1: Fracture Flashcards

1
Q

Most affected age range for traumatic fractures

A

5-14 years (accidents)

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2
Q

Two most commonly fractured bones of the UE with traumatic fractures

A

Radius and ulna

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3
Q

Type of fracture that most commonly occurs in the lower extremity and affects the tibial shaft and metatarsal bones

A

Stress/fatigue fracture

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4
Q

Female recruits are at increased risk for ___ and ___ stress fracture

A

Pelvic and sacral

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5
Q

Risk factors for pelvic stress fracture

A

Wide pelvis, coxa vara, genu valgum, hormones, nutrition

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6
Q

Occur because of forceful heel strike during prolonged marching or running

A

Compressive stress fractures

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7
Q

Occur because of muscle pull and can become more serious if displacement occurs.

A

Distractive stress reactions

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8
Q

Occurs if normal stress is applied to abnormal bone.
▪ Result from a normal stress or force acting on bone that has deficient elastic resistance or has been
weakened by decreased mineralization

A

Insufficiency fracture

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9
Q

Reduced bone integrity most commonly occurs due to:

A

▪ The effects of radiation
▪ Postmenopausal osteoporosis
▪ Corticosteroid-induced osteoporosis
▪ Other underlying metabolic bone disease (e.g., hyperparathyroidism, osteomalacia, rickets, and osteodystrophy)

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10
Q

Occurs in bone rendered abnormally fragile by
neoplastic or other disease conditions.

A

Pathological fracture

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11
Q

The fracture line is at a right angle to the long axis of the bone; usually produced
by shearing force.

A

Transverse fracture

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12
Q

Occur following a twisting or torsional force fragments displace easily in the
oblique fracture, whereas nonunion rarely occurs in a spiral fracture because ofthe wide area of surface contact.

A

Oblique or spiral

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13
Q

The bone is broken into more than two fragments and segmental if a fragment of the free bone is present between the main fragments

A

Comminuted

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14
Q

describes a fracture with multiple fragments at the fracture site and can be associated with different fracture lines

A

Comminuted

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15
Q

The separation of a wedge-shaped piece of bone

A

Butterfly

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16
Q

Green stick, Torus (or buckle), and crack or hairline fractures are all types of ___ fractures

A

Incomplete

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17
Q

____ fractures are more likely to require
surgery to stabilize them.

A

Unstable

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18
Q

True or false: compressive or shear forces can cause stable fractures to shift, becoming unstable

A

True

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19
Q

Occurs in the growth centers of children and adolescents, located in the long bones

A

Epiphyseal fracture

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20
Q

An articular fracture occurs on or near
a ____ and is described by the course
of the fracture line.

21
Q

One of the most common
osteoporosis-related fragility fractures; often occurs with only minor trauma

A

Vertebral compression fracture (VCF)

22
Q

Only ______ of people who sustain a VCF develop symptoms severe enough to seek medical attention.

23
Q

Bone mass is known to reach its maximum
size and density by reaching age ___ years

24
Q

Men are more likely to experience bone
loss in their mid- to late ___

25
List the 5 steps in fracture healing
1. Hematoma formation 2. Cellular proliferation 3. Callous formation 4. Ossification 5. Consolidation and remodeling
26
What happens in initial 6-12 hours of fracture healing
Bleeding ceases and a clot is formed
27
What happens in day 1-2 of fracture healing
There is an acute inflammatory reaction and granulation tissue is formed
28
What happens in weeks 1-3 of fracture healing
Osteogenesis, fibrous union, and callus formation occur.
29
What happens in week 6 of fracture healing
There is continuity of the external callus
30
What happens in 4 months - 1 year of fracture healing
There is remodeling of the medullary canal and organized lamellar bone
31
What factors hinder proper fracture healing
Inadequate blood supply. ▪ Poor general nutritional status. ▪ Poor apposition of the fractured bone ends. ▪ Presence of foreign bodies, infection, or necrotic tissue. ▪ Corticosteroid therapy
32
In the presence of a fatigue fracture (stress reaction), active movement is typically painful or painless
Painless
33
Vertebral compression fractures are usually painful or painless
Painless
34
When VCF are painful, the initial pain may be ___ and ___, but after a few days it may become dull and achy.
Sharp and severe
35
Fracture associated with height and respiratory dysfunction
Vertebral compression fracture
36
The fracture may heal in the expected amount of time but in an unsatisfactory position, with residual bony deformity.
Malunion
37
The fx may heal, but this may take considerably longer than the expected time.
Delayed union
38
The fx may fail to heal with resultant formation of either a fibrous union or a false joint (pseudarthrosis).
Nonunion
39
The fat globules from the bone marrow (or from the subcutaneous tissue at the fracture site) migrate to the lung parenchyma and can block pulmonary vessels, decreasing alveolar diffusion of oxygen.
Fat embolism
40
Fracturing which bones puts a patient at risk for developing a fat embolism
Long bones, bony pelvis (contain the most marrow)
41
Constipation, deep vein thrombosis, pulmonary embolism, and pneumonia can occur due to ___ caused by the fracture
Immobility
42
Autogenous bone grafting Is most often taken from the ___ or ___
Iliac crest or fibula
43
____ bone grafting is material from a donor
Allogenic
44
fractures in children heal in _____ weeks, in adolescents in 6 to 8 weeks, and in adults in 10 to 18 weeks
4-6 weeks
45
fractures in children heal in 4 to 6 weeks, in adolescents in ______ , and in adults in 10 to 18 weeks
6-8 weeks
46
fractures in children heal in 4 to 6 weeks, in adolescents in 6 to 8 weeks, and in adults in ____ weeks
10-18 weeks
47
Negative predictors for healing
• Medications: Calcium channel blockers and NSAIDs • Renal or vascular insufficiency • Smoking • Alcoholism • Diabetes mellitus
48
Symptoms related to fat embolism ▪ Subtle changes in behavior and orientation occur if there are emboli in the cerebral circulation. ▪ Dyspnea and chest pain, diaphoresis, pallor, or cyanosis. ▪ A rash on the _______
▪ A rash on the anterior chest wall, neck, axillae, and shoulders