1 Flashcards
True/False - Academy Cadets are exempted from FLSA.
False, a recent court ruling prohibited their exclusion from FLSA. Cant find
According to GO 0.1, Department Mission Statement and Organizational Value, what is the Mission of the CHP?
The mission of the California Highway Patrol is to provide the highest level of safety, service, and security to the people of California. This is accomplished through five departmental goals.
According to GO 0.1, Department Mission Statement and Organizational Value, the CHP mission is accomplished through five departmental goals, what are they?
- Prevent Loss of Life, Injuries, and Property Damage – To minimize the loss of life, personal injury, and property damage resulting from traffic collisions through enforcement, education, and engineering. To enforce the provisions of the California Vehicle Code and other laws to prevent crime.
- Maximize Service to the Public and Assistance to Allied Agencies – To maximize service to the public in need of aid or information, and to assist other public agencies when appropriate.
- Manage Traffic and Emergency Incidents – To promote the safe and efficient movement of people and goods throughout California, and to minimize exposure of the public to unsafe conditions resulting from emergency incidents and highway impediments.
- Protect Public and State Assets – To protect the public, their property, state employees, and the state’s infrastructure. To collaborate with local, state, and federal public safety agencies to protect California.
- Improve Departmental Efficiency – To continuously look for ways to increase the efficiency and/or effectiveness of departmental operations.
According to GO 0.1, Department Mission Statement and Organizational Value, what are the Organizational Values of the CHP?
Respect for others, Fairness, Ethical practices, Equitable treatment for all.
According to GO 0.1, Department Mission Statement and Organizational Value, what are the Organizational Values of the CHP?
Respect for others, Fairness, Ethical practices, Equitable treatment for all.
According to GO 0.2, Departmental Management Philosophies, what does the Department’s overall philosophy of enhancing public safety and service through a participative management program involve?
(1) Public Responsibility.
(2) Leadership and Innovation.
(3) Organizational Development.
(4) Personnel Development.
(5) Command Accountability.
According to GO 0.3, Courtesy Cards, Communications, and Badges, CHP personnel shall not issue which item(s) to anyone outside the Department?
CHP personnel shall not issue a badge or flatbadge resembling the official Departmental badge, or a courtesy card.
According to GO 0.3, Courtesy Cards, Communications, and Badges, a souvenir pin must be smaller than ____ in diameter.
1½ inches
True/False - According to GO 0.4, Designation of Alternate Commanders, all Division, office, section, and Area commanders shall designate a first and second alternate commander from within their immediate staff whenever possible. The alternate commander shall have full authority of the command and shall be responsible for its continued operation when acting for the commander.
True
According to GO 0.4, Designation of Alternate Commanders, what is the procedure for designating an alternate commander?
Commanders shall designate a first and second alternate in writing, copies shall be sent to levels above and below the author and the alternate commanders shall assume command in established sequence.
According to GO 0.4, Designation of Alternate Commanders, what are the procedures for providing on-call availability?
All commanders shall establish procedures to ensure that the commander or the designated alternate is available for telephone calls. Whenever commanders are away from their headquarters during duty hours and not in radio contact or available through a pager or cellular telephone, they shall leave an itinerary.
Field Division and Area commanders or alternates shall always be available for immediate contact through the appropriate communications center. The communications center shall be completely informed at all times regarding who is in command, and if the individual is available by radio, and the individual’s location, telephone, and pager numbers, when available.
Headquarters Division, office, and section commanders shall be exempt from designating an alternate that is available for telephone calls, providing they maintain a current telephone list available at the Sacramento Communications Center.
According to GO 0.7, Citizen Oversight Committee (COC), the Citizens’ Oversight Committee serves as an advisory body to the Commissioner. The Committee reviews departmental policies, procedures, training, reporting, and controls to determine consistency with the demands of public safety as well as legal, moral, and public expectations. The primary focus is to examine the Department’s Use of Force policies and procedures. Additional areas of concern may include, but are not limited to:
(1) Citizens complaint investigations;
(2) Equal employment opportunity issues;
(3) Management and supervisory practices;
(4) Personnel practices including selection and hiring procedures.
According to GO 0.7, Citizen Oversight Committee (COC), what is the Composition of the Citizens’ Oversight Committee?
The Committee is currently comprised of nine public members, one of which is designated as the Chairperson. In addition, the Commissioner appoints a Department Representative. The Representative will be at the rank of Assistant Chief or higher, active or retired. The Representative provides technical assistance, staff support, and serves as liaison with the Department; and does not have committee voting status.
According to GO 0.7, Citizen Oversight Committee (COC), when does the Citizens’ Oversight Committee meet?
The Committee meets at least bi-annually, and at other times as directed by the
Commissioner or deemed necessary by the Chairperson. To enhance Citizens’ Oversight Committee Members knowledge, meetings may be held in conjunction with major Departmental events or activities.
True/False - According to GO 0.7, Citizen Oversight Committee (COC), the Citizens’ Oversight Committee is authorized to inspect and review departmental files and documents necessary to achieve its responsibilities.
True, except where it is deemed inappropriate by departmental counsel. The obtaining of required information will be coordinated with affected commands by the Department Representative.
According to GO 0.8, Professional Values, when are the Professional values reviewed?
New Hire, Transfer, Annual Evaluation.
According to GO 0.8, Professional Values, what are the Professional values?
Courage, Honesty, Professionalism, Principles, Respect, Integrity, Dedication, Esprit De Corps (motto: CHP PRIDE)
According to GO 1.5, Meetings and Briefings, what would be the most likely date for a top management meeting?
The third week of odd numbered months (e.g., January, March, May).
According to GO 1.5, Meetings and Briefings, who conducts top management meetings?
Top Management Meetings are scheduled and conducted by the Commissioner/Deputy Commissioner.
According to GO 1.5, Meetings and Briefings, the Office of the Commissioner will request agenda items via Comm-Net or e-mail on the _______ working day of the month prior to the next Top Management Meeting.
first
e.g., requests for January agenda items will be solicited on the first working day in December
According to GO 1.5, Meetings and Briefings, agenda items for the top managers meeting are divided into 3 categories:
decision-making issues, problem solving issues, informational items.
According to GO 1.5, Meetings and Briefings, what order are the various meeting conducted in to disseminate the information down to the rank and file?
Field Division Commanders Conferences (FDCC) will normally be held in conjunction with Top Management. If additional time is needed, FDCCs will be scheduled for one or two days on either side of the Top Management Meeting. Division, Area, and Staff meetings are scheduled by individual Chiefs/Commanders and generally, Division meetings of Area Commanders will follow a FDCC.
According to GO 1.5, Meetings and Briefings, what are the reporting requirements for Area meetings?
A memorandum will be prepared which will include the following:
(a) Total work hours expended.
(b) Persons present, but not assigned to the Area command.
(c) Agenda items:
1 Comments on items from the Field Division Commanders Conference.
2 Comments on items from the Division Meeting of Area Commanders.
3 Items originated at the Area meeting.
4 Items derived from a Field Division Commanders Conference and a Division Meeting of Area Commanders need not be repeated or summarized. Reference to item numbers and titles is sufficient.
5 A signature block for the Area Commander.
Forward one copy of the meeting minutes to Division and a copy of Area meeting minutes is to be posted for five days in the respective Area office.
True/False - According to GO 1.5, Meetings and Briefings, uniformed employees absent from an Area meeting shall be required to read and initial the posted copy of the Area meeting minutes.
True
What are the two top decision making levels in this Department?
Executive and Top Management.
According to GO 1.5, Meetings and Briefings, the decision-making model has how many categories of decision making?
Three
According to GO 1.5, Meetings and Briefings, what is a category 1 decision?
The Executive Management makes the decision without any input from Top Management.
According to GO 1.5, Meetings and Briefings, when Executive Management makes a decision without any input from top management it is a category _____.
one
According to GO 1.5, Meetings and Briefings, what is a category 2 decision?
The Executive Management obtains input from Top Management and then makes the decision.
When Executive Management makes the decision only after receiving and considering input from top management. What category is it?
two
According to GO 1.5, Meetings and Briefings, what is a category 3 decision?
The Executive Management states the decision will be made by consensus of all Top Management with Executive Management by the consensus of the group.
According to GO 1.5, Meetings and Briefings, when Executive Management States in advance that the decision will be made by the consensus of all top management members. What category is it?
three
True/False - Smoking is prohibited in ALL State owned buildings.
False, State law and the State Administrative Manual (SAM) require that smoking shall be prohibited in all state-owned buildings or leased space, but they do not apply to stateowned housing that serves as the primary place of residence for state employees.
True/False – Smoking is prohibited in all State owned vehicles with enclosed driver/passenger areas.
True, Smoking is also prohibited in all state-owned passenger vehicles and mobile equipment to include light and heavy duty trucks, cargo and passenger vans, buses, and any other mobile equipment with an enclosed or enclosable driver/passenger compartment.
True/False – Regarding smoking, Atriums, balconies, stairwells, and patios are considered within buildings.
True
When smoking is prohibited in a building what are the requirements for the signs?
All buildings where smoking is prohibited shall have clearly displayed signs at all
entrances/exits and other conspicuous locations (i.e., bathrooms, lunchrooms, etc.). The (1)
Signs must read “NONSMOKING BUILDING” or “SMOKING NOT PERMITTED IN THIS BUILDING.” The universal “no smoking” symbol may also be used in conjunction with other written signage. The signs shall be written in English. If management personnel discern a need for signs written in another language, they may be produced in both English and a maximum of two (2) other languages. The signs must be placed on building accesses, shall be written in bold print, and readable from a distance of 25 feet.
In what areas is smoking permitted?
Outside of buildings in areas where smoking is not otherwise prohibited, Outside of buildings, at least 20 feet or more away from an entrance, exit, ground level air intake structure, or operable window of a building, State-owned housing that is primary residence of an employee.
