1: Fracture Flashcards

1
Q

Most affected age range for traumatic fractures

A

5-14 years (accidents)

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2
Q

Two most commonly fractured bones of the UE with traumatic fractures

A

Radius and ulna

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3
Q

Type of fracture that most commonly occurs in the lower extremity and affects the tibial shaft and metatarsal bones

A

Stress/fatigue fracture

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4
Q

Female recruits are at increased risk for ___ and ___ stress fracture

A

Pelvic and sacral

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5
Q

Risk factors for pelvic stress fracture

A

Wide pelvis, coxa vara, genu valgum, hormones, nutrition

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6
Q

Occur because of forceful heel strike during prolonged marching or running

A

Compressive stress fractures

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7
Q

Occur because of muscle pull and can become more serious if displacement occurs.

A

Distractive stress reactions

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8
Q

Occurs if normal stress is applied to abnormal bone.
▪ Result from a normal stress or force acting on bone that has deficient elastic resistance or has been
weakened by decreased mineralization

A

Insufficiency fracture

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9
Q

Reduced bone integrity most commonly occurs due to:

A

▪ The effects of radiation
▪ Postmenopausal osteoporosis
▪ Corticosteroid-induced osteoporosis
▪ Other underlying metabolic bone disease (e.g., hyperparathyroidism, osteomalacia, rickets, and osteodystrophy)

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10
Q

Occurs in bone rendered abnormally fragile by
neoplastic or other disease conditions.

A

Pathological fracture

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11
Q

The fracture line is at a right angle to the long axis of the bone; usually produced
by shearing force.

A

Transverse fracture

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12
Q

Occur following a twisting or torsional force fragments displace easily in the
oblique fracture, whereas nonunion rarely occurs in a spiral fracture because ofthe wide area of surface contact.

A

Oblique or spiral

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13
Q

The bone is broken into more than two fragments and segmental if a fragment of the free bone is present between the main fragments

A

Comminuted

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14
Q

describes a fracture with multiple fragments at the fracture site and can be associated with different fracture lines

A

Comminuted

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15
Q

The separation of a wedge-shaped piece of bone

A

Butterfly

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16
Q

Green stick, Torus (or buckle), and crack or hairline fractures are all types of ___ fractures

A

Incomplete

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17
Q

____ fractures are more likely to require
surgery to stabilize them.

A

Unstable

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18
Q

True or false: compressive or shear forces can cause stable fractures to shift, becoming unstable

A

True

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19
Q

Occurs in the growth centers of children and adolescents, located in the long bones

A

Epiphyseal fracture

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20
Q

An articular fracture occurs on or near
a ____ and is described by the course
of the fracture line.

21
Q

One of the most common
osteoporosis-related fragility fractures; often occurs with only minor trauma

A

Vertebral compression fracture (VCF)

22
Q

Only ______ of people who sustain a VCF develop symptoms severe enough to seek medical attention.

23
Q

Bone mass is known to reach its maximum
size and density by reaching age ___ years

24
Q

Men are more likely to experience bone
loss in their mid- to late ___

25
Q

List the 5 steps in fracture healing

A
  1. Hematoma formation
  2. Cellular proliferation
  3. Callous formation
  4. Ossification
  5. Consolidation and remodeling
26
Q

What happens in initial 6-12 hours of fracture healing

A

Bleeding ceases and a clot is formed

27
Q

What happens in day 1-2 of fracture healing

A

There is an acute inflammatory reaction and granulation tissue is formed

28
Q

What happens in weeks 1-3 of fracture healing

A

Osteogenesis, fibrous union, and callus formation occur.

29
Q

What happens in week 6 of fracture healing

A

There is continuity of the external callus

30
Q

What happens in 4 months - 1 year of fracture healing

A

There is remodeling of the medullary canal and organized lamellar bone

31
Q

What factors hinder proper fracture healing

A

Inadequate blood supply.
▪ Poor general nutritional status.
▪ Poor apposition of the fractured bone ends.
▪ Presence of foreign bodies, infection, or necrotic tissue.
▪ Corticosteroid therapy

32
Q

In the presence of a fatigue fracture (stress reaction), active movement is typically painful or painless

33
Q

Vertebral compression fractures are usually painful or painless

34
Q

When VCF are painful, the initial pain may be ___ and ___, but after a few days it may become dull and achy.

A

Sharp and severe

35
Q

Fracture associated with height and respiratory dysfunction

A

Vertebral compression fracture

36
Q

The fracture may heal in the expected amount of time but in an unsatisfactory
position, with residual bony deformity.

37
Q

The fx may heal, but this may take considerably longer than the expected time.

A

Delayed union

38
Q

The fx may fail to heal with resultant formation of either a fibrous union or a false
joint (pseudarthrosis).

39
Q

The fat globules from the bone marrow (or from the subcutaneous tissue at the fracture site) migrate to the lung parenchyma and can block pulmonary vessels, decreasing alveolar diffusion of oxygen.

A

Fat embolism

40
Q

Fracturing which bones puts a patient at risk for developing a fat embolism

A

Long bones, bony pelvis (contain the most marrow)

41
Q

Constipation, deep vein thrombosis, pulmonary embolism, and pneumonia can occur due to ___ caused by the fracture

A

Immobility

42
Q

Autogenous bone grafting Is most often taken from the ___ or ___

A

Iliac crest or fibula

43
Q

____ bone grafting is material from a donor

44
Q

fractures in children heal in _____ weeks, in adolescents in 6 to 8 weeks,
and in adults in 10 to 18 weeks

45
Q

fractures in children heal in 4 to 6 weeks, in adolescents in ______ ,
and in adults in 10 to 18 weeks

46
Q

fractures in children heal in 4 to 6 weeks, in adolescents in 6 to 8 weeks,
and in adults in ____ weeks

A

10-18 weeks

47
Q

Negative predictors for healing

A

• Medications: Calcium channel blockers and NSAIDs
• Renal or vascular insufficiency
• Smoking
• Alcoholism
• Diabetes mellitus

48
Q

Symptoms related to fat embolism
▪ Subtle changes in behavior and orientation occur if there are emboli in the cerebral circulation.
▪ Dyspnea and chest pain, diaphoresis, pallor, or cyanosis.
▪ A rash on the _______

A

▪ A rash on the anterior chest wall, neck, axillae, and shoulders