1: intro Flashcards

1
Q

what is surgery a combination of

A

art and science

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2
Q

what should a tech have working knowledge of

A

A&P, pathology, diagnostic medicine

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3
Q

what is the primary goal of the surgeon

A

correcting the disease

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4
Q

what is the techs primary goal

A

patients life (surgery prep. and recovery)

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5
Q

what is protazoa

A

one celled organism that creates parasitic diseases

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6
Q

are protazoa a major surgical concern

A

no, more of a problem from a medical standpoint

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7
Q

what are fungi

A

plants that must exist as parasites due to their inability to synthesis their own food

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8
Q

what can improper cleaning of an ET tube or insturments cause

A

skin or organ disease

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9
Q

what is a major concern when cleaning and sterilizing

A

bacteria

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10
Q

what are bacteria classified as

A

opportunists

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11
Q

what do most surgical and post-surgical complications arise from (5)

A

improper care and cleaning of surgical equipment, suites, recovery ares, incomplete prep, and sterile personnel

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12
Q

what is a result of aseptic technique

A

prevention of hospital-aquired infections

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13
Q

what does aseptic technique involve (2)

A

pre and post-surgical asepsis

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14
Q

decubital ulcer aka

A

bed sore

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15
Q

where are bed sores found

A

bony areas from increased pressure and decreased circulation

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16
Q

what is the best treatment for decubital ulcers

A

prevention

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17
Q

how can you eliminate or control the source of disease (3)

A

isolation, quarantine, euthanasia

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18
Q

how can you increase the ability of the hosts resistance to disease (3)

A

adequate diet, therapeutic agents, general hygine

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19
Q

how can you prevent transmission of microbes (3)

A

wash hands, adequate ventilation, physical and chemical control

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20
Q

what are the 2 classifications of sterilization and disinfection

A

physical or chemical

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21
Q

what 3 types of physical sterilization/disinfection exist

A

filtration, radiation, heat

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22
Q

what is filtration commonly used on

A

pharmaceuticals

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23
Q

what is radiation commonly used on

A

production and packaging of surgical products (ex gloves and suture material)

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24
Q

what are the 3 types of radiation

A

ultraviolet, gamma, beta

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25
Q

what are the uses of ultraviolet radiation

A

surfaces and air

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26
Q

what are the diadvantages of ultraviolet radiation

A

limited use, damages cornea, skin cancer

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27
Q

what is the use of gamma radiation

A

vaccination, biological, gloves

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28
Q

what is the use of beta radiation

A

prepackaged suture material, gloves, rubber tubing

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29
Q

what is the most common method of sterilization

A

heat

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30
Q

what kills microbes by coagulating critical cellular proteins

A

moist heat

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31
Q

what kills microbes by protein oxidation

A

dry heat

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32
Q

what is dry heat used to sterilize

A

materials that cant tolerate moist heat; oils powders, petroleum products

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33
Q

does hot water sterilize

A

no, only sanitizes

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34
Q

whet temp. is needed for hot water sanitation

A

60C or 140F

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35
Q

what can be added to hot water to help sanitization

A

scrubbing with detergent

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36
Q

what temp and time must boiling water be at to disinfect

A

max temp. 212F or 100C for 3 hours

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37
Q

what does boiling for 10 min do

A

destroy vegetative bacteria

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38
Q

effective disinfectant set at 212F for 30-45 min used to clean large scale things

A

free flowing steam

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39
Q

when properly used this kills all forms of microbial life including spores and cysts

A

autoclaves

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40
Q

how should packs be placed into an autoclave

A

verticle

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41
Q

what is the ideal time, temp, and psi of an autoclave

A

250-270F, 30min, 15psi

42
Q

what is the minimum amount of time an item can be sterilized in the autoclave

A

15 min

43
Q

when can the autoclave door be opened

A

212F and 0psi

44
Q

how long is an autoclaves dry cycle

A

1 hr

45
Q

what is the time, temp, and psi for flash sterilization

A

3-4 min, unwrapped at 270-272F, 32 psi

46
Q

what type of sterilization will not rust or corrode needles or sharp insturments

A

drying

47
Q

although drying inhibits growth of MO’s it may also increase dispersal of what

A

particles containing viable microbes if not cleaned ASAP

48
Q

what can partially burnt lumps of incinerated items do

A

contain and protect MO’s

49
Q

what are the 3 advantages of hot air ovens

A

economical, doesn’t dull edges, no corrosion

50
Q

what are hot air ovens used for

A

sterilize oil, gel, powder, wax, glassware, and surgical sharps

51
Q

disadvantages of hot air ovens

A

takes longer, paper and cloth are scorched, plastic and rubber melt

52
Q

what temp and time is the hot air oven set at

A

340F, 1-3 hrs depending on material

53
Q

most common chemical classifications

A

gluteraldehyde and chlorhexidine

54
Q

what sterilizes hard surfaces and instruments by immersion

A

gluteraldehyde

55
Q

what is carcenogenic to living tissue

A

gluteraldehyde

56
Q

how often should gluteraldehyde be changed

A

weekly or by 14 days

57
Q

what chemical can be used on living tissue

A

chlorhexidine

58
Q

what is used on items that cannot tolerate high temps

A

gasses

59
Q

what are the 2 most common gas agents

A

ethylene oxide and hydrogen peroxide gas plasma

60
Q

what is used primarily in industries, institutions, and military

A

ethylene oxide

61
Q

what inactivates DNA

A

ethylene oxide

62
Q

what are 3 advantages of ethylene oxide

A

lower temp, excellent penetration, effective microbicide

63
Q

what is a slow, flammable, poisonous, mutagenic, and carcinogenic gas

A

ethylene oxide

64
Q

how long does an ethylene oxide cycle take

A

12-24 hrs

65
Q

what gas is safer for personnel and environment

A

hydrogen peroxide gas plasma

66
Q

what gas cannot penetrate walls of an insturment

A

hydrogen peroxide gas plasma

67
Q

what are the 4 types of sterilization indicators

A

chemical, autoclave tape, biological, and misc.

68
Q

what indicators respond to time and temp by color change

A

chemical

69
Q

what does a chemical stripe indicate

A

sterility and processing of an item

70
Q

what does not indicate sterility but only that the pack may have been processed

A

autoclave tape

71
Q

what are vials or paper strips impregnated with bacillus stearothermophilus

A

biological indicators

72
Q

where are biological indicators used

A

in mass production sterilization

73
Q

how long can biological indicators take for results

A

up to 2 days

74
Q

what does a purple or red biological indicator mean

A

no growth

75
Q

what refers to soaking objects in a disinfectant solution

A

cold sterilization

76
Q

is sterility garunted with cold sterilization

A

no

77
Q

what is cold sterilization used for

A

“dirty” or minor procedures and items that shouldn’t be autoclaved

78
Q

how long should items soak in cold sterilization solution

A

minimum of 15 min

79
Q

how long must items soak in cold sterilization for to be “sterile”

A

3 hours (may require 12 hrs)

80
Q

how often should cold sterilization solution be changed

A

at least every 2 weeks

81
Q

what should be used if allergic to chlorhexadines and iodines

A

phenols

82
Q

what is quaternary ammonium

A

disinfectant

83
Q

what should never be mixed with bleach

A

quaternary ammonium

84
Q

what can cause acute asthmatic attacks and instant death if in a large enough amount

A

quaternary ammonium

85
Q

what is effective against bacteria but not spores or viruses

A

quaternary ammonium

86
Q

what is an aldehyde

A

disenfectant

87
Q

what is commonly used in cold trays

A

gluteraldehyde

88
Q

what are alcohols

A

disinfectant or antiseptic

89
Q

what can be painful, cytotoxic and can chill patients

A

alcohol

90
Q

what % isopropyl should not be used on patients

A

99%

91
Q

what are halogens

A

disinfectant or antiseptic

92
Q

what takes a 1/30 dilution to kill viruses including parvo

A

chloride compounds

93
Q

what should only be used on intact skin that’s not common in vet fields

A

iodines

94
Q

what is iodine combined with

A

a carrier molecule

95
Q

what are idophors available as

A

scrubs or soution

96
Q

what is the difference between scrubs and solution

A

scrub contains detergent solution does not

97
Q

what is a biguanides

A

disinfectant and antiseptic

98
Q

what is nolvasan solution used on

A

living tissue

99
Q

when is nolvasan solution often used

A

during dental to wipe gums and teeth and in cold trays/packs

100
Q

what is nolvasan-s

A

disenfectant