True/False – Smoke breaks and regular rest breaks are synonymous. Both breaks shall not exceed the time allocated for regular breaks.
True
Who is responsible for ensuring compliance with the smoking policy?
Managers and Supervisors
True/False - The commander may allow smoking in open breezeways and atriums.
True, if the restrictions of the smoking policy jeopardize the safety of smoking employees, the Commander shall take into consideration all available alternatives when designating smoking/non-smoking areas. This may be necessary if the Command is located in a high risk area due to geographical location, high-crime, transient population, etc. The
Commander shall use his/her discretion in allowing smoking in open breezeways, atriums, and fenced or similarly shielded areas for employee protection. The safety and security of all employees must be considered as well as adverse impacts to non-smoking employees.
All State offices are required to be open for the purpose of transacting business during the hours of:
0800-1700 except Saturdays, Sundays and legal holidays.
If a Commander desires to extend office hours beyond those mandated by the Department and the affected employees and their representatives do not agree, who makes the final decision?
Commissioner
In cases where staffing the office during a lunch or break period would require taking a sergeant or traffic Officer off patrol assignment, what procedures shall be taken?
The office shall be temporarily closed, a sign indicating opening hours and emergency telephone information shall be posted.
Who may authorize a lunch break to be less than one half hour?
Under no circumstances are lunch breaks to be less than 1/2 hour.
*Note - Personnel shall normally be assigned a one hour lunch period; however, commanders may schedule a shorter period at their discretion.
True/False - The federal law requires that a government agency which requests a social security number shall inform the individual whether or not that disclosure is voluntary or mandatory, by what statutory or other authority the number is solicited, and what uses will be made of it.
True
True/False - Officers normally should not be assigned as Acting Sergeant unless they are on the current Sergeants promotional list.
True
Officers assigned as acting sergeant which has the full range of sergeant duties and filling a void of an existing sergeant must be approved by _____________.
the Assistant Commissioner
An OIC shall only be appointed when ___ Traffic Officers will be on duty under his/her supervision.
two or more
Officers who perform as an OIC for _______ hours or more will receive a salary differential pay.
six
Acting Sergeants and OIC’s (are/are not) permitted to participate in the alternate work week
are not
True/False - In no event shall an off-duty Officer be assigned OIC on overtime status.
True
An OIC is not responsible for _______________.
the review process and/or signature approval of the CHP 415 or CHP 415D’s
All hours as an OIC are to be entered on the CHP 415 under the regular work shift column in the “O.I.C. time on” box. Actual time spent performing supervisory duties should be taken under beat ____ in the activity time column.
822
True/False - Supervisors must provide an employee wishing to express breast milk for their infant child an enclosed room, other than a restroom, that is away from public view and provides privacy.
True
According to GO 7.1, Validation Process for the National Crime Information Center Report, the Federal Bureau of Investigation’s NCIC is a nationwide, computerized criminal justice information system accessible by any federal, state and local criminal justice agency. The information contained within the NCIC system includes:
(1) Wanted persons.
(2) Missing persons.
(3) Stolen property (e.g., vehicles, boats, or guns).
According to GO 7.1, Validation Process for the National Crime Information Center Report, the NCIC and the California Department of Justice Information System (CJIS) require a monthly validation of the records listed in the NCIC report by the originating agency identifier (ORI). The validation process is crucial in order to maintain the accuracy of the NCIC records. Records subject to validation are those which have been in the file for _______ days and records entered in the same month of prior years.
60 to 90
*Note - The Department is required to forward to DOJ a validation certification of all California Highway Patrol (CHP) records within 30 days. Should the validation be tardy, DOJ will purge the CHP records in the NCIC report for the time period being validated.
According to GO 7.1, Validation Process for the National Crime Information Center Report, as soon as the NCIC validation report is received by field commands, local NCIC coordinators are required to certify the status of each record by reviewing the source documents and verifying that all records are still outstanding and all information entered is accurate. In addition to verifying each record with the source documents, the validation of vehicle, boat, fugitive, and missing person entries require that local commands _____________ the complainant, victim, prosecutor, court, motor vehicle registry files, or other appropriate source or individual involved.
consult
*Note - In the event attempts to contact the victim or complainant are unsuccessful, the entering authority must make a determination based on the best information and knowledge available as to whether or not to retain the original entry in file.
According to GO 7.1, Validation Process for the National Crime Information Center Report, all records must be compared during an NCIC validation report, with originating case documents, regardless of the age of the case or location of the originating documentation; however, recent consultation with the victim or complainant is not mandatory for entries not related to __________________.
vehicles, boats, fugitives, and missing persons
Limited Duty Assignments shall be used for which officers?
Allowing members time to recover from temporary illnesses, injuries, pregnancy or posttraumatic incident stress, Preventing economic hardship when a member has exhausted all payroll credits while awaiting disability retirement, Removing a member temporarily from full duty while medical s of capability to perform full duty are resolved. Removing a member temporarily from full duty at the direction of the Office of the Commissioner pending completion of an investigation of alleged misconduct by the member.
Limited duty cannot exceed six months unless:
Application in progress for disability retirement and economic hardship exists, AA requires more than six months, unusually urgent and compelling charitable need (approved by Commissioner)
A uniformed member of this Department (may/may not) be assigned to a permanent limited duty assignment if the injury was work related.
may not
Limited duty assignments should normally be limited to __________.
6 months
Extensions of limited duty assignments must be approved by:
Commissioner’s Office or appropriate Asst. Commissioner
Non-uniform Employees must be available for transfer and reporting within ____ calendar days.
30
Commander cannot reassign non-uniform employees within command in excess of ____ calendar days without the appropriate Assistant Commissioner approval.
30
Regarding non-uniform employees, transfers to field supervisory positions are by _____________.
departmental seniority
Regarding non-uniform employees, transfers to headquarters and field Division office positions are normally by administrative decision because special skill, knowledge, or experience is required and the assignments can assist employees in achieving upward mobility or career goals EXCEPT:
Seniority transfers take priority over other hiring methods for Communications Supervisor (CS) I/II and (Motor Carrier Specialist) MCS II positions in field Divisions.
Regarding non-uniform employees, a ___ day advance written notice is required by Government Code Section 19994.1 for administrative transfers required by the Department where relocation of the employee is reasonably expected.
60
*Note - This requirement may be waived by the employee in writing. *Note - Does not apply to employees who apply for a position
Regarding non-uniform employees, represented employees are limited to ______ location choices on their CHP 220 unless otherwise specified by the employee’s collective bargaining agreement. Non-represented non-uniform employees, employees may have up to _____ choices on their CHP 220.
2, 4,
*Note - Bargaining Unit 12 employees shall submit a CHP 220 for each location requested.
There is no limit on the number of location choices.
To cancel a request of transfer, non-uniform employees shall ____________.
shall send an e-mail notifying the CHVP transfer coordinator and “cc” his/her commander of his/her decision to cancel.
*The CHVP e-mail address for cancellations is “CHP_220_Cancellations.”
What is the order of priority for transfers for uniformed personnel?
Needs of the Department (i.e. bilingual), hardship, and seniority.
Satisfactory performance during the past ______ month(s) shall be a consideration for all uniformed personnel transfers.
12
*Note - Unsatisfactory performance may be cause for denial of a transfer request.
Lieutenant commanders and above will be required to remain a minimum of _______ in an assigned location, regardless of whether the assignment was the result of a transfer or promotion.
one year
Regarding uniformed personnel, Off-duty status (California Labor Code Section 4800.5 or sick leave) (can/can not) be grounds for denial of a transfer request and/or transfer.
can
*Note - The projected length of off-duty status and workload needs of the Area requested will be the primary concern. The final decision rests with the appropriate Assistant Commissioner.
In regards to uniformed personnel, who must complete probation prior to transfer?
Officers, Sergeants, and non-command Lieutenants.
True/False - Non-command lieutenants will be required to remain a minimum of six months in the assigned area.
False, uniformed personnel promoted to lieutenant or sergeant will be required to remain a minimum of one year in the assigned area.
Under the provisions of Department of Personnel Administration (DPA) Rule 599.676.1, lieutenant commanders and above who are required to relocate upon initial promotion may receive:
a two-step salary increase upon movement to the higher class.
In regards to uniformed personnel, designated managers (lieutenants and above) who relocate to a new assignment due to a transfer or promotion may be granted up to _____ days Administrative Time Off by their commander in order to move or attend to details associated with moving (e.g., locate housing, schools, sign mortgage or lease agreements, etc.). The time allowed need not be consecutive days.
five
Personnel Services Section (PSS) will not accept or process a CHP 220 (Request for Transfer, Annex B) from officers, sergeants, and non-command lieutenants more than ________ prior to the completion of their probationary period.
90 days
In regards to uniformed personnel, bilingual services position means a public contact position in departmental command locations where _______ percent or more of public contacts are with members of a group who either do not speak English or who are unable to effectively communicate in English because it is not their native language.
2.5%
Officers transferring on the basis of bilingual skills, where more senior officers have been bypassed in seniority, shall remain in the bilingual location for a minimum period of _____________.
one year
In regards to uniformed personnel, transfer requests shall be limited to ______ Area choices.
four
In regards to uniformed personnel, administrative assignments to headquarters are normally a minimum of ____months and a maximum of __________ months.
24, 48.
*Note - May be extended to 60 months by the Headquarters Division Commander. Over 60 by Commissioner.
True/False - Upon completion of a headquarters assignment, uniformed Officers will be administratively transferred to their last permanent assignment regardless of current seniority standing for that command or its position vacancies.
True
*Note - Upon request, an officer will be administratively transferred to any field command with a current position vacancy for which he/she has seniority-based transfer rights under the Collective Bargaining Unit 5 Agreement.
True/False - Upon completion of a headquarters assignment, Officers who promote to the rank of sergeant while assigned to headquarters do not have a mandatory right of return to their former command. They will be administratively transferred to any field command with a current position vacancy for which he/she has seniority-based transfer rights.
True
True/False - Upon completion of a headquarters assignment, Lieutenants and sergeants will be administratively transferred to their last permanent assignment regardless of their current seniority standing for that command, if a vacancy exists. However, upon request, a lieutenant or sergeant will be administratively transferred to any field command with a current position vacancy for which he/she has seniority-based transfer rights.
True
Qualities required for promotion to Lieutenant would include:
Demonstrated ability to motivate subordinates to carry out the Department’s objectives and education beyond an associate arts degree or equivalent number of college units is desirable.
Qualities required for promotion to Sergeant would include:
Demonstrated belief in the Departments objectives as evidence by performance as a road patrol officer, an associate of arts degree or equivalent number of college units and experience as OIC, FTO, or other special assignment experiences are desirable.
The Driver License Pull Notice Program allows the department to be informed if the driver license of a uniformed employee has been ________________, _____________, or ___________________.
suspended, revoked, or restricted
According to GO 10.15, Departmental Response to Parole Hearings, the Board of Prison Terms or a family member will occasionally notify the Area of a pending parole hearing for a convicted murderer a CHP officer. Areas receiving notification from other than headquarters should immediately forward a copy of the notice through channels to the ___________________.
Office of the Commissioner
According to GO 10.15, Departmental Response to Parole Hearings, the Board of Prison Terms or a family member will occasionally notify the Area of a pending parole hearing for a convicted murderer a CHP officer. If notice is verbally received, the Area should obtain all pertinent information and immediately relay the information through channels to the Office of the Commissioner. The Area should attempt to determine the following information:
- The reporting party’s information (name, address, phone number, relationship to victim, circumstance of their notification/source of information, etc.).
- Name of the offender.
- The California Department of Correction’s prisoner identification number (located on the official notice form directly under the subject’s name), if the reporting party possesses the Board of Prison *Terms’ notice.
- Name of the victim.
- Date of the offense.
- Date of the scheduled parole hearing.
- Location of the parole hearing (name, address and phone number of the prison facility).
True/False - According to GO 10.15, Departmental Response to Parole Hearings, when the Department is notified of a pending parole hearing for a convicted murderer of a CHP officer. The Office of the Commissioner will respond to the Board of Prison Terms expressing departmental concerns. The prosecutor of the county from which the prisoner was committed is the “sole” representative of the people at the hearing.
True
*Note - Communication between the prosecutor and the Department is paramount. In addition to the headquarters’ response, the Area commander or his/her designee shall personally contact the assigned prosecutor to convey departmental concerns.
True/False - According to GO 10.15, Departmental Response to Parole Hearings, attendance at the parole hearing for a convicted murderer a CHP officer is strictly limited by statute. Only the prosecutor, victim, next of kin and a designated “support” person may attend the hearing. CHP members are not permitted to attend parole hearings unless requested by the family as a “support” person.
True
*Note - Should a family member request a CHP member attend as a “support” person, attending personnel are reminded that comments and/or active participation are strictly prohibited. CHP members participating as “support” persons shall not wear the departmental uniform nor other indicia suggestive of departmental representation.
Location code consists of three digits:
1st digit = Division or Headquarters*, 2nd and 3rd digits = 2nd number is division & third is section or bureau or Field = 2nd and 3rd numbers designate Area. *Note - 01-19 are only used for Division Personnel, units and programs.)
According to GO 11.8, Payment of Membership Dues, what regulates the payment of membership dues for departmental employees?
The California Vehicle Code, Department of Personal Administration rules, and bargaining unit contracts.
According to GO 11.8, Payment of Membership Dues, per California Vehicle Code Section 2114, the Department is authorized to pay membership dues for organizations relating to law-enforcement, accident prevention, and subjects related to the powers and duties of the Department. Membership dues in community organizations (e.g., Mothers against Drunk Driving, Chambers of Commerce, etc.) or community service organizations (e.g., Rotary, Lions, etc.) (will/will not) be paid by the Department.
will not
True/False - According to GO 11.8, Payment of Membership Dues, per Department of Personnel Administration Rule 599.922.2, the Department is authorized to pay for membership dues of a professional organization which engages in activities directly related to a non-represented employee’s scientific or professional discipline.
True
*Note - Represented employees must refer to their current bargaining unit contract.
According to GO 11.8, Payment of Membership Dues, for payment of membership dues authorized by California Vehicle Code Section 2114, commanders shall determine whether the organization’s objectives meet the following criteria:
(1) Discussion of mutual problems in the field of administration of justice through regular meetings.
(2) Coordination of efforts and activities of law enforcement agencies within their jurisdictions.
(3) Promotion of programs to develop a better understanding of problems of law enforcement officers.
(4) Promotion of continuing productive relationships among the organization’s members and their respective departments.
According to GO 11.8, Payment of Membership Dues, for payment of membership dues authorized by Department of Personnel Administration Rule 599.922.2, commanders shall determine whether the organization’s objectives meet the following criteria:
(1) Must be job-related.
(2) Meets the best interest of the Department.
(3) Promotion of continuing productive relationships among the organization’s members and their respective departments.
(4) Discussion of mutual problems.
True/False - According to GO 11.8, Payment of Membership Dues, all uniformed employees are eligible to receive departmental funding for active membership in the CPOA.
True
True/False - According to GO 11.8, Payment of Membership Dues, the department will pay for a professional license fee (e.g., Certified Public Accountant) or membership in a job related professional society/association of the employee’s choice in accordance with the employees bargaining unit agreement.
True
According to GO 11.11, General Services “Blue” Credit Card Requests, the General services charge cards are used for the following:
(1) To obtain a state vehicle from any of the state garages.
(2) For taxi service in central Sacramento.
True/False - According to GO 11.11, General Services “Blue” Credit Card Requests, General Services credit cards are obtained by Accounting Section from DGS, Office of Fleet Administration. It is the responsibility of commands to maintain a record of the cards by billing code and serial numbers. Commands shall log the name of the person to whom the card is issued and ensure the card is returned after each use.
True
According to GO 11.11, General Services “Blue” Credit Card Requests, commands are required to complete an audit of cards issued to the Command annually. A CHP 23, DGS Credit Card Transmittal Log, shall be completed listing all cards issued to the command, returning unneeded cards and requesting replacement cards, if needed. The CHP 23s are due to Accounting Section _______.
June 1
According to GO 11.12, Operational Dial Telephone System, The Department of California Highway Patrol utilizes an Operational Dial Telephone (ODT) System, commonly known as the “__________,” as a supplementary method of communication.
green phone
True/False - According to GO 11.12, Operational Dial Telephone System, the “green phone” system is intended for the exchange of command level operational information during emergencies or natural disasters. The system is not intended to be a substitute for the service provided by the telephone company for conducting routine business.
True
True/False - According to GO 11.12, Operational Dial Telephone System, the Operational Dial Telephone (ODT) System is a state-owned system which uses the state microwave system and/or wire lines leased from the telephone company. The system consists of switchboards, installed at or near Division headquarters, and individual circuits installed at each Division and Area office and connected to the switchboards.
True
Departmental Succession is as follows:
Commissioner, Deputy Commissioner, A.C. Staff, A.C. Inspector General, A.C. Leadership Development and Communications, A.C. Field
According to GO 21.4, Notification of Kin, there is no statutory responsibility assigned to any specific entity for the notification to the next of kin of persons killed or seriously injured. However, the death or serious injury of a loved one presents an extremely emotional situation; therefore, departmental personnel (should/shall) assist in making notifications when appropriate.
should
True/False - According to GO 21.4, Notification of Kin, Area Commanders shall develop procedures for the prompt notification of the appropriate coroner’s office in the event of a death within CHP jurisdiction. Commanders shall consult with local coroners’ offices in the development of these procedures.
True
According to GO 21.4, Notification of Kin, Commanders should, when appropriate, honor requests for assistance in making notifications if personnel are available, but (should not/shall not) voluntarily assume the duties or responsibilities of coroners or hospitals
shall not
According to GO 21.4, Notification of Kin, departmental personnel charged with making death or injury notifications shall take care to exercise good judgment. Whenever possible, death notifications (should/shall) be made in person. Injury notifications may be made in person or by telephone, commensurate with the nature and sensitivity of the injury and incident.
shall
*Note - The notifying individual shall take extreme care to ensure that the proper person receives the information.
True/False - According to GO 21.7, Organizational Roster, CHP commands shall be responsible for checking the current roster and noting any command-level changes. These changes should be brought to the attention of the applicable roster OPI contact.
True
The Department (shall/should) cooperate with other agencies and may assist in notifying immediate family of people killed in traffic collisions investigated by the CHP. Injuries and death (shall/should) be promptly reported to CHP Communications Center for entry in the CHP 144 system.
shall, shall
Creation, abolition, or permanent changes in strength of resident posts will be approved by __________.
Office of the Commissioner
True/False - Assignment or transfer to a resident post shall be made from personnel within the Area having jurisdiction over the location.
True
An Officer requesting a transfer to a resident post within his/her command shall fill out a _________.
memo
The CHP 155, report of assigned personnel and equipment, should be submitted by the Area Commander to the Division by the ______ day of each month.
10th
Copies of the CHP 155 shall be retained in Area and Division files for what period of time?
Current year plus 1 year.
According to GO 22.5, which supervisor information shall be included on the CHP 155, report of assigned personnel and equipment?
Supervisors off duty and on limited duty will be included in the count on the front of the form and their names and status will be noted in the “remarks” section of the form.
According to GO 32.1, Live Scan Terminals, The Live Scan (LS) terminals are intended for the sole function of fingerprinting persons for certification, licensing, or employment purposes as required by the following departmental programs:
the School Pupil and Farm Labor Transportation Safety Program, Cadet Selection Program and Nonuniform Personnel Hiring, Freeway Service Patrol Program, RSPV programs, and Transportation Management Center Program.
*Note - The LS terminals shall not be used for any other purpose. No additional software shall be loaded on this device.
According to GO 32.1, Live Scan Terminals, Divisions and Area offices where Live Scan (LS) terminals are located shall designate a person at that location as the in-house LS Specialist. Divisions and Areas shall submit to Enforcement Services Division (ESD), Commercial Vehicle Section (CVS), the name of the LS Specialist no later than five days after designation. The in-house LS Specialist will have primary custodial responsibilities for, but not limited to:
the use, operation, security, maintenance, and Check-Out System of LS terminals. The LS Specialist will also have responsibility for the training of any Division or Area personnel who will be operating the LS terminals.
According to GO 32.1, Live Scan Terminals, Divisions and Areas with Live Scan (LS) terminals on-site must establish a Check-Out System to account for the use of LS terminals off-site. The system shall include, at a minimum:
The name of the person checking out the LS terminal, the location where the LS terminal will be used, the related program, and the expected date of return.
According to GO 32.1, Live Scan Terminals, All field Divisions shall forward reports by memorandum to Enforcement Services Division (ESD), Commercial Vehicle Section (CVS) regarding the use of the Live Scan (LS) terminals within that Division. Reports should be forwarded every six months for the first year; and then annually thereafter, no later than March 1 of each year. The report should cover issues associated with ___________the use of the terminal (e.g., number of times used by program, training, security, maintenance, problems encountered, problems resolved, benefits or disadvantages of the LS terminals).All requests for cooperation in research projects submitted by outside agencies shall be routed to which office?
Special Projects Section (SPS).
True/False - Caltrans speed surveys consist of 24-hour data collection sessions using automatic speed recording equipment instead of radar.
True
Enforcement action (should/should not) be taken on the basis of radar readings obtained during the Departmental speed monitoring process.
should not
What is the definition of the “85th percentile speed”?
The speed at, or below which 85 percent of all drivers operate their vehicles on a particular stretch of roadway.
Regarding speed monitoring, what is the definition of the “10 MPH pace?”
The 10 MPH range of speeds that contain the most vehicles. *Note - There are several ways to measure how variable the speeds are at which motorists travel. A common measurement of variability is the “pace” which is the 10 mph range of speeds that contains the most vehicles. This statistic is useful in estimating collision frequency because collisions are more common when motorists are traveling at many different speeds.
What is the definition of a “combined use highway?”
A portion of highway on which off-highway vehicles may travel.
According to section 38026 of the Vehicle Code (VC), which of the following agencies may designate a portion of highway for combined use?
A local authority, an agency of the federal government, or the director of the Department of parks and recreation (subject to CHP approval).
A highway segment, designated for combined use, cannot exceed ______ in length.
3 Miles
True/False - GO 40.6, Departmental Grants Program, is to provide alternative funding sources to conduct activities consistent with the mission of the California Highway Patrol.
True
True/False - According to GO 40.6, Departmental Grants Program, the Department will actively explore available sources of grant funding from federal and state only. Private sources of grant funding will not be utilized.
False, the Department will actively explore all available sources of grant funding: federal, state, and private.
According to GO 40.6, Departmental Grants Program, all headquarters and field commands (should/shall) develop a system for identifying programs to which grant funds can be applied.
should
According to GO 40.6, Departmental Grants Program, if an Office, Area, Section, or Division Commander becomes aware that another agency or organization is proposing or has submitted a grant application to a funding agency other than California Office of Traffic Safety (OTS) that appears to focus on traffic safety goals clearly within the jurisdiction of the Department (i.e., proposes to reduce collisions, provides child safety seats at checkups, bike helmets at bicycle rodeos, purchasing radar units for traffic enforcement in the county, etc.), what step(s) should be taken immediately:
Contact Grants Management Section (GMS) with basic information relative to the proposal, and notify Assistant Commissioner Field or Staff through channels as soon as possible.
True/False - According to GO 40.6, Departmental Grants Program, Highway Safety Act funds cannot be used for program maintenance, research, highway design, construction, or maintenance.
True
According to GO 40.6, Departmental Grants Program, the following are the National Highway Traffic Safety Administration (NHTSA) priority program areas that have been identified as having the greatest potential for reducing collisions:
Alcohol and Other Drug Countermeasures (Impaired Driving), Police Traffic Services, Occupant Protection, Emergency Medical Services, Motorcycle Safety, Pedestrian and Bicycle Safety, Roadway Safety, Speed Control, and Traffic Records
True/False - According to GO 40.6, Departmental Grants Program, in approximately June of each year, the Grants Management Section (GMS) shall prepare a Management Memorandum to all commanders soliciting participation in the Department’s Highway Safety Plan (HSP).
True, Participation may be in the form of submitting a traffic safety project which addresses a statewide problem or a problem indigenous to a particular Division or Area command.
According to GO 40.7, Golf Cart Crossing Zones and Transportation Plans, Section 21115.1 of the Vehicle Code (VC), as amended September 30, 1992, established criteria for permitting a local authority to establish crossing zones for use by golf carts. In unincorporated areas, establishment of these crossing zones is subject to the California Highway Patrol’s (CHP) approval. Each crossing zone must meet the following criteria:
(1) Use of the crossing zone is prohibited during hours of darkness.
(2) The posted speed on the highway crossed does not exceed 45 mph.
(3) The highway is immediately adjacent to a golf course.
(4) The crossing is at an angle of approximately 90 degrees to the direction of the roadway.
According to GO 40.7, Golf Cart Crossing Zones and Transportation Plans, effective January 1, 2005, cities and counties may adopt golf cart transportation plans by ordinance or resolution after receiving prior approval by the appropriate transportation planning agency. Golf cart transportation plans shall not include the use of any state highways or portion thereof, except that a crossing of, or a golf cart lane along, a state highway may be included in the plan, if authorized by the ____________________ and the law enforcement agency having primary traffic enforcement responsibility of that highway or portion thereof.
California Department of Transportation
According to GO 40.7, Golf Cart Crossing Zones and Transportation Plans, all requests for approval of golf cart crossing zones or golf cart transportation plans received by an Area command shall be forwarded to the appropriate field Division commander within ________ days. The request will be accompanied by comments and recommendations from the Area commander concerning potential traffic safety hazards.
28 calendar
According to GO 40.7, Golf Cart Crossing Zones and Transportation Plans, request for approval of golf cart crossing zones or golf cart transportation plans will be accompanied by comments and recommendations from the Area commander concerning potential traffic safety hazards. The Area commander shall also:
(1) Ensure that the appropriate traffic engineer has been consulted and concurs with the Area commander’s recommendation. This consultation shall be documented and the documentation shall be retained in file to minimize any future liability on the state’s part.
(2) Include a proposed letter of reply from the Division commander to the county administrator.
* Note - Any request initially communicated to CHP Headquarters or a field Division will be forwarded directly to the appropriate Area command for the comments and recommendations.
If a pursuit results in a collision involving a pursuing unit, a ___________, is also required.
CHP 208, Accident Prevention Report
True/False - According to GO 40.10, Pursuit Reporting Procedures, in order for an Area to start documenting pursuit minutes and mileage, the pursuit must be within Area boundaries and have at least one officer from that Area involved or be the only Area involved in a pursuit out of the officers home Area boundaries. That Area will continue to document the pursuit miles and minutes (whether or not the pursuit leaves the Area) until another Area/agency meets the criteria to start documenting. If the initiating officer is out of Area, that officer’s home Area will document time and mileage until another Area or agency meets the criteria stated in this paragraph.
True
According to GO 40.10, Pursuit Reporting Procedures, When a pursuit includes an allied agency, their involvement shall be documented on the Area Specific Information page and within the Summary of the CHP pursuit report, by the applicable CHP Area. When involved in a multi-agency pursuit, the involved CHP Area supervisor (should/shall) remind the allied agency representative of their responsibility to submit a CHP 187, Pursuit Report.
shall
According to GO 40.10, Pursuit Reporting Procedures, Area commanders shall review each pursuit report entered into the Pursuit Reporting System (PRS) to determine compliance with Department policy. The Area review process shall include review of supporting documents to ensure concurrence with the pursuit report and be completed within ________ days following the date of occurrence. Notification shall be made to Division once the report has been approved by the Area commander and coded as Pending Division Review (PD) in the PRS.
10 calendar
According to GO 40.10, Pursuit Reporting Procedures, each Area shall include routing and notification procedures in the Area Standard Operating Procedures, and conduct ______________ Pursuit Reporting System (PRS) audits for pursuits occurring within their respective Areas to ensure pursuits are completed within the given time frames.
quarterly
US and CA Flags (shall/should) be displayed at all offices. The CHP flag may be displayed Except in inclement weather, flags should be flown from ____________.
sunrise to sunset
True/False - A flag may be flown at night under certain conditions.
True, if illuminated and the office is open.
Whenever the National Anthem is played, the correct procedure for Officers in formation is:
all Officers in the formation will remain facing toward their original front. The Commanding Officer will render the hand salute for the members of the formation
True/False - Flags shall be flown at half-mast on Memorial Day.
True
When present at official functions, but not in formation, uniform members shall hand salute the Colors. The salute shall be rendered when the approaching Colors are approximately ______ feet away and shall be held until the Colors have passed.
18
Each Division (shall/should) have a Special Honor Detail Squad with a minimum of _____ sergeants and _________ officers.
shall, two, 20
According to GO 70.3, Funerals and Special Ceremonies – CHP Participation, Departmental representation and/or Special Honors Detail functions may be requested for the funeral/memorial service of the following personnel:
(1) Active or retired uniformed and nonuniformed employees.
(2) Immediate family members of active uniformed and nonuniformed employees.
(3) Other law enforcement officers.
(4) Public officials.
(5) Other official requests.
According to GO 70.3, Funerals and Special Ceremonies – CHP Participation, how many uniformed and/or non-uniformed employees may attend a funeral for an immediate family member of a CHP employee on State time?
Four
According to GO 70.3, Funerals and Special Ceremonies – CHP Participation, when shall a CHP 415 shall be submitted by uniformed employees at funerals?
(1) Honor guard.
(2) Escort duty.
(3) Active pallbearer.
According to GO 70.3, Funerals and Special Ceremonies – CHP Participation, overtime and/or travel expenses (are/are not) allowed for funerals.
are
*Note - When directed by the Commissioner to perform as a Departmental representative, Honor guard or escort duty, Active pallbearer.
CHP participation at funerals: Upon notification of funeral services for a deceased employee, an employee of a rank __________________ than the deceased shall attend the funeral to represent the Department.
equal to or greater
(T/F) - According to GO 70.4, Participation in Community Events by Department Employees, it is the responsibility of the commander to ensure participation is consistent with the organizational values established and supported by the Department. Participation will normally be approved only for events with a direct relationship to the mission of the CHP.
True
According to GO 70.4, Participation in Community Events by Department Employees, CHP employees (shall/shall not) participate while on-duty in parades, community or organization celebrations, or advocacy events without prior approval of their commander.
shall not
According to GO 70.5, CHP Pistol Team, official team participation shall be limited to _____ in-state matched for the blue team and _____ in-state matches for the gold team.
4, 2
According to GO 70.5, CHP Pistol Team, each pistol team member will be allowed up to ____day(s) State time for each of the selected matches.
2
According to GO 70.5, CHP Pistol Team, The __________ is responsible for the Department-level competition.
Office of the Academy (Academy)
According to GO 70.11, Television and Graphic Services, requests for routine work may be submitted directly to the Television or Graphic Services Unit supervisors for the service desired. Routine services are defined as:
those which require no overtime hours or less than eight hours of staff time to complete. Requests will be acted upon in the order received.
According to GO 70.11, Television and Graphic Services, requests for any graphics, photographic, or video production services requiring more than eight hours or use of overtime by Academy staff to complete shall be made by memorandum or e-mail and routed to the Departmental Training Division (DTD) commander. These request are deemed as:
“Major Projects”
True/False - According to GO 70.11, Television and Graphic Services, mounted, 16” x 20” color or black and white photographic prints can be produced, by the Television Services and Graphic Services Units, for display in office areas accessible by the public such as a lobby.
True, the number of photographs which will be provided is determined by the amount of public wall space available. Requests for wall photographs shall be submitted by memorandum through channels to the Academy Graphic Services Unit.
According to GO 70.11, Television and Graphic Services, the Academy has a limited inventory of equipment available for loan including video, slide and overhead projectors, tape recorders, and public address systems. Generally, the maximum period of time equipment will be loaned to commands is __________.
two weeks
According to GO 70.11, Television and Graphic Services, when a videotape is used to record subject matter pertinent to criminal prosecution, the tape constitutes factual data and is to be treated the same as other evidence collected in the investigation. All videotapes used as evidence shall be identified with the ________________________.
date of recording, location, subject, and the name and I.D. number of the camera operator.
According to GO 70.11, Television and Graphic Services, the Department (will/will not) maintain, repair, or replace privately owned non-safety equipment.
will not
*Note - Personal audio-visual items such as cameras, video camcorders, and audio tape recorders should not normally be taken on routine patrol. Employees electing to use their own equipment do so at their own expense and risk.
According to GO 70.14, Police Officer Standards and Training, how many classroom hours of police training are required to make one training point towards a POST certificate?
20
According to GO 70.14, Police Officer Standards and Training, what is the minimum period of time required as a full time peace Officer for a basic POST certificate?
1 year
According to GO 70.14, Police Officer Standards and Training, how many college semester units are required for a supervisory certificate?
60
According to GO 70.14, Police Officer Standards and Training, how many college semester units are required for a management certificate?
60
According to GO 71.3, Cadet Ride-Along Program, each CHP cadet shall complete_______ 8 hour Area ride-along during a ride-along week as part of academy training.
one
True/False - According to GO 71.3, Cadet Ride-Along Program, CHP cadets shall ride in an Area assigned by academy staff.
False, cadets will ride as observers in the CHP Area office of their choice, commensurate with Area scheduling, availability, and the concurrence of the Academy.
According to GO 71.3, Cadet Ride-Along Program, ______ weeks prior to the ride-along week the academy will provide involved Areas with a memorandum listing the cadets assigned for the ride-along program.
Five
According to GO 71.3, Cadet Ride-Along Program, Cadets will be required to complete a memorandum describing their ride-along experience. The memorandum will be submitted to the Staff Office, no later than when?
0800 hours, two days after returning from the ride-along weekend.
According to GO 81.6, Investigative Informational Database Systems, due to the sensitive and confidential nature of the information within investigative informational database systems, a number of databases have been deemed:
right-to-know, need-to-know access only.
According to GO 81.6, Investigative Informational Database Systems, the CAL-Gangs Network System provides access to gang information via a secured Intranet access and maintained by?
Department of Justice
True/False - According to GO 81.6, Investigative Informational Database Systems, all uniformed personnel from the Department are allowed to obtain information from CALGangs and formal training is required to enter gang members into the system.
False, all uniformed personnel from the Department are allowed to obtain information from CAL-Gangs, but only personnel authorized and who have completed the required training through DOJ may actually access the system.
True/False - According to GO 81.6, Investigative Informational Database Systems, El Paso Intelligence Center Network cooperative effort established to collect, process and disseminate intelligence information concerning illicit drugs and currency movement, alien smuggling, weapons trafficking and related activity.
True
*Note - Access is generally limited to personnel assigned to FSS, ISU, drug task force members, PSD, and personnel assigned to other investigative duties. Uniformed personnel not authorized access, but who require information from EPIC, may contact their Division ISU local drug task force or FSS.
True/False - According to GO 81.6, Investigative Informational Database Systems, National Insurance Crime Bureau has an online data base.
True, NICB Online was established by insurance industry carriers to effectively assist law enforcement and the insurance industry in combating insurance fraud and vehicle theft activities nationwide.
True/False - According to GO 81.6, Investigative Informational Database Systems, NICB Online provides information relative to insurance claims, manufacturers’ shipping records, vehicle histories (including purged stolen vehicle records) and Vehicle Identification Number (VIN) locations for various manufacturers.
True, Access is generally limited to personnel assigned to ISU, VIN officers, Salvage Vehicle Inspection Officers, Area follow-up investigators, PSD personnel, and personnel assigned to other investigative duties. Uniformed personnel not authorized access, but who require information from NICB, may contact their Area VIN officer, Division ISU or FSS.
According to GO 81.6, Investigative Informational Database Systems, the Public Records Information Database System provides public information relative to:
Social Security numbers, bankruptcies, judgments, liens, real property ownership, corporations, and limited partnerships, as well as civil and criminal court docket scans.
According to GO 81.6, Investigative Informational Database Systems, __________________ allows authorized users to obtain parolee information in two ways from an extract of California Department of Correction’s Parole and Community Services Division Statewide Parolee Database.
Parole Law Enforcement Automated Data System (Parole LEADS). This system has been deemed a need-to-know, right-to-know system; therefore, personnel authorized to access Parole LEADS will be approved by their respective Divisions. Personnel authorized direct access will generally include those assigned criminal investigative duties.
According to GO 81.6, Investigative Informational Database Systems, The geographical area covered by Western States Information Network/Regional Information Sharing System (WSIN) includes the following states EXCEPT:
Nevada (includes: California, Oregon, Washington, Alaska, and Hawaii.)
*Note - WSIN maintains the Automated Criminal Intelligence Index, which provides its member agencies with quick access to accurate and timely intelligence information. Access is generally limited to personnel assigned to FSS, ISU, drug task force members, PSD personnel, and personnel assigned to other investigative duties.
True/False - According to GO 81.6, Investigative Informational Database Systems, California Photo Mugshot and Department of Motor Vehicles Image System (Cal-Photo) utilizes the secure DOJ communication network and adheres to the CLETS Policies, Practices and Procedures (PPPs). Users of Cal-Photo must have DOJ network connectivity.
True
True/False - According to GO 81.6, Investigative Informational Database Systems, All participants, non-uniformed and uniformed personnel, must be fingerprinted and have a fingerprint check response on file prior to being granted access to Cal-Photo.
True, additionally, it is required that each employee having access to Cal-Photo, sign the CLETS Employee/Volunteer Statement Form prior to operating or having access to CalPhoto.
True/False - According to GO 81.6, Investigative Informational databases, personnel authorized to use Cal-Photo may inquire into their own record or have someone inquire for them.
False, access to information through Cal-Photo is on a right-to-know and need-to-know basis. Authorized personnel SHALL NOT inquire into their own record or have someone inquire for them. Accessing and/or releasing Cal-Photo information for non-law enforcement purposes is prohibited and is subject to administrative action and/or criminal prosecution.
True/False - Cal-Photo is currently in early stages of development and only contains a limited number of mugshot photos to go along with the DMV photographs.
False, by combining DOJ’s more than 381,767 mugshot photos with the millions of local agency photographs and the 32 million DMV photos, Cal-Photo is one of the most expansive databases in the nation.
According to GO 85.1, Motorcycle Certificate of Compliance, Section 12804.9(f) CVC allows the DMV to accept a certificate of competence issued by a law enforcement agency _______________.
for its officers who operate class M vehicles in the performance of their duties in lieu of the skills test.
According to GO 85.1, Motorcycle Certificate of Compliance, members of this Department below the rank _______________ shall not issue a letter of competence stating that an employee is qualified to operate class M vehicles.
Assistant Commissioner
According to GO 100.3, Reporting Threats Against State Officials, where is the Protective Services Division (PSD), Dignitary Protection Section, (DPS) Threat Assessment Unit (TAU) located?
Los Angeles and Sacramento
According to GO 100.3, Reporting Threats Against State Officials, any action taken in response to a threat against a state official beyond initial response (should/shall) be coordinated through Protective Services Division (PSD), Dignitary Protection Section, (DPS) Threat Assessment Unit (TAU)
shall
According to GO 100.3, Reporting Threats Against State Officials, the responsibility for reporting any perceived threat against a state official lies at what level of command?
