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MOD Exam III > (1) Intro to Infectious Diseases and Bacteria (Putthoff) > Flashcards

(1) Intro to Infectious Diseases and Bacteria (Putthoff) Flashcards

1
Q

What is the most common cause of community aquired lobar pneumonia?

A

Strep pneumoniae

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2
Q

What are the important aspects to consider in a clinical approach to pathogens and those agents that may become pathogens?

A
  1. With which type(s) of infection/infestation is an agent most commonly associated?
  2. Clinical presentation
  3. Virulence factors?
  4. Most common cause of…
  5. Unique charactteristics
  6. Overarching clinical conceptualizations
  7. Prognosis?
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3
Q

Rules to write scientific names:

What is always written first?

What is always written second?

A

Homo sapiens

An organisms genus is always written first

An organisms species is always written second

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4
Q

Rules to write scientific names:

What is always capitalized?

What is always lower case?

A

Homo sapiens

Genus is capitalized

Species is lower case

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5
Q

Rules to write scientific names:

What is always underlined or italicized?

A

Scientific names of organisms are always italicized or underlined

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6
Q

As Dr. Putthoff put it…

What is the easiest [potentially overly simplified] way to distinguish prokaryotes vs eukaryotes?

A

Prokaryotes = single celled organisms

Eukaryotes = multicelled organisms

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7
Q

Do MOST bacteria stain by the gram stain?

A

No.

They stained very poorly

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8
Q

What are the 7 most clinically relevant gram (+) bacteria?

A
  1. Streptococcus
  2. Enterococcus
  3. Staphylococcus
  4. Bacillus
  5. Clostridium
  6. Corynebacterium
  7. Listeria
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9
Q

Which of the 6 most clinically relevant gram (+) bacteria are categorized as “SPORE producing”?

A

Bacillus

Clostridium

(These produce spores. Spheres that protect a dormant bacterium from the harsh enviornment)

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10
Q

Which of the 7 most clinically relevant gram (+) bacteria are categorized as “NOT SPORE FORMING”?

A

Corynebacterium

Listeria

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11
Q

Behold:

The most common gram stain reference bacteria

What are the purple ones?

What are the pink ones?

A

Purple = Staphoreous (Gram positive)

Pink = E.Coli (Gram negative)

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12
Q

Figure 1-9 Bacterial Morphology

What is the name for a circular bacteria?

A

Coccus

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13
Q

Figure 1-9 Bacterial Morphology

What are examples of gram positive CIRCULAR bacteria?

A

Streptococcus

Enterococcus

Staphylococcus

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14
Q

Figure 1-9 Bacterial Morphology

What are examples of gram negative CIRCULAR bacteria?

A

Neisseria

Moraxella

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15
Q

Figure 1-9 Bacterial Morphology

What is the term for a rod shaped bacteria?

A

Bacillus

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16
Q

Figure 1-9 Bacterial Morphology

What are examples of gram positive rod bacteria?

A

Corynebacterium

Listeria

Bacillus

Clostridum

Mycobacterium (acid-fast)

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17
Q

Figure 1-9 Bacterial Morphology

What are examples of gram negative rod bacteria?

A

There are SOO MANY! Learn by exclusion. Remember the earlier flashcard with the 7 most common Gram POSITIVE bacteria. But here is the list on the table for your enjoyment:

ENTERICS = Escherichia coli, Shingella, Salmonella, Yersinia, Klebsiella, Proteus, Enterobacter, Serratia, Vibrio, Campylobacter, Helicobacter, Pseudomonas, Bacteroides

Also….not included in enterics = Haemophilus, Bordetella, Legionella, Yersinia, Francisella, Brucella, Pasteurella, Gardenerella

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18
Q

Figure 1-9 Bacterial Morphology

What are examples of gram positive spiral bacteria?

A

Lol there aren’t any

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19
Q

Figure 1-9 Bacterial Morphology

What are examples of gram negative SPIRAL bacteria?

A

Spirochetes:

  • Treponema
  • Borrelia
  • Leptospira
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20
Q

Figure 1-9 Bacterial Morphology

What are examples of gram positive “Branching filamentous growth” bacteria?

A

Actinomyces

Nocardia

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21
Q

Figure 1-9 Bacterial Morphology

What are examples of gram negative“Branching filamentous growth” bacteria?

A

There are none, lol

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22
Q

Figure 1-9 Bacterial Morphology

What are examples of gram positve pleomorphic bacteria?

A

There are none, lol

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23
Q

Figure 1-9 Bacterial Morphology

What are examples of gram negative pleomorphic bacteria?

A

Chlamydia

Rickettsiae

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24
Q

Figure 1-9 Bacterial Morphology

What are examples of gram positve/gram negative bacteria with NO CELL WALL?

A

Mycoplasma

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25
Q

The catalase reaction –

How is it fundamentally and most practically employed?

A

To differentiate between STAPH and STREP

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26
Q

When you have a patient that is presenting with shock symptoms…what is something you ALWAYS have to do?

A

Get a CULTURE!!!

You need to determine what exactly is affecting the patient before administering any antibiotics

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27
Q

Define:

Bacteria

A

Procaryotes that exist in a halploid state

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28
Q

Why are bacterial genetics critical to understanding the behavior of bacteria?

A

Exchange of genetic material enables bacteria to become pathogenic, resist antiboitic therapy and, fundamentally survive

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29
Q

What is bacterial transformation?

A

The genetic alteration of a cell resulting from the direct uptake and incorporation of exogenous genetic material FROM IT’S SURROUNDINGS through the cell membrane

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30
Q

What is bacterial transduction?

A

Transduction is the process by which foreign DNA is introduced into a cell by a virus or viral vector

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31
Q

What is bacterial conjugation?

A

“Bacteria sex”

The transfer of genetic material between bacterial cells by direct cell-to-cell contact or by a bridge-like connection between two cells

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32
Q

What are the 4 general methods to identify bacteria and other potential pathogenic agents?

A

Smears

Culture

Molecular techniques

Serology

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33
Q

What are examples of potential pathogens?

A

Bacteria

Viruses

Fungi

Parasites

Prions

Other

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34
Q

What are the PROs to using a culture method to ID bacteria?

A

High specificity

Isolates can be tested for antibiotic specificity

Can determine phenotype

Less expensive

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35
Q

What are the CONs to using a culture method to ID bacteria?

A

Biosaftey concern

Low sensitivity (low bacterial count)

Cannot detect nonviable bacteria

Biochemical pheotype may not agree with genotype

Longer time for results

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36
Q

What are the PROs to using a NAT (nucleic acid test) to ID bacteria?

A

High sensitivity

Rapid turnaround time

Can detect nonviable bacteria

Reduced biosaftey concern

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37
Q

What are the CONs to using a NAT (nucleic acid test) to ID bacteria?

A

Requires special training

Requires special instrumentation and workflow

False negatives and positives occur

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38
Q

What does it mean when a steptococcus group is considered a LANCEFIELD group?

A

Groups A, B and D for Streptococcus are considered LANCEFIELD GROUPS

They all have a hemolytic reaction on blood agar

*They LANCE the blood, causing a hemolytic reaction

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39
Q

What are the virulence factors for group A beta-hemolytic strep?

A

C carbohydrate

M protein

Strep O

Strep S

Pyrogenic toxin

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40
Q
A
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41
Q

This is an example of?

A

Erythema marginatum

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42
Q

What is the genus/species name of Group B Streptococci?

A

Streptococcus agalactiae

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43
Q

What are the 3 most common pathogens associated with meningitis in neonates and infants less than three months in age?

A

Group B Strep

Listeria

E. Coli

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44
Q

What does viridis mean?

A

Green

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45
Q

Viridans group streptococci

What is the hemolytic reaction on blood agar?

A

GREEN appearance

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46
Q

VIridans group streptococci

Where are they normal flora?

A

GI Tract

Nasopharynx

Gingiva

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47
Q

Viridans Group Streptococci

What are the types of associated infections?

A

Dental carries

Endocarditis

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48
Q

Viridans Group Streptococci

The clinical significance of blood culture positivity with this type of bacterium?

A

Suspect occult abscess

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49
Q

Group D Strep

Hallmark?

A

Mostly aquired in the hospital setting, are very drug-resistant

GROUP D = Drug resistant

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50
Q

What are the three most commonly associated organisms with Otitis Media?

A

Strep pneumoneae

Hemophilus influenza (HI)

Moraxcella cateralis (MC)

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51
Q

What are the two most classic patterns of pneumonia?

A

Bronchopneumonia

Lobar pneumonia

52
Q

What are the (3) genus/species of staphylococci?

A

Staphylococcus aureus (*most important clinically, is coagulase positive)

Staphylococcus epidermidis

Staphylococcus saprophyticus

53
Q

What makes staphylococcus aureus particularly infectious?

A

Virulence proteins (especially beta-lactamase) that degrades classic penicillins

Enzymatic tissue proteins

Cutaneous endotoxin

Exotoxins

54
Q

What is:

TSST-1

A

Exotoxin

Associated with Toxic shock syndrome, higher prevalence in women

55
Q

S. epidermitis

Is typically transmitted via?

A

Indwelling catheters

Prosthetic devices

56
Q

What is a leading cause (second to E.coli) of community-aquired UTI’s in sexually active young women?

A

S. saprophyticus

57
Q

Bacillus anthracis

Unique attributes?

Where is it aquired?

Clinical appearance?

A

Unique attributes = CAPSULE

Where is it aquired= SOIL, ubiquitous

Clinical appearance= forms a malignant pustule (ESCHAR)

58
Q

Bacillus cereus

Causes?

A

Bacillary dysentery

59
Q

Corynebacterium diptheriae

Clinical presentation?

Appropriate culture medium?

Antitoxin?

A

Clinical presentation = Upper respiratory manifestation

Appropriate culture medium= plated

Antitoxin= bacteriophage needs to infect the bacterium, or it’s toxic features do not occur

60
Q

Listeria monocytogenes

Highly associated with?

A

Placentitis

Neonatal meningitis

61
Q

What are the only (major) pathogenic gram negative cocci?

A

Neisseria meningitidis

Neisseria gonorrheae

62
Q

Neisseria meningitidis

ALWAYS HAS what feature?

A

Characteristic RASH!!!

Measles like, seen on the chest

63
Q

Neisseria gonorrheae

Clinical presentation?

A

Most men are symptomatic with: Purulent urethral discharge, epididymitis, prostatitis, urethral strictures

Women are more likely to be asymptomatic, PID , dyspareunia

64
Q

Add the HACEK group of organisms (pg 69)

A
65
Q

What are the enterics?

A

Gram negative bacteria that are part of normal GI flora or cause gastrointestinal disease

66
Q

What are examples of the enterics?

A

Enterobacteriaceae

Vibrionaceace

Pseudomonadaceae

Bacteriodaceae

67
Q

When there is fecal contamination of a water supply, what is tested for??

A

Coliforms

68
Q

Describe what you can infer based on these diarrheal manifestations:

Bloody diarrhea

Watery diarrhea

A

Bloody diarrhea = Cell invasion

Watery diarrhea = No cell invasion

69
Q

Klebsiella pneumoniae

How is it frequently aquired?

A

Hospital aquired

70
Q

Klebsiella pneumoniae

What does it induce?

A

Causes an aggressive, cavitary (necrosis-inducing) pneumonia with thick, coughed-up sputum

Appearance of “red currant jelly”

71
Q

Proteus mirabilis

What are the characteristics?

