs where?

A

Blood islands of yolk sac (Splanchnic Mesoderm)

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5
Q

After vasculogenesis in splanchnic mesoderm, the vasculogenesis begins occuring in ______

A

lateral plate mesoderm (the edges of the embryo)

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6
Q

Blood islands have a collection of what type of cells?

A

Hemangioblasts

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7
Q

The blood islands form tubes. The cells on the inside are ______

A

hemangioblasts, they become RBCs and WBCs

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8
Q

The outside cells of the tubes made by blood islands become ______

A

Endothelial cells

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9
Q

FGF2 does what?

A

Tells primitive mesodermal cells to undergo mitosis and become hemangioblasts

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10
Q

VEGF does what?

A

Signals the development of hemangioblasts

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11
Q

ANG1 does what

A

Recruits cells that can become smooth muscle cells to form the wall of the endothelial tube

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12
Q

ANG2 does what

A

Punches a hole in the wall of the endothelial tube to allow something to grow out of it, by causing the cells to lose contact with the matrix

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13
Q

Summarize relationship of VEGF and ANG1 & ANG2

A
  • VEGF - vasculogenesis to lay down a basic bed of vascular tissue
  • ANG1&2- cause the existing tissue to become a more complex pattern
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14
Q

Maturation and Remodeling of vasculature is regulated by what things besides VEGF & ANG1/2

A
  • PDGF
  • TGF-Beta
  • SHH
    • Induces expression of VEGF (mesoderm)
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15
Q

ANG2 has a potential role in the treatment of _____

A

Cancer

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16
Q

AGM

A

Aorta

Gonad

mesonephros

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17
Q

AGM cells eventually colonize the

A
  • ​Liver
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18
Q

In months 2-7 the embryonic liver is the

A
  • major hematopoietic organ
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19
Q

Hematopoiesis moves from the liver to ____ at month ___

A
  • ​Liver to bone marrow
  • month 7
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20
Q

Hemangioma

A

Abnormally dense collection of capillary vessels

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21
Q

Naevus flammeus aka

A

Port wine stain

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22
Q

Naevus flammeus is caused by ____

A

superficial and deep dilated capillaries in the skin

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23
Q

Tumor angiogenesis occurs when tumors secrete their own ____

A

VEGF

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24
Q

The heart starts out as ____

A

two long tubes and folds in on itself

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25
Q

Endocardium

A

inner endothelial lining/subendothelial connective tissue

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26
Q

Myocardium

A

The muscle
Contracts simultaneously
has conductive fibers

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27
Q

Epicardium

A

The outer layer of the heart, reduces friction of heart against other surfaces

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28
Q

3 Types of Cardiocytes

A
  1. Contractile
  2. Myoendocrine
  3. Nodal
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29
Q

ANF (Atrial Natriuretic factor) does what

A
  • Tells kidneys to
    • Increase urine output (diuresis)
    • Excrete more Na
  • Decreases blood volume so heart doesn’t have to work as hard
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30
Q

Nodal cells do what?

A

regulate contraction of the heart

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31
Q

Gap junctions allow the heart to do what?

A

Contract as a unit

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32
Q

Intercalated discs are made up of what three types of adhering junctions?

A

Fascia Adherens - anchoring sites for actin

Macula Adherens - Desmosomes - stop separation during contraction

Gap junctions - allow APs to spread by allowing ions to pass between cells

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33
Q

Tunica Externa/Adventitia

A
  • loose CT that contains elastic & collagen fibers
  • anchors vessels to other tissues
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34
Q

Tunica Media

A
  • ​composed of circularly arranged layers of smooth muscle cells
  • Vasoconstriction
  • Vasodilation
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35
Q

Tunica Intima/Interna

A
  • Composed of endothelium & subendothelial layer
  • internal elastic lamina
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36
Q

Conducting Arteries

A
  • Receive high pressure blood from heart
  • Provide continuous circulation, even though heart pumps intermittently
  • Distend - systole, Recoil - diastole
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37
Q

Muscular/Distributing Arteries

A
  • Allows selective distribution of blood to different organs as needed
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38
Q

Describe the pathway of an electrical impulse in the heart

A
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39
Q

Difference between Purkinje Fibers and myocardium

A

Purkinje fibers are much larger & stain more lightly

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40
Q

Arterioles AKA

A

Resistance vessels

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41
Q

Arterioles are the major determinants of _____ ____ ______

A

Systemic blood pressure

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42
Q

How do arterioles regulate the distribution of blood to different capillary beds?

A

vasoconstrictions/vasodilation

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43
Q

Arterioles have a specific structural adaptation, what is it?

A

walls with circularly arranged smooth muscle

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44
Q

What is the order of structures in a microvascular bed of tissue?

A

Capillaries, arterioles, post capillary venules, and veins

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45
Q

Describe the blood flow in a “true capillary”

A

Intermittent blood flow

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46
Q

Describe the flow of blood in the slightly larger “preferential/thoroughfare channels” of a capillary bed

A

continuous blood flow

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47
Q

What “tunica” do capillaries contain

A

only tunica intima - a basement membrane and endothelium only

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48
Q

Capillaries are large enough for how many RBCs to flow through?

A

1, making them also thin enough for gas diffusion

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49
Q

Where are continuous capillaries found?

A

Brain

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50
Q

Describe the lining of the continuous capillaries

A

endothelium with tight junctions, basal lamina with pericytes

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51
Q

Describe fenestrated capillaries and their locations

A

contain pores, found in GI & kidneys

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52
Q

Describe sinusoid capillaries

A

discontinuous, incomplete endothelial lining and basal lamina, gaps and holes between and within endothelial cells

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53
Q

Tissues containing sinusoid capillaries

A

Liver and spleen

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54
Q

A big difference between veins and arteries

A

Veins have thinner walls, therefore wider lumen

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55
Q

What is the most common site for diapedesis?

A

postcapillary venules

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56
Q

Why are veins able to hold so much blood relative to their own volume?

A

distensibility of their walls

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57
Q

How is the tunica media different in a vein than an artery?

A

It is thinner in a vein

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58
Q

Something veins have that is a big deal

A

valves - preventing the reflux of blood

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59
Q

What causes varicose veins?

A

improper closing of valves

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60
Q

Lymphatic vessels remove fluid accumulated where?

A

Interstitial spaces

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61
Q

Lymphatic vessels transport _____ which are ______

A

chylomicrons, which are lipid-containing particles

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62
Q

Describe the wall of a lymphatic capillary

A

endothelium, lacking a complete basal lamina

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63
Q

Interestingly only - where are lymphatic capillaries NOT found?

A

Cartilage, bone, epithelia, CNS & placenta

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64
Q

Describe intrinsic contraction of lymph

A

when vessels expand, smooth muscle in the wall contracts. This all happens in segments separated by valves.

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65
Q

Describe extrinsic contraction of lymph vessels

A

surrounding muscles contract, arterial pulsations, compression of tissues by forces outside of the body cause pumping

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66
Q

Lymphedema

A

defective lymph transport due to abnormal vessels/damaged lymph vessels

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67
Q

Filariasis/Elephantiasis

A

Parasitic infection transmitted via mosquitos - legs and genitals

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68
Q

Chylous Ascites

A

accumulation of high fat containing fluid (chyle) in abdomen/thorax. Due to rauma, obstruction or abnormal development

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69
Q

How do endothelial cells regulate blood flow?

A

NO & prostacyclin

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70
Q

What do NO & prostacyclin do in endothelial cells?

A

relax smooth muscle

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71
Q

Prostacyclin has what effect on platelets?

A

prevents adhesion and clumping leading to blood clotting

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72
Q

Endothelin 1 is a very potent _____ ______

A

Vasoconstrictor peptide

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73
Q

Describe atherosclerosis

A

Hardening of walls of arteries due to plaques of lipds, cells, CT deposited in the tunica intima

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74
Q

What arteries is atherosclerosis frequently seen in?

A
  • Arteries sustaining higher BP. It does not affect veins.
  • Causes MI, Stroke, & ischemic gangrene
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75
Q

Atherosclerosis is associated with a genetic defect in lipoprotein metabolism and results in MI in patients younger than what age?

A

Age 20

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76
Q

Which of the following is not a component of the tunica intima of a muscular artery?

  1. Internal Elastic Lamina
  2. Simple Squamous Epithelia
  3. Smooth Muscle
  4. Subendothelial CT
  5. All of the above
A

1 & 4 are true, but Smooth Muscle is found in the Tunica Media according to slide 32.

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77
Q

Why is blood considered a connective tissue?

A

Because it contains cells, a liquid ground substance, and dissolved proteins.

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78
Q

Percentage of RBCs in blood = _____

A

Hematocrit

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79
Q

What is the buffy coat?

A

The leukocyte and platelet portion of blood, less than 1% of the blood

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80
Q

What part of the blood makes up the plasma?

A

The fluid component

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81
Q

What is plasma made up of?

A

water, proteins, & other solutes

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82
Q

What is plasma called when the proteins are removed from it?

A

serum

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83
Q

What are the proteins in plasma?

A
  • Albumin
  • Globulins
  • Fibrinogen
  • Regulatory Proteins - Primarily enzymes and hormones
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84
Q

What plasma protein is involved in clotting?

A

Fibrinogen

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85
Q

Aside from water what is the most abundant material in plasma?

A

plasma proteins

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86
Q

Albumin is important in maintaining what?

A

Oncotic pressure of the blood - keep the fluid from leaking out into the tissues.

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87
Q

Where is albumin concentration highest?

A

ICF

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88
Q

What sorts of small molecules does albumin carry?

A

bilirubin, Ca, progesterone, drugs

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89
Q

Decreased albumin levels might indicate what?

A

liver disease

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90
Q

Decreased serum albumin is also indicative of _____ & _____

A

kidney disease & malnutrition

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91
Q

Fibrinogen is converted into ____ when there is a need for clotting

A

Long, insoluble strands of fibrin

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92
Q

What do globulins do?

A

Transport things in the blood that are part of regulatory/immune function in the blood

93
Q

Gamma-globulins are -____

A

immunoglobulins/antibodies

94
Q

Alpha & beta globulins do what?

A

transport things in the blood to help regulate & perform immune function in the blood

95
Q

What are the formed elements?

A
  • Erythrocytes 99%
  • Leukocytes 0.01%
  • Platelets 1%
96
Q

Fx. of erythrocytes

A

transport respiratory gases in the blood

97
Q

Fx. of leukocytes

A

defend against pathogens

98
Q

Platelets come from

A

megakaryocytes

99
Q

Why don’t RBCs have nuclei?

A

Lack of nucleus allows them to carry respiratory gasses more efficiently

100
Q

Why are erythrocytes shaped so dinstinctively?

A

Their shape allows them to carry oxygen and slide through little tiny capillaries

101
Q

What are the structural components of an erythrocyte?

A

plasma membrane, underlying cytoskeleton, hemoglobin & and some glycolytic enzymes

102
Q

Erythrocyte membrane has glycophorin, what is the fx. of glycophorin?

A

prevents the RBC from sticking to endothelial walls

103
Q

What is the fx. of the ion transporter in the RBC membrane?

A

It allows HCO3- to be exchanged for Cl-, releasing CO2 in the lungs

104
Q

What is spectrin

A

Allows the erythrocyte to maintain its biconcave shape, which allows the erythrocyte to maintain its proper function

105
Q

What is elliptocytosis?

A

AD, Oval shaped RBCs. Defective spectrin self-association. Results in Anemia, jaundice & splenomegaly

106
Q

What is spherocytosis?

A

AD, Deficiency in Spectrin, results in jaundice, anemia, splenomegaly. tx. is splenectomy

107
Q

What is polychromasia?

A

When bone marrow cells secrete immature RBCs

108
Q

Approximately how many hemoglobin are on 1 erythrocyte?

A

280 million

109
Q

Each hemoglobin has 2 alpha and 2 beta chains, with 4 total heme molecules. How many O2 molecules can one hemoglobin bind?

A

4 O2 molecules

110
Q

Why is oxygen binding fairly weak?

A

To allow rapid attachment and detachment of oxygen

111
Q

Describe sickle cell anemia

A

Mutation in the b-globin chain where glutamic acid is replaced with valine. THis causes improper shape - the sickle shape

112
Q

What happens with sickle cell anemia?

A

RBCs get stuck and cut of oxygen supply to tissue

113
Q

Thalassemia syndromes

A
  • a-globulin - a-thalassemia
    • hydrops fetalis - usually fatal
  • b-globulin - b-thalassemia
    • b-thalassemia major - dependent on transplant
114
Q

Describe Anemia

A

quantity of erythrocytes is lower than it should be. Whether not enough are synthesized or not enough survive

115
Q

Describe polycythemia

A

too many erythrocytes, blood becomes to thick and viscous

116
Q

Congenital hemolytic anemia

A

RBCs are too fragile, due to an abnormal plasma membrane

117
Q

Pernicious anemia

A

chronic, caused by impaired abosrption of B-12 in gut, due to lack of intrinsic factor (IF).

118
Q

What is something required in RBC synthesis?

A

Vitamin B12

119
Q

Iron deficiency anemia

A

caused by excessive menstrual bleeding, ulcers & colon cancer

120
Q

Aplastic anemia

A

Decreased RBC & heme synthesis in bone marrow

121
Q

Compensatory polycythemia

A
  • Due to chronic hypoxia
    • Long term smoking and tobacco use
122
Q

Erythrocytosis

A

increase in erythrocyte production due to increased erythropoietin

123
Q

polycythemia vera

A

RBC growth in red marrow is not regulated. RBCs continue to grow even in absence of EPO

124
Q

EPO =

A

Erythropoietin

125
Q

Blood doping

A
  • increased athletic performance due to increased amount of RBCs
  • Causes more viscous blood
126
Q

Describe the significance of fetal Hb

A

It has a higher affinity for oxygen, so the O2 in oxygenated blood in the placenta is pulled to the fetus

127
Q

Erythroblastosis Fetalis (HDN) Parameters

A
  • Rh- mom, Rh+ fetus -> Mom gains antibodies against the Rh+ RBCs after first pregnancy with baby who is Rh+.
  • 1st baby not affected
128
Q

How does Rh- mom respond to second Rh+ pregnancy?

A
  • The mom’s IGG antibodies can cross placental barrier and agglutinate baby’s RBCs, causing anemia & ultimately killing fetal RBCs
129
Q

What effect does Erythroblastosis Fetalis have on the baby’s CV system?

A

CV system fails because it has to work to hard to supply the fetus with blood, secondary to anemia

130
Q

Tx. of Erythroblastosis Fetalis

A

Mom is given Rhogam (anti-D globulin), soon after 1st baby is delivered

131
Q

How does the anti-D globulin work to prevent erythroblastosis fetalis?

A

masks antigenic sits on the fetal RBCs that may have leaked into mom’s blood from 1st Rh+ baby.

132
Q

Leukocyte classes

A
  1. Granulocytes
  2. Agranulocytes
133
Q

Granulocytes contain what types of granules?

A

Primary - contain lysosomes

Secondary cytoplasmic granules - vary depending on cell fx.

134
Q

Agranulocytes have only ______ granules

A

Primary

135
Q

Leukocytes can leave the bloodstream via

A

diapedesis

136
Q

What is the mechanism by which WBCs diapedese to CT

A

Homing mechanism

137
Q

What is leukopenia?

A

reduced number of WBCs, seen in leukemia

138
Q

Leukocytosis = ______

A

elevated WBC count - dehydration, allergy, infection

139
Q

How are WBCs attracted to sites of ifx?

A

chemotaxis

140
Q

3 types of Granulocytes are?

A
  1. Neutrophils
  2. Eosinophils
  3. Basophils
141
Q

Neutrophil amount relative to other Granulocytes?

A

Most abundant-60-70%

142
Q

Why do neutrophils have both primary and secondary granules?

A

Eliminate opsonized bacteria, regulating inflammatory response

143
Q

Another name for neutrophils

A

PMNs

144
Q

How are neutrophils able to complete the homing mechanism?

A

They have specific receptors for integrins, ICAM1&2

145
Q

Neutrophils role regarding bacteria and dead cells?

A

Remove them/phagocytosis

146
Q

What is special about the nucleus of an eosinophil?

A

bilobed nucleus

147
Q

What type of infection do eosinophils respond to?

A

parasitic infections

148
Q

Eosinophils can also reduce the severity of ______

A

allergic reactions

149
Q

eosinophils can trigger _____ ____

A

bronchial asthma

150
Q

Distinguishing characteristics of basophils

A

granules that contain histamine & heparin

151
Q

Basophils play a role in what type of hypersensitivity reactions?

A

immediate and delayed

152
Q

What are the types of agranulocytes?

A

Lymphocytes and monocytes

153
Q

What is special about a lymphocyte nucleus

A

round nucleus that occupies most of the cell

154
Q

Lymphocytes exist in what tissues?

A
  • Lymph nodes, spleen,
  • GALT, BALT
    • little pockets of lymphatic tissue in the GI or Resp. system
155
Q

Two types of lymphocytes

A

T-cells and B-cells

156
Q

T lymphocytes do what

A

manage and direct the immune response

157
Q

B lymphocytes do what

A

Become plasma cells and synthesize antibodies

158
Q

Difference between a monocyte and leukocyte is

A

Monocyte has much more cytoplasm

159
Q

Shape of nucleus in monocytes

A

kidney or u-shaped

160
Q

Monocytes can become

A

tissue macrophages, antigen presentation, clean up cell debris, bacterial phagocytosis

161
Q

Role of selectins in homing and inflammation

A

THey are bound to endothelial cells and help neutrophils recognize the right spot to adhere to the endothelium

162
Q

How do neutrophils disrupt the endothelial wall

A

they disrupt the interaction of junction adhesion molecules and vascular endothelial cadherins

163
Q

Describe the “positive feedback system” of homing and inflammation

A

TNF-a and IL-1 are secreted by EC neutrophils to the endothelium to increase selectin expression and CAMs.

164
Q

Leukocyte adhesion deficiency I &II

A
  • No migration into CT
  • deficient wound healing
  • recurring infections
  • Leukocytosis (increased Leukocytes in blood)
165
Q

Plateltes are derived from _____

A

megakaryocytes

166
Q

Megakaryocytes are controlled by

A

thrombopoietin

167
Q

thrombopoietin is produced by which organs

A

kidneys and liver

168
Q

when there is sufficient numbers of platelets, what happens to thrombopoietin?

A

the platelets degrade it, abolishing the signal to make more platelets

169
Q

Megakaryocytes develop cytoplasmic projections that eventually become

A

platelets

170
Q

How long does it take to make a platelet

A

10-12 days

171
Q

What are platelets’ role in blood clotting?

A

they are trapped by the fibrin web to halt blood flow

172
Q

Thrombocytopenia

A
  • A reduced amount of platelets, leads to increased susceptibility to bleeding.
  • Results in Purpura - small reddish-purple blotches
173
Q

What causes thrombocytopenia

A

decreased production of platelets, increased platelet destruction, or drugs - penicillin, sulfonamides, digoxin

174
Q

Superior THoracic Aperture is also called

A

THoracic inlet

175
Q

Thoracic outlet is where

A

the inferior portion of the ribcage

176
Q

Superior thoracic aperture is bounded by ____

A

cervical vertebrae, 1st rib, manubrium

177
Q

What goes through the superior thoracic aperture?

A

Esophagus

178
Q

What goes through the inferior thoracic diaphragm?

A

IVC,

179
Q

Bones we need to know

A

12 thoracic vertebrae, sternum ribs

180
Q

The sternum is made up of how many separate bones

A

3

  1. Manubrium
  2. Body of Sternum
  3. Xiphoid Process
181
Q

What is the part of the sternum that turns?

A

Sternal angle

182
Q

Bottom half of the seventh costal process is where?

A

xiphoid process

183
Q

True ribs

A

Vertebrocostal

1st-7th ribs

All the way around from the back and meet up with their own cartilage

184
Q

False Ribs

A

Vertebrochondral ribs

8,9,10

Attach to the cartilage of Rib 7

185
Q

Floating ribs

A

Vertebral Ribs

11 & 12

186
Q

Crest of head on a rib is between ____ and ____

A

Superior facet and inferior facet

187
Q

What is the only reason there is a neck on a rib?

A

Because there is a tubercle, Head - space - tubercle

188
Q

Where is the rib most commonly fractured

A

costal angle

189
Q

what goes in the costal groove

A

Nerve, Artery, Vein

190
Q

The head meets up with what?

A

Articular facet on body of thoracic vertebrae

191
Q

Atypical ribs

A

1st rib - flat broad, head neck tubercle, small bump - scalene tubercle - attachment site for anterior scalene muscle

2nd rib - has the tuberosity for the serratus ant. muscle (part of its origin)

11&12 - have no tubercle, therefore no neck

192
Q

Vein is _____ to anterior scalene muscle on first rib

A

anterior

193
Q

Groove for sublcavian artery on 1st rib is _____ to subclavian vein

A

Posterior

194
Q

What does the serratus anterior attach to on the second rib?

A

tuberosity for serratus anterior muscle

195
Q

What attaches to the scalene tubercle?

A

anterior scalene m.

196
Q

How many facets are on each of ribs 10-12?

A

1

197
Q

Supernumerary ribs in the cervical ribs can cause what?

A

Thoracic outlet syndrome

198
Q

Where does a supernumerary rib come from?

A

An extremely overdeveloped costal element of a thoracic vertebrae

199
Q

Sternal joints

A

Symphysis type cartilaginous

200
Q

Between body of sternum and xiphoid process what type of joint exists?

A

synchondrosis

201
Q

What type of joint exists between manumbrium and body of sternum?

A

symphysis

202
Q

Ligament that holds ribs to sternum

A

Anterior & posterior radiate sternocostal ligaments

203
Q

Costovertebral joints

A

Planar synovial joints

Radiate ligament

intraarticular ligament

204
Q

A rib meets up with the inferior costal demifacet of which vertebra?

A

The rib just above it

205
Q

Which transverse process does a rib meet up with?

A

Its own segental number

206
Q

A rib attaches to the superior costal demifacet of which vertebra?

A

The vertebra at its own level

207
Q

Where does the superior costotransverse ligament come from?

A

one vertebra up, for rib 6 it would come from T5

208
Q

Lateral costotransverse ligament comes from where?

A

transverse process of vertebra to rib of same level

209
Q

How do ribs move?

A

Bucket handle movement on the sides

Pump handle movement in front

210
Q

Breathing in does what to the thoracic space?

A

Increases it

211
Q

Breathing out does what to the thoracic space

A

decreases it

212
Q

Costcochondral joint is the junction of what?

A

rib and cartilage

213
Q

Rib dislocation

A

Rib cartilage moves away from sternum

214
Q

Separation of rib = ____

A

rib moves away from cartilage

215
Q

Interchondral joints

A

Ribs 7-9 meet = planar synovial joint

216
Q

Names of rib muscles

A

External, Internal, innermost intercostal muscles

217
Q

Innervation of intercostal muscles

A

intercostal nerves

218
Q

Where do external intercostal muscles become membranous?

A

anteriorly

219
Q

Where do internal intercostal muscles become membranous

A

Posteriorly

220
Q

Internal intercostal muscles move which direction in relation to the external intercostal muscles?

A

perpendicularly

221
Q

What do external intercostal muscles do?

A

Elevate ribs, (bucket and pump handle motion)

Inspiration

222
Q

Internal intercostal muscles fx.

A

depress ribs, inspiration

223
Q

Thoracentesis

A

Sticking a needle in between two ribs, not right next to one though

224
Q

Thorascopy

A

Sticking a camera in between ribs

225
Q

Transverse thoracic muscle

A

depresses ribs

226
Q

Subcostal muscles

A

always in posterior thoracic wall

goes more than one rib space

Intercostal nerves

227
Q
A
228
Q
A

Cardiopulmonary 1 (5 decks)

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