Any CHP employee
According to GO 100.3, Reporting Threats Against State Officials, Penal Code_____ makes it a felony to threaten a state official.
76 P.C.
According to GO 100.5, Regulated Devices, “The Department has adopted regulations in Title 13 California Code of Regulations (13 CCR), that establish standards and specs for lighting equipment listed in California Vehicle Code Section 375 ,_________ , safety glazing, safety _______ and sirens.
safety belts, helmets
According to GO 100.5, Regulated Devices, in 30 V.C. legislative policy states that
_________ and __________ are restricted to Authorized Emergency Vehicles (EAVs).
red lights, sirens
According to GO 100.5, Regulated Devices, other types of vehicles engaged in activity that creates hazards on the freeway should be equipped with ________ lights.
flashing amber warning
According to GO 100.5, Regulated Devices, “All Authorized Emergency Vehicles must have steady red light to the front,” _______ V.C.
25252
“Special Relationships” are established when peace officers:
(1) place a person in ______ or;
(2) effect or increase the risk of harm to a person by specific conduct or;
(3) make an _________ to undertake specific conduct on behalf of an individual member of the general public.
peril, expressed promise
When uniformed personnel have established a “Special Relationship” they (should/shall) remain at the scene until one or more of the following occur:
(1) They are properly relieved by departmental personnel.
(2) They have relinquished the _______ responsibilities to an on-scene representative of the governmental agency having primary responsibility for the incident.
(3) They have learned of a reasonably apparent emergency requiring their immediate attention elsewhere.
(4) They have received direction from a supervisor to assume duties elsewhere.
(5) Peace officer assistance and/or protection is no longer reasonably necessary.
should, scene management
Uniformed personnel shall not place motorists, passengers, or pedestrians in a position of ______________ from either traffic or other potentially hazardous factors after contact has been established.
foreseeable danger
Nothing in this Order shall be construed as requiring an officer to remain with a disabled motorist or other person ___________________, so long as there exists no reasonably foreseeable danger to the individual or other traffic.
after all reasonable steps have been taken to resolve the incident
Uniformed personnel are to exercise ________ for others once a Special Relationship has been established.
reasonable care
Every Area office (should/) shall participate in the Department’s CPS program by providing traffic safety presentations, conducting CSS check-up events, and operating Area Child Safety Seat Fitting Stations to better educate the public on child passenger safety.
shall
True/False - According to GO 100.10, Automated Photo Red-Light Enforcement, Commanders shall ensure adequate supervisory involvement and oversight of the program to ensure compliance of all other departmental policy and procedures.
True
According to GO 100.10, Automated Photo Red-Light Enforcement, Upon learning of any governmental agency interested in pursuing an automated photo red-light enforcement program within CHP jurisdiction, Area commanders shall ensure:
(a) The governmental agency understands the CHP has primary traffic enforcement jurisdiction at all intersections within the unincorporated county area.
(b) Division commanders are notified.
(c) The regulatory VC Sections listed in Annex A are reviewed.
(d) Communication with interested agencies is maintained.
(e) An initial assessment of the impact of the proposed automated photo red-light enforcement program is performed.
(f) The governmental agency is made aware of any limitations of implementing an automated photo red-light enforcement program before jointly undertaking a program proposal.
(g) All departmental prerequisites and conditions are satisfied before automated photo redlight enforcement may be implemented.
(h) A proposal for implementing an automated photo red-light enforcement program is prepared and submitted through the chain of command to the Office of Assistant Commissioner, Field (ACF).
True/False - According to GO 100.10, Automated Photo Red-Light Enforcement, Prior to implementing an automated photo red-light enforcement program, Area and Division commanders shall ensure that violation criteria are established specific to the photo system to be used in the program.
True
According to GO 100.10, Automated Photo Red-Light Enforcement, Areas which implementing an automated photo red-light enforcement program shall develop an internal SOP which includes, but is not limited to:
(1) Preparing the automated notice to appear after receiving the photographs from manufacturer/supplier via a secure internet program.
(2) Mailing the notice to appear to the violator via registered mail within 15 days. A copy is sent to the appropriate court for prosecution.
(3) Amending a notice to appear from the registered owner and re-issuing it to the identified driver of the vehicle, once the information provided by the registered owner is verified.
(4) Weekly site inspections to ensure no unapproved system changes have occurred and that the required signage is still in place.
(5) Scheduled independent calibration checks on cameras.
(6) Reporting procedures for the automated Notice to Appear, and CHP 415.
(7) Development of needed local forms.
(8) Retention schedules and filing procedures for forms.
The CHP 100, Officer’s Evaluation/Activity Summary, is the primary means of regularly ___________.
recording job performance and training needs
HPM 40.71, CHP 415 User’s Manual, requires recording enforcement and service activity on beats 1-799 only. For purposes of the CHP 100 _______officer ___________ shall be recorded, regardless of beat.
all, activity
When are general duty helmets worn?
While performing activities that indicate the need for maximum head protection.
In addition to general duty helmets, uniformed employees assigned to _________ shall be issued a helmet.
motorcycle officer or flight officer
Uniformed personnel assigned to flight duty shall wear a flight helmet ____________.
during actual operation of Departmental aircraft
Where protective vests are covering badges and nameplates, I.D. numbers shall be printed ________________.
on the front of the helmet
What kind of marker shall be used when placing I.D. on exterior of general duty helmet?
Yellow grease pencil
When placing I.D. numbers on exterior of general duty helmet the numbers should be at least _____ high.
1 inch
True/False - Motorcycle & flight helmets shall have names permanently affixed inside
False, motorcycle & flight helmets SHALL NOT have names, initials, or ID numbers permanently affixed inside. Additionally uniform employees shall not fix their names, initials, or other means of identification to the exterior of helmets, except as provided in policy.
True/False - Employees shall be required to be available to receive notice of court cancellations during non-working hours.
False, employees shall not be required
The Area commander shall develop clerical procedures to ensure the status of a scheduled court appearance is confirmed on the _____________________, in anticipation of cancellations or postponements of scheduled court appearances.
last business day preceding scheduled attendance.
It is the responsibility of who, to determine if an employee’s attendance at court has become unnecessary?
Area Commander.
Employees who have been unavailable for court cancellation notification shall contact their office within ______________.
24 hours of the scheduled court appearance between 0800 and 1700 hours, Monday through Friday, excluding legal holidays
True/False - Collect telephone calls will be accepted for purposes of notifying employees of court cancellations.
True
True/False - If an employee reports to the office, court or hearing room in response to a subpoena or other official process, without having learned of the cancellation or postponement, and he/she has not confirmed the appearance as required, no overtime compensation or travel expenses will be approved.
True
True/False - Supervisors shall accept subpoenas for subordinates on the day of an appearance.
False, unless they have received prior notice, supervisors shall refuse to accept subpoenas for subordinates on the day of the designated appearance except in those cases when the Area commander deems the attendance to be critical, and he/she has reason to believe the employee can be contacted.
Employees shall accept subpoenas served directly on them by any lawful means.
True
Which State owned vehicles will be allowed passage on State owned toll bridges without monetary payment of the toll when an “s pass ticket” is surrendered to the collector or when the vehicle is equipped with a FasTrak transponder?
Distinctively marked class e black-and-white patrol vehicle, specially marked patrol vehicles, Headquarters sworn personnel in an unmarked vehicles, Field personnel assigned to Golden Gate, Southern, and Border Division offices who might regularly use a S-pass book or FasTrak transponder.
True/False - Distinctively marked black-and-white or SMPV vehicles assigned to Areas having traffic control jurisdiction on various State-owned bridges or other black-and-white vehicles having occasion to cross State-owned toll bridges with reasonable frequency will carry S Pass Books or a FasTrak transponder.
True
True/False - S Pass Tickets may only be presented without the book by black-and-white or SMPV vehicles.
False, passes are only valid when attached to the pass book.
True/False - Headquarters personnel as well as Golden Gate, Southern, and Border Division personnel who regularly use a State-owned toll bridge while operating an unmarked car will only be permitted passage with an S Pass Book or FasTrak transponder.
True
State toll bridge pass book are assigned to _________________.
specific vehicles by make, model, and license number
State toll bridge passes assigned to specific vehicles are only valid _________________.
when attached to the pass book
All commands are required to report public contact data on the CHP A415. It is to be completed by all _____________ assigned to road patrol duties, commercial enforcement personnel, and inspection facility officers/sergeants, when engaged in a recordable activity. Special duty personnel working an enforcement shift shall be considered road patrol for the purposes of this GO.
officers and sergeants
True/False - In the case of partner officers, only one officer is to record the public contact data on the CHP 415D?
True
___________________ means patrol of a highway by an officer on duty and assigned to patrol, or available to respond to assignments on that highway.
24-hour road patrol
__________________ means assignment of an off-duty officer to respond to emergency calls during those hours, usually at night, when traffic flow volumes and calls for service do not justify 24-hour road patrol.
On-call assignment
Area commanders shall maintain 24 hour road patrol coverage on all ________________________.
Interstate highways, U.S. 101, US 50 and SR 99
The Area Office initiates the preparation of the JUS 8715, Disposition of Arrest and Court Action unless:
precluded by the policy of the booking agency.
After a recordable arrest, what must be submitted to DOJ in addition to the JUS 8715?
Two sets of fingerprints.
Per DOJ recordable offense criteria, a JUS 8715 or JUS 8716 is not to be initiated on the following:
(1) 647(f) PC - UNDER THE INFLUENCE OF ALCOHOL.
2) Any offense for which incarceration is not a possible punishment (e.g., infractions, nonspecific charges
True/False - According to GO 100.30, Closing of Highways for Salvage Operations, officers are authorized to temporary closed highways or to detour traffic and emergency in order to protect the lives and takings of motorists; however, Officers are not authorized to close highways or detour traffic for commercial salvage operations.
True
True/False - According to GO 100.30, Closing of Highways for Salvage Operations, Officers are not authorized to halt or provide a break in traffic for commercial helicopter operations when external loads are being transported over congested highways.
True
True/False - According to GO 100.30, Closing of Highways for Salvage Operations, roadways shall be kept open for traffic during minor salvage operations when traffic will not be impeded or endangered.
True
According to GO 100.30, Closing of Highways for Salvage Operations, commercial salvage operations on state highways may be conducted only under authority of, and in compliance with, an encroachment permit issued by the California Department of Transportation (Caltrans) when:
The operation cannot be completed within 30 minutes and the blocking or partial blocking of the highway is necessary.
*Note - Commercial salvage operations are defined as those methods utilized by commercial salvage agencies or tow truck operator to remove wrecked, damaged and disabled vehicles, displaced loads, or other property considered valuable or having further usefulness.
True/False - According to GO 100.30, Closing of Highways for Salvage Operations, commander shall deny request provide a break in traffic for commercial helicopters transporting external loads during salvage operations.
True, Federal Aviation Administration regulations prohibit helicopters from flying over congested areas, such as freeways, while engaged in external load operations, unless FAA approval has been obtained and the flight path has been coordinated with locals state transportation agencies.
According to GO 100.30, Closing of Highways for Salvage Operations, encroachment permits shall not be required for closing of highways when:
The lives or safety of occupants of a vehicle or recovery of bodies of victims are involved; wrecked vehicles or other hazards are blocking a highway and constitute an immediate hazard to other traffic; it is necessary to detour or reroute traffic due to an accident, fire, or other emergency.
According to GO 100.31, Stopping of Trains, Employees (should not/shall not) attempt to actuate railroad block signals to stop trains in an emergency. When it is necessary to stop railway traffic (if time permits) advise the appropriate communications center of: the name of railroad, nature of the problem, and location.
should not
True/False - According to GO 100.31, Stopping of Trains, stopping distances for trains vary with the train type (e.g., light-rail commuter, freight), speed, weight, and the percent of grade. According to the Department of Transportation, Division of Rail, an average freight train traveling 30 mph on level ground requires a minimum distance of one-half mile to stop. An average freight train traveling 60 mph on level ground requires a minimum distance of one and one-half miles to stop.
True
True/False - According to GO 100.31, Stopping of Trains, employees shall take appropriate action to stop railway traffic during situations when its continued operation would be hazardous to persons or property.
True
True/False - According to GO 100.31, Stopping of Trains, slowly swing a visible object (e.g., flag, handkerchief, emergency yellow blanket, lighted flashlight) horizontally, in a back and forth motion at knee to hip height, at a right angle to the track signals the locomotive engineer to make a full emergency stop.
False, it signals the locomotive engineer to make a normal stop.
* Note - The locomotive engineer will acknowledge this signal with two whistle blasts and stop the train as quickly as practical.
True/False - According to GO 100.31, Stopping of Trains, rapidly swing a visible object (e.g., flag, handkerchief, emergency yellow blanket, lighted flashlight) horizontally, in a back and forth motion at knee to hip height, at a right angle to the track signals the locomotive engineer to make a full emergency stop.
True
*Note - Use a full emergency stop only when a train cannot be signaled at a sufficient distance from the hazard, to permit a normal stop. Be aware that full emergency stops may endanger passengers, train crews, property, and equipment.
If time and access allows, place one thirty-minute lighted fusee, between the rails, but not directly on a wooden railroad tie, in advance of the rail-highway grade crossing or hazard in both directions of travel. The lighted fusee should be placed 2,000 feet (minimum) to over two miles in advance of the hazard.
True
*Note - After the locomotive engineer stops the train, he/she will continue to observe and monitor the lighted fusee. If the fusee burns out, or if 10 minutes have elapsed and the fusee is no longer visible, the locomotive engineer will proceed at restricted speed until the train is one mile beyond the fusee location. When a fusee is placed over one mile from a hazard, additional lighted fusees should be placed less than one mile to the hazard. This will allow sufficient time for the locomotive engineer to be warned of an approaching hazard.
According to GO 100.33, Notice to Remove Encroachment, officers should, in conjunction with other enforcement obligations, cooperate with the Department of Transportation (Caltrans), by issuing a CHP 357, Notice to Remove Encroachment (NRE), for property which type of property?
Property left on a state highway right-of-way without proper authorization or permit.
True/False - A CHP 357, Notice to Remove Encroachment (NRE), may be issued to owners of the encroaching property, vehicle operators, and owners or lessees who are required to remove property, reduce vehicle loads or remove a load which is purposely or by accident deposited on a state highway right-of-way.
True, the NRE is also used whenever property or a vehicle load is deposited on a state highway and then moved to another portion of the right-of-way to prevent it from becoming, or continuing as, a traffic hazard.
True/False - A Notice to Remove Encroachments (NRE) is used to notify encroaching property owners, vehicle operators, and owners or lessees, that they have five days from the issuance of the NRE to remove the load or partial load from the commercial vehicle enforcement facility or other location on a state highway right-of-way.
True
True/False - According to GO 100.33, Notice to Remove Encroachment, when a CHP 357, Notice to Remove Encroachment (NRE), is issued to a driver the officer is required to obtain a signature.
False, officers should attempt to obtain the vehicle operator’s signature next to the “X” at the lower left side of the form, acknowledging receipt of the NRE. If the vehicle operator refuses to sign the NRE, write “Refused to Sign.”
*Note - The vehicle operator is not legally required to sign this form.
True/False - According to GO 100.34, Use of Civilians for Local Traffic Control, if a local authorities wish to train civilians to perform local traffic control, where the Department exercises jurisdiction for traffic law enforcement, they must have a training program approved by the Commissioner.
True
True/False - According to GO 100.34, Use of Civilians for Local Traffic Control, if a local authorities wish to train civilians to perform local traffic control, where the Department exercises jurisdiction for traffic law enforcement, the local Area Office is not responsible for the training of the civilians.
True, assistance may be provided to the local authorities in the development of their individual training programs.
According to GO 100.35, Exempt Railroad Grade Crossings, When an application is made for an exempt railroad grade the Area Commander will assign an officer to ________.
physically inspect the crossing
According to GO 100.34, Exempt Railroad Grade Crossings, the Area performing the inspection on the exempt railroad grade crossing shall forward copies of all correspondence through channels to _______.
Research and Planning Section
According to GO 100.36, Disposition of Livestock, officers (should/shall) make reasonable efforts to notify owners of killed, injured, or loose livestock on public highways and ensure the removal of such animals to restore highway safety.
Shall
According to GO 100.36, Disposition of Livestock, officers (should/shall), as soon as practical, make a reasonable efforts to notify owners of damage livestock fences that could potentially allow livestock to affect highway safety.
Shall
According to GO 100.36, Disposition of Livestock, loose livestock found upon roadways surrounded by fenced property may be considered a public nuisance. The authority for removing such livestock is located in the where?
In the Civil Code
*Note - Officers shall make a reasonable effort to locate the livestock owner before ordering animal removal.
When the owner cannot be located and it becomes necessary to confine an injured animal or store a dead animal carcass, who must be notified?
Secretary of Food and Agriculture (advise the local state brand and hide inspector)
Areas shall use the ___________________________ for the assignment of case numbers for all felony, misdemeanor and miscellaneous cases.
Area Information System (AIS)
According to GO 100.38, Assignment of Case Numbers, The assignment of “S” numbers, for those cases that have been entered into the __________________, continues to be the responsibility of the Communication Centers.
Stolen Vehicle System (SVS)
True/False - According to GO 100.38, Assignment of Case Numbers, once the case number has been assigned, it will not be changed because the charge has been either upgraded or downgraded as a result of subsequent investigation or filing by the city or district attorney.
True
What is the method of assignment for AIS file numbers?
The AIS file number consists of the calendar year followed by the report number assigned. *Note - It is not necessary to indicate the classification of the charge by preceding the file number with and “F” or an “M”.
According to GO 100.38, Assignment of Case Numbers, stolen vehicles and parts remain in the SVS for ________.
4 years plus current
According to GO 100.38, Assignment of Case Numbers, stolen license plates remain in the SVS for ________.
1 year
According to GO 100.38, Assignment of Case Numbers, stored, impounded, or recovered vehicles remain in the SVS for ________.
30 days
According to GO 100.39, CHP 202, Driving Under the Influence Arrest-Investigation Report, CHP 216, Arrest- Investigation Report, a CHP 202 shall be prepared for each arrest or investigation involving driving under the influence of alcohol, drugs, or any combination thereof.
True, This includes arrests of subjects who have committed another violation (e.g., Section 10851 of the Vehicle Code [VC], Vehicle Theft) in addition to a violation of driving under the influence (DUI).
A CHP 216, (should/shall) be prepared for all non-DUI, in-custody arrests, and all nonDUI, felony criminal investigations. A CHP 216 may be prepared for misdemeanor or infraction criminal investigations not involving DUI as directed by the Area commander to satisfy local Area needs.
shall
True/False - According to GO 100.39, CHP 202, Driving Under the Influence ArrestInvestigation Report, CHP 216, Arrest- Investigation Report, criminal investigations involving stolen or recovered vehicles are not reported on the CHP 216 when the only information available is contained on the CHP 180, Vehicle Report.
True, A legible copy of the CHP 180 bearing the case file number, assigned as specified in GO 100.38, Assignment of Case Numbers, will suffice.
True/False - According to GO 100.39, CHP 202, Driving Under the Influence ArrestInvestigation Report, CHP 216, Arrest- Investigation Report, In criminal cases where a DUI offense is charged as a result of a traffic investigation, all elements supporting the investigating officer’s opinions and conclusions regarding the cause of the traffic collision will be documented in the collision investigation report (CHP 555, Traffic Collision Report).
True, The CHP 202 will contain a description and all elements necessary to support the charges filed which are not included in the CHP 555 (e.g., performance on field sobriety tests, chemical test results, arrest and booking information). The CHP 202 narrative should make reference to the corresponding CHP 555 and a copy of the CHP 555 should be attached to the corresponding CHP 202.
True/False - According to GO 100.39, CHP 202, Driving Under the Influence Arrest-Investigation Report, CHP 216, Arrest- Investigation Report, a CHP _________, Photographic Lineup Admonishment, should be used, when appropriate, for photographic lineups.
CHP 202H, Photographic Lineup Admonishment. If utilized, the CHP 202H shall be attached to and filed with the completed CHP 202 or CHP 216. Area commanders shall ensure that the photographic lineup is preserved in its original form. This shall be accomplished by either booking the photographic lineup as evidence (pursuant to HPM 70.1) or attaching the lineup to the original arrest investigation report. If a signed CHP 202H is obtained and no arrest is made, the CHP 202H and photographic lineup shall be submitted to the Area and retained in an established case file for three years.
Ride-alongs from private citizens without a specific need to observe (should not/shall not) be approved.
shall not
When do off-duty CHP officers need approval to ride-along with allied agencies?
When they are armed. Armed officers shall not participate in a voluntary off-duty ridealong with an allied a law-enforcement agency without first receiving written approval from their respective commander.
A CHP 428, Waiver of Liability, shall be signed by ________ prior to a ride-along.
all non CHP employees
True/False- Peace officers from allied agencies shall have approval from their commander prior to a CHP ride-along if they are to be armed.
True, this point shall be clarified before a ride-along is authorized
True/False -During a CHP ride-along, allied law-enforcement officers must be advised that the role as a ride-along participant shall be as an observer only, and that involvement in any situation shall be limited to that action essential to officer safety.
True
True/False - According to GO 100.43, Joint Operational Policy Statement Department Of Transportation/California Highway Patrol, it is the intent of both Departments that personnel at all levels work collaboratively, coordinate their efforts on behalf of the public, and cooperate in identifying and resolving mutual problems.
True
According to GO 100.43, Joint Operational Policy Statement Department Of Transportation/California Highway Patrol, the search for bombs on state highways is the responsibility of __________.
CHP
True/False - According to GO 100.44, Median Barrier Openings, highway median barrier openings will be provided by Caltrans upon request at those locations identified as essential for departmental operations.
True, except for emergency passageways in median barriers, median openings are not allowed on freeways.
According to GO 100.44, Median Barrier Openings, the use of median barrier openings shall be kept to a minimum and carefully located to provide good stopping sight distance to and from the opening along the freeway. Adequate stopping sight distance is approximately ____________ feet.
2,000
True/False - According to GO 100.44, Median Barrier Openings, emergency passageways may be appropriate for I will patrol vehicles and other emergency service vehicles such as tow trucks, ambulances, firefighting apparatus, and maintenance of equipment.
True
According to GO 100.44, Median Barrier Openings, the need for barrier openings/emergency passageways and their location shall be established by the Caltrans District incorporation with the local CHP Area office. Generally, median barrier opening shall not be located more frequently than approximately _________ mile intervals.
three
According to GO 100.44, Median Barrier Openings, narrow medians, those less than ____ feet in width, are usually equipped with concrete barriers. Openings for motorcycles within narrow mediums will be provided upon request. Passageways for large vehicles in narrow medians are provided only in rare instances.
36
According to GO 100.44, Median Barrier Openings, when the Area Commander becomes aware of a vital need for an emergency opening which is consistent with Caltrans criteria, he/she shall submit a proposal and justification to the ___________. Upon approval, theater commander may submit a formal request to the appropriate Caltrans District Director.
appropriate Division
*Note - The Area Commander shall keep Division informed of the progress and final completion date.
According to GO 100.45, Assistance to Pedestrians and Occupants of Disabled Vehicles, Response Protocol, and Inspection of Unoccupied Vehicles, officers assigned to road patrol duties (should/shall) be aware of the Departments lawful and moral obligation to provide public assistance.
shall
Uniformed personnel operating enforcement vehicles while assigned to patrol duties (should/shall): (1) Stop to assist persons who are in apparent need regardless of geographical location. (2) Provide reasonable assistance (including transportation) to persons who express concern for their safety or have an obvious compelling need within the geographical area of the Department’s primary responsibility.
shall
True/False - Road patrol officers shall take all reasonable steps to accommodate the transportation needs of persons who have expressed an immediate concern for their personal safety and who are in need of transportation assistance.
True
Officers performing patrol duty shall check all vehicles which appear to be unattended or disabled upon state highways (including freeways), unincorporated roadways, and other major traffic arteries within the geographical area of the Department’s primary responsibility; as such vehicles may actually be occupied or disabled. Vehicles should be promptly removed from the freeway or roadway whenever _______.
authorized by law
Upon notification of vehicles off the roadway or vehicle collisions, officers shall practice due diligence to locate the vehicles by _____________.
conducting a thorough search of the area
True/False - Upon locating a vehicle that has been involved in a collision and is unoccupied, officers shall practice due diligence by conducting a thorough search of the area and ____________.
attempt to contact the registered owner of the vehicle to determine the whereabouts of the occupants of the vehicle.
True/False - According to GO 100.45, Assistance to Pedestrians and Occupants of Disabled Vehicles, Response Protocol, and Inspection of Unoccupied Vehicles, requests for assistance from outside the Department’s jurisdiction should be referred to the responsible agency.
True, this policy shall not preclude the Department from rendering assistance to individuals, when resources are available. If, for any reason, there will be an excessive delay in providing service, the applicable officer or field supervisor shall be notified by the Public Safety Dispatcher.
True/False - According to GO 100.45, Assistance to Pedestrians and Occupants of Disabled Vehicles, Response Protocol, and Inspection of Unoccupied Vehicles, Departmental personnel operating enforcement vehicles are not required to provide transportation when other forms of transportation are reasonably available, and based upon professional judgment there is no foreseeable danger to the person making the request.
True
True/False - According to GO 100.45, Assistance to Pedestrians and Occupants of Disabled Vehicles, Response Protocol, and Inspection of Unoccupied Vehicles, officers shall provide or summon assistance for pedestrians and occupants of disabled vehicles as necessary when a person appears to need help
True, officers shall take all reasonable steps to accommodate the transportation needs of persons who have expressed an immediate concern for their personal safety and who are actually in need of transportation assistance. (a) The most important consideration in providing such assistance is the immediate physical welfare of pedestrians, motorists, and the public, as well as the officer. (b) Officers shall use sound professional judgment to determine when assistance should be provided. Officers should not only rely on a request to determine if assistance is needed, but should also consider, among other things, the person’s maturity, mental and physical condition, weather, and traffic conditions. (c) Officers shall transport or remain with occupants of disabled vehicles if they (the officers) believe a foreseeable danger exists, and no higher priority emergency requiring their attention exists.
True/False - According to GO 100.45, Assistance to Pedestrians and Occupants of Disabled Vehicles, Response Protocol, and Inspection of Unoccupied Vehicles, requests for transportation other than those provided within normal patrol activities should be referred to a supervisor.
True, determining whether transportation will be provided requires assessment of: (a) The person’s compelling need. (b) Available alternatives. (c) The potential for hazard to the person if transportation is not provided. (d) Availability of Department personnel to provide service.
True/False - According to GO 100.45, Assistance to Pedestrians and Occupants of Disabled Vehicles, Response Protocol, and Inspection of Unoccupied Vehicles, when transportation assistance is not indicated for a pedestrian or occupant of a disabled vehicle or a higher priority emergency precludes providing them with immediate transportation assistance, officers shall warn them of any reasonably foreseeable hazards.
True
*Note - Officers shall also inform them of precautions that may be taken to lessen their exposure to those hazards.
According to GO 100.45, Assistance to Pedestrians and Occupants of Disabled Vehicles, Response Protocol, and Inspection of Unoccupied Vehicles, when officers are delayed in providing assistance within departmental jurisdiction because of other duties, assistance should be coordinated with other service providers such as:
allied agencies, juvenile authorities, and public or private social service organizations
According to GO 100.45, Assistance to Pedestrians and Occupants of Disabled Vehicles, Response Protocol, and Inspection of Unoccupied Vehicles, when an officer receives a report of a vehicle off the roadway or vehicle collision, officers shall make every reasonable effort to locate the vehicle. In order to conduct a thorough search, officers should consider ___________________.
Recontacting the reporting party to obtain more specifics of the reported incident. Utilizing other resources (e.g., air support, canines, adjacent Area personnel, and search and rescue teams).
A CHP 422, Vehicle Check/Parking Warning/Highway Damage Report, (should/shall) be completed and attached to all unoccupied vehicles which appear to be abandoned, unlawfully parked, or disabled within the area of the Department’s primary jurisdiction.
shall
*Note: If a vehicle is in a hazardous position, officers shall immediately move the vehicle to a safer location or store it.
According to GO 100.45, Assistance to Pedestrians and Occupants of Disabled Vehicles, Response Protocol, and Inspection of Unoccupied Vehicles, uniformed personnel operating enforcement vehicles but not assigned to patrol duties shall, using sound professional judgment, either ____________________________.
Stop and assist pedestrians or occupants of disabled vehicles OR ensure that the need for departmental assistance is relayed in a timely manner to the appropriate departmental personnel responsible for providing such assistance. In determining the appropriate course of action, factors to be considered include: (1) The degree of hazard to the pedestrian, motorist, or the public. (2) The frequency of beat coverage. (3) The nature of the uniformed officer’s current assignment. (4) Accessibility of service providers to the pedestrian or motorist. (5) The availability of radio or emergency equipment in the vehicle.
True/False - According to GO 100.45, Assistance to Pedestrians and Occupants of Disabled Vehicles, Response Protocol, and Inspection of Unoccupied Vehicles, an available beat unit may be dispatched to an occupