Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Fa: Coexisting 2 > 1. Peds > Flashcards

1. Peds Flashcards

1
Q

full term

A

37-41 weeks gestational age

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

preterm

A

< 37 weeks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Small for gestational age

A

birth weight < 10th %

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Large for gestational age

A

birth weight > 10th %

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

embryonic lung development

A

4-7 weeks gestation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

psuedoglandular lung development

A

5-17 wks gestation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

canalicular lung development

A

16-26 wks gestation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

saccular lung development

A

24 wks to birth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

alveolar lung development occurs

A

after birth to 3 years

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

when does the bronchial tree develop?

A

pseudoglandular stage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

when does the differentiation of type 1 and type 2 surfactant occur?

A

canalicular stage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

when is surfactant mature?

A

saccular stage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

how many alveoli at birth?

A

30-50 million

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

amniotic fluid function

A

protects baby

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

fetal breath movements (FBM)

A

pulls fluids into lungs
opens alveoli
stimulates growth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

amniotic fluid contains

A

urine and lung secretions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

fetal blood from IVC flows

A

through foramen ovale

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

fetal blood from SVC flows

A

through trucsupid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

fetal lungs PVR

A

higher due to HPV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

fetal circulation is _____ while adult circulation is ______

A

fetal circulation is 2 parallel circuits while adult circulation is 1 circuit in series

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

umbilical arteries carry

A

deoxy blood

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

umbilical vein carry

A

oxy blood

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

umbilical vein PO2

A

55 mmHg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

fetal hb subunits

A

2 alpha
2 delta

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

fetal hb p50

A

19 mmHg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

fetal hb-o2 shift

A

Left Shift

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

what happens to BF through PDA at birth

A

decr SVR causes BF to bypass PDA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

what closes PFO

A

incr pulm circulation
incr LA P

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

how do you avoid baby hypoxia at birth

A

delayed cord clamping

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

infant ribs/diaphragm

A

parallel ribs
flatter diaphragm
compensate by incr RR

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

infants response to CO2

A

decr ventilatory response

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

infants response to hypoxic mixture

A

incr ventilation for 1 min
5 min hyponea

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

infants response to hypoxic mixture due to

A

immature carotid bodies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

infant respiratory diffferences

A

decr TLC
decr TV
decr FRC
incr O2 consumption
incr MV
incr closing capacity (incr atelectasis risk)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

infant diaphragm compostion

A

25% type 1 aerobic muscle fibers means they need mechanical ventilation help bc tire easily

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

infant airway differences

A

larger tongue
cephalad larynx
narrow omega epiglottis
angled vocal cords

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

narrowest part of infant airway

A

cricoid cartilage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

level of glottic opening: preterm infant

A

C3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

level of glottic opening: fulterm infant

A

C3-C4

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

level of glottic opening: adult

A

C4-C5

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

pediatric SV

A

fixed due to non-compliant LV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

pediatric CO

A

HR-dependent

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

are peds pts parasympathetic or sympathetic dominant?

A

parasympathetic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

peds renal drug elimination

A

decr renal drug elimination
incr DOA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

peds urine

A

dilute

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Cr at birth

A

same as mother

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Cr 48 hrs post-birth

A

0.5 mg/dL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

[Hg] at birth

A

19 g/dL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

HgF at birth

A

70%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

why is peds Hg so high?

A

incr EPO

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

cranial sutures

A

elastic tissue bands
- fontanels at junction of cranial sutures

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

anterior fontanel closes

A

20 months

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

posterior fontanel closes

A

3 months

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

which drug is neuroprotective

A

dexmedetomidine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

which drugs do not cause neuroapoptosis

A

narcots

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

PANDA study

A

no sig difference in IQ when exposed to anesthetics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

GAS study

A

no diff in neurodevelopment at 5 yrs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

Mask Study

A

no statistica difference between kids w or w/o anesthetic exposures

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

risk of anesthesia in peds incr with

A

longer duration
increased frequency

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

peds drugs with hepatic metabolism

A

longer DOA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

fentayl metabolism by newborn

A

50%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

full-term neonate glycogen

A

similar to adults

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

peds oral midazolam dosing

A

0.3-0.7 mg/kg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

oral midazolam onset

A

10 mins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

peds precedex doing

A

2 mcg/kg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

peds precedex onset

A

20-30 mins

67
Q

how should you dose peds

A

based off of ideal body weight

68
Q

IBW

A

IBW = 2*age +10

69
Q

neonate -12 mo mask size

A

2

70
Q

12 mo - 4 yr mask size

A

3

71
Q

4-12 yr mask size

A

4

72
Q

12+ yr mask size

A

5

73
Q

uncuffed ETT

A

age/4 + 4

74
Q

cuffed ETT

A

age/4 + 3.5

75
Q

ETT depth

A

3* ID

76
Q

where does uncuffed tube seal

A

at cricoid

77
Q

improper tube sizes can cause

A

edema due to incr resistance

78
Q

LMA 1

A

<5 kg

79
Q

LMA 1.5

A

5-10 kg

80
Q

LMA 2

A

10-20 kg

81
Q

LMA 2.5

A

20-30 kg

82
Q

LMA 3

A

females over 30 kg or 10 yrs

83
Q

LMA 4

A

males over 30 kg or 10 years

84
Q

which airway has decr laryngospasm

A

LMA

85
Q

infants < 3 warming mechanism

A

non-shivering thermogenesis via brown fat metabolism

86
Q

how to manage peds temperature

A

warm room
warm IV fluids
forced air warmers
airway humidification

87
Q

most common cause of ped cardiac arrest

A

respiratory compromise

88
Q

sunken fontanel can indicate

A

hypovolemia

89
Q

respiratory disress syndrome

A

preterm infant born w/Type 2 pneumocyte deficiency
delayed surfactant production
50% surfactatn by 28 weks
100% by 36 weeks

90
Q

risk in RDS pts

A

pneumothorax

91
Q

bronchopulmonary dysplasi

A

alveolar hyperplasia
arrest of alveolar development

92
Q

pts in bronchopulmonary dysplasia need

A

supp O2 for at least 28 days after birth
O2 dependenc at 36 weeks PCA

93
Q

what should you avoid unless absolutely necessary in bronchopulmonary dysplasia pts

A

intubation

94
Q

laryngomalaci

A

flaccidity or laryngeal structures corrected with supraglottoplasy

95
Q

laryngomalacia managment

A

CPAP
PPV

96
Q

bronchomalacia

A

weakened cartilage of major airways causing airway collapse

97
Q

bronchomalacia respiratory disease type

A

expiratory with PPV
inspiratory wtih SV

98
Q

what anesthetic is used for diagnosis of laryngomalacia and bronchomalacia

A

bronchoscopy with TIVA

99
Q

airway decadron dose

A

0.5 mg/kg

100
Q

adenotonsillar hypertrophy causes

A

congenital
chronic tonsillitis

101
Q

what should you not give adenotonsillar hypertrophy pts

A

midazolam
avoid toradol

102
Q

primary bleeding tonsil timeline

A

24 hrs post surgery

103
Q

secondary bleeding tonsil timeline

A

days 5-7 or 10-14

104
Q

anesthetic for drug induced sleep endoscopy

A

1-2 mcg/kg precedex

105
Q

apnea of prematurity

A

cessation of breathing > 20 seconds
SaO2 < 90%

106
Q

APO treatment

A

nasal CPAP
caffeine
aminophylline

107
Q

congenital diaphragmatic hernia triad

A

dyspnea
cyanosis
dextrocardia

108
Q

most common type of CDH

A

bochdalek

109
Q

CDH treatment

A

intubate after birth
SaO2 > 90%
2 pulse ox
avoid PPV

110
Q

where are pulse ox placed CDH

A

pre-ductal: arm
post-ductal: foot

111
Q

where is art line placed CDH

A

right upper extremity

112
Q

low delta in pulse ox CDH

A

open PDA

113
Q

high delta in pulse ox CDH

A

closed PDA

114
Q

most common congenital anomaly of esophagus

A

esophageal atresia type C

115
Q

esophageal atresia s+s

A

choking/aspiration
coughing
cyanosis
excessive salivation

116
Q

VACTERL
(tracheoesophageal fistula)

A

Vertebral anomalies/VSD
Anorectal malformation
Cardiac anomalies
TEF
Esophageal atreasia
Renal abnormalities
Limb/radial malformation

117
Q

TEF

A

fully developed respiratory system where esophagus connects to trachea

118
Q

TEF B/D/E

A

upper esophagus connects to trachea

119
Q

TEF C/D/E

A

acid from stomach goes into trachea

120
Q

TEF management

A

spontaneous ventilation

121
Q

omphalocele

A

bowel contained in sac

121
Q

gastroschisis

A

bowel not contained in sac

122
Q

gastroschisis fluid losses

A

100-200 mL/kg/hr

123
Q

hirshprungs disease

A

aganglionic megacolon
stool buildup

124
Q

pyloric stenosis causes

A

projectile vomiting

125
Q

pyloric stenosis is a

A

medical emergency cannot get fluids in

126
Q

volvulus

A

bowel obstruction that twists upon itself

127
Q

volvulus is a

A

surgical emergency
causes sepsis if not treated

128
Q

biliary atresia

A

inflammation of bile ducts causing obliteration of extrahepatic biliary tract

129
Q

biliary atresia diagnosis

A

persistent jaundice

130
Q

biliary atresia causes

A

cirrhosis

131
Q

kasai procedure

A

surgical removal of blocked duct
anastamosis of small bowel onto intrahepatic bile duct

132
Q

pts require what after kasai procedure

A

50% require liver transplant

133
Q

pectus excavatum causes

A

restrictive lung disease

134
Q

pectus excavatum PFTs

A

decr capacity
incr pressure

135
Q

what corrects pectus excavatum

A

nuss procedure

136
Q

necrotizing enterocolitis

A

life threatening intestinal inflammation or injury

bacterial infection to affected bowel

137
Q

CP pts require

A

lower MAC

138
Q

CP pts have ______ emergence

A

delayed

139
Q

CP pts are sensitive to

A

precedex

140
Q

vagal nerve stimulators are

A

turned off before surgery

141
Q

hydrocephalus

A

CSF acumulation due to imbalance of CSF production/reabsorption

142
Q

hydrocephalus prcedure

A

VP-shunt

143
Q

spina bifida

A

fetal malformation with protrusion of spinal cord and meninges in spinal column defect

144
Q

when is spina bifida treated

A

w/i 24 hrs of birth

145
Q

spina bifid lifelong deficits

A

neurogenic bowel
neurogenic bladder
lower extremity sensory/motor loss

146
Q

main concern during myelomeningocele repair

A

avoid compressure of defect during airway manipulation

147
Q

cranyosynostosis

A

premature closure of cranial sutures
incr ICP

148
Q

cranyosynsostosis pt posiitonin

A

sphynx

149
Q

spinal muscular atrophy treatment

A

spinarza
zolgensma

150
Q

what should you avoid in SMA

A

sux
caution with opiods and NMD

151
Q

ped difficult airways

A

pierre-robin
goldenhar
treacher collins
apert syndrome
crouzon syndrome
beck with wiedemann
downs
freeman sheldon
klippel feil
pfeiffer

152
Q

pierre robin triad

A

micrognathia
glossoptosis
airway obstruction

153
Q

goldenhar

A

hemifacial microsomia

154
Q

treacher collins

A

madibular dystosis
receding chin

155
Q

apert

A

autosomal dominant

156
Q

crouzon

A

craniofacial dystosis
malformation of face and skill

157
Q

spica cast

A

used to imobilie one or both lower exrremities

158
Q

most common genetic diseas in children

A

trisomy 21

159
Q

trisomy 21

A

cardiac anomalies
OSA
hypotonia
ligamentum laxity

160
Q

trisomy pts cannot

A

extend neck due to atlantoaxial instability

161
Q

trisomy pts ETT

A

smaller glottic opening
0.5 smaller ETT

162
Q

trisomy pts reaction on inhalational induction

A

bradycardic

Fa: Coexisting 2 (6 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions