1: intro Flashcards
what is surgery a combination of
art and science
what should a tech have working knowledge of
A&P, pathology, diagnostic medicine
what is the primary goal of the surgeon
correcting the disease
what is the techs primary goal
patients life (surgery prep. and recovery)
what is protazoa
one celled organism that creates parasitic diseases
are protazoa a major surgical concern
no, more of a problem from a medical standpoint
what are fungi
plants that must exist as parasites due to their inability to synthesis their own food
what can improper cleaning of an ET tube or insturments cause
skin or organ disease
what is a major concern when cleaning and sterilizing
bacteria
what are bacteria classified as
opportunists
what do most surgical and post-surgical complications arise from (5)
improper care and cleaning of surgical equipment, suites, recovery ares, incomplete prep, and sterile personnel
what is a result of aseptic technique
prevention of hospital-aquired infections
what does aseptic technique involve (2)
pre and post-surgical asepsis
decubital ulcer aka
bed sore
where are bed sores found
bony areas from increased pressure and decreased circulation
what is the best treatment for decubital ulcers
prevention
how can you eliminate or control the source of disease (3)
isolation, quarantine, euthanasia
how can you increase the ability of the hosts resistance to disease (3)
adequate diet, therapeutic agents, general hygine
how can you prevent transmission of microbes (3)
wash hands, adequate ventilation, physical and chemical control
what are the 2 classifications of sterilization and disinfection
physical or chemical
what 3 types of physical sterilization/disinfection exist
filtration, radiation, heat
what is filtration commonly used on
pharmaceuticals
what is radiation commonly used on
production and packaging of surgical products (ex gloves and suture material)
what are the 3 types of radiation
ultraviolet, gamma, beta
what are the uses of ultraviolet radiation
surfaces and air
what are the diadvantages of ultraviolet radiation
limited use, damages cornea, skin cancer
what is the use of gamma radiation
vaccination, biological, gloves
what is the use of beta radiation
prepackaged suture material, gloves, rubber tubing
what is the most common method of sterilization
heat
what kills microbes by coagulating critical cellular proteins
moist heat
what kills microbes by protein oxidation
dry heat
what is dry heat used to sterilize
materials that cant tolerate moist heat; oils powders, petroleum products
does hot water sterilize
no, only sanitizes
whet temp. is needed for hot water sanitation
60C or 140F
what can be added to hot water to help sanitization
scrubbing with detergent
what temp and time must boiling water be at to disinfect
max temp. 212F or 100C for 3 hours
what does boiling for 10 min do
destroy vegetative bacteria
effective disinfectant set at 212F for 30-45 min used to clean large scale things
free flowing steam
when properly used this kills all forms of microbial life including spores and cysts
autoclaves
how should packs be placed into an autoclave
verticle
what is the ideal time, temp, and psi of an autoclave
250-270F, 30min, 15psi
what is the minimum amount of time an item can be sterilized in the autoclave
15 min
when can the autoclave door be opened
212F and 0psi
how long is an autoclaves dry cycle
1 hr
what is the time, temp, and psi for flash sterilization
3-4 min, unwrapped at 270-272F, 32 psi
what type of sterilization will not rust or corrode needles or sharp insturments
drying
although drying inhibits growth of MO’s it may also increase dispersal of what
particles containing viable microbes if not cleaned ASAP
what can partially burnt lumps of incinerated items do
contain and protect MO’s
what are the 3 advantages of hot air ovens
economical, doesn’t dull edges, no corrosion
what are hot air ovens used for
sterilize oil, gel, powder, wax, glassware, and surgical sharps
disadvantages of hot air ovens
takes longer, paper and cloth are scorched, plastic and rubber melt
what temp and time is the hot air oven set at
340F, 1-3 hrs depending on material
most common chemical classifications
gluteraldehyde and chlorhexidine
what sterilizes hard surfaces and instruments by immersion
gluteraldehyde
what is carcenogenic to living tissue
gluteraldehyde
how often should gluteraldehyde be changed
weekly or by 14 days
what chemical can be used on living tissue
chlorhexidine
what is used on items that cannot tolerate high temps
gasses
what are the 2 most common gas agents
ethylene oxide and hydrogen peroxide gas plasma
what is used primarily in industries, institutions, and military
ethylene oxide
what inactivates DNA
ethylene oxide
what are 3 advantages of ethylene oxide
lower temp, excellent penetration, effective microbicide
what is a slow, flammable, poisonous, mutagenic, and carcinogenic gas
ethylene oxide
how long does an ethylene oxide cycle take
12-24 hrs
what gas is safer for personnel and environment
hydrogen peroxide gas plasma
what gas cannot penetrate walls of an insturment
hydrogen peroxide gas plasma
what are the 4 types of sterilization indicators
chemical, autoclave tape, biological, and misc.
what indicators respond to time and temp by color change
chemical
what does a chemical stripe indicate
sterility and processing of an item
what does not indicate sterility but only that the pack may have been processed
autoclave tape
what are vials or paper strips impregnated with bacillus stearothermophilus
biological indicators
where are biological indicators used
in mass production sterilization
how long can biological indicators take for results
up to 2 days
what does a purple or red biological indicator mean
no growth
what refers to soaking objects in a disinfectant solution
cold sterilization
is sterility garunted with cold sterilization
no
what is cold sterilization used for
“dirty” or minor procedures and items that shouldn’t be autoclaved
how long should items soak in cold sterilization solution
minimum of 15 min
how long must items soak in cold sterilization for to be “sterile”
3 hours (may require 12 hrs)
how often should cold sterilization solution be changed
at least every 2 weeks
what should be used if allergic to chlorhexadines and iodines
phenols
what is quaternary ammonium
disinfectant
what should never be mixed with bleach
quaternary ammonium
what can cause acute asthmatic attacks and instant death if in a large enough amount
quaternary ammonium
what is effective against bacteria but not spores or viruses
quaternary ammonium
what is an aldehyde
disenfectant
what is commonly used in cold trays
gluteraldehyde
what are alcohols
disinfectant or antiseptic
what can be painful, cytotoxic and can chill patients
alcohol
what % isopropyl should not be used on patients
99%
what are halogens
disinfectant or antiseptic
what takes a 1/30 dilution to kill viruses including parvo
chloride compounds
what should only be used on intact skin that’s not common in vet fields
iodines
what is iodine combined with
a carrier molecule
what are idophors available as
scrubs or soution
what is the difference between scrubs and solution
scrub contains detergent solution does not
what is a biguanides
disinfectant and antiseptic
what is nolvasan solution used on
living tissue
when is nolvasan solution often used
during dental to wipe gums and teeth and in cold trays/packs
what is nolvasan-s
disenfectant