A

Very motile

Urea-splitting

Cross reactivity with Rickettsia

Common cause of UTIs

72
Q

Shigella

What is the major clinical manifestation?

Is it pathogenic or normal GI flora?

Who is the host?

A

Dysentery (targets very young or elderly)

ALWAYS a pathogen

ONLY Humans

73
Q

E. Coli

What is important to note about this?

A

It CAN BE A BACTERIA THAT CONTRIBUTES TO NORMAL FUNCTIONING

*It is commonly associated with strictly diseased states. Be sure to know this fact!

74
Q

Salmonella

Where is it found?

Pathogenic or cooperative?

A

Animal feces; also commonly acquired from contaminated chicken or eggs

ALWAYS a pathogen

75
Q

Salmonella

What are the 4 disease states in humans?

A
  • Typhoid fever
  • Carrier
  • Sepsis
  • Gastroenteritis/diarrhea
76
Q

What are rose spots?

A

Rash that occurs in 30% of people infected with SALMONELLA TYPHI

Characteristically, rose spots are seen in untreated typhoid fever

Usually found b/w the level of the nipples and umbilicus

77
Q

What is an exanthem?

A

Faint rash

78
Q

The clinical syndromes associated with ______ and _______ are indistinguishable

A

S. Typhi

and

Paratyphi

79
Q

What is the bacterium associated with “pseudoappendicitis”?

A

Yersinia enterocolitica

80
Q

Vibrio Cholera

How is it contracted?

Cell invasion?

Mechanism?

Hallmarks?

A

Fecal-oral route contamination

No cell invasion

Bacteria “attach” themselves to epithelial cells and elaborate the choleragen toxin – associated with cAMP production

“Rice Water” stool/diarrhea

81
Q

What is the leading cause of diarrhea in Japan?

A

Vibro parahemolyticus

82
Q

_________________ is one of the most common causes of diarrhea in the world

A

Campylobacter jejuni

83
Q

Campylobacter jejuni

Clinical presentation?

Associations?

A

Fever, headache, loose and bloody diarrhea

Reactive arthritis and Guillian-Barre syndrome

84
Q

Which bacteria is the most common cause of duodenal ulcers and chronic gastritis?

A

Helicobacter pylori

85
Q

Helicobacter pylori

Highly associated with which form of cancer?

A

MALTomas

86
Q

Most of the GI flora is composed of ______________

A

Obligate anaerobic gram negative rods made up of bacteria from Bacteriodes family

87
Q

What is a serious consideration to make with Bacteriodes?

A

Although this bacterium normally has low virulence and is found in homeostasis with the GI tract….

TRAUMA (i.e. surgery) will release this organism and potentially cause widespread infection or loculated abscess formations

88
Q

Peptostreptococcus

Family?

Where is it typically found?

A

Anaerobic Gram Positive Cocci

Part of normal flora of the mouth, vagina and intestine

89
Q

Pseudomonas aeruginosa

Clinical presentation?

Hallmark features?

A

A serious complication in a very ill, debilitated, usually hospitilized patient

(Wind, water, wound, wires)

Resistant to many antibiotics

Produces a grey-green pigment which is observable in infected wounds and at autopsy

Has a distinctive sour/sweet smell askin to fermented grapes

90
Q

Hemophilus influenzae

(INSERT PAGES 96-97 key points here)

A
91
Q

Hemophilus influenzae

Family?

How is it transmitted?

A

Obligate human “parasite”

Respiratory tract

92
Q

Hemophilus influenzae

What are the virulence factors?

A
  • Polysaccharide capsule
  • Non-encapsulated strains exist
  • Antibodies to the capsule are generally lacking in infants and children
93
Q

What is the most concerning form of Hemophilus influenzae?

A

Type B

94
Q

What does Hemophilus influenzae type B cause?

A

Meningitis

Acute epiglottitis

Septic arthritis

Sepsis

95
Q

What is Hemophilus ducreyi?

A

STD

(CHANCROID) is the disease

Painful genital ulcer

96
Q

Gardenerlla vaginalis

Associated with which type of cells?

A

“Clue cells”

97
Q

Whooping cough

What is the associated bacterium?

A

Bordetalla pertussis

98
Q

Bordetalla pertussis

What type of bacteria is it?

Mechanism?

Noteworthy?

A

Gram negative rod w/ 4 virulence factors

A major toxin activates G proteins increasing cAMP, likely the cause of prodigious secretions in the distinctive sounds of inspiration and coughing

PERIPHERAL LYMPHOCYTOSIS

99
Q

Legionella pneumophila

What bacterial family?

Where does it love to live?

A

Aerobic Gram Negative rod

Water-lover

100
Q

Yersinisa, Francisella, Brucella and Pasteurella

Family?

Method of transmission?

Etiology?

A

Gram negative rods

Zoonotic

Very aggressive/virulent disease in humans

101
Q

What is the bacterium associated with bubonic plague?

A

Yersina pestis

102
Q

Yersinia pestis

What is the method of tranmission?

Who does it infect?

Where does it generally spread to?

A

Vectors are fleas

Rodents and humans

Inguinal lymph nodes

103
Q

Which bacterium is typically confused with bubonic plague?

A

Francisella tularensis

104
Q

Francisella tularensis

Infects what primarily?

Noteworthy association?

A

Rabbits

Aquired from humans from the bite(s) of infected ticks and deerflies

105
Q

What is an undulant fever?

A

Fevers tend to increase in the day, and subside during the evening

106
Q

What is the major clinical feature of Brucella?

A

Undulant fever

107
Q

Chlamydia, Rickettsia and Friends

Size?

Family?

A

Very small (closer in size of larger viruses)

Gram negative bacteria, obligate intracellular parasites

108
Q

General rule for staining:

What is the general rule for bacterium that do NOT stain well?

A

Generally, indulent infections

109
Q

What is the msot common STD in the US?

A

Chlamydia trachomatis

110
Q

Look over Table 8-3 Classification of important STDs in robbins

A
111
Q

Rickettsia

Family?

Size?

Clinical manifestation?

A

Gram negative, non-motile, coccobacillary bacteria

Small

Rashes, high fevers, severe headaches, conjunctivitis

112
Q

What is the major disease associated with Rickettsia?

A

Rocky mountain spotted fever

113
Q

What bacteria is associated with cat-scratch disease?

A

Bartonella henselae

114
Q

What bacterium is associated with trench fever?

A

Bartonella quintana

115
Q

What bacterium is associated with Q fever?

A

Coxiella burnetti

116
Q

Spirochetes

Family?

Diagnotic problem?

A

Tiny Gram negative organisms with spiral configurations

Difficult to culture

117
Q

Spirochetes are associated with?

A

Syphilis

118
Q

What does the term leus mean?

A

Syphilis like

119
Q

Treponema pallidum

What is the disease associated with this bacterium?

A

Syphilis

120
Q

What is the bacterium associated with lyme disease?

A

Borrelia burgdorferi

121
Q

Mycobacteria

Cellular appearance?

Host?

Resulting manifestations?

A

Thin, beaded rods with lipid laden cell walls

ONLY humans

Cell mediated immunity leads to caseous necrosis

122
Q

Mycobacterium avium-intracellulare

ONLY SEEN WITH…

A

HIV/AIDS patients

123
Q

What is the “tiniest free-living organism” capable of self replication?

A

Mycoplasma

(bacteria w/out cell walls)

124
Q

What are examples of bacterial agents of bioterrorism?

A

Bacillus anthracis

Yersinia pestis

Franciscella tularensis

Clostridium botulinum

125
Q

What are examples of viral agents of bioterrorism?

A

Smallpox

Viral hemorrhagic fevers (Filoviruses, Bunyaviruses, Arenaviruses)

126
Q
A

MOD Exam III (4 decks)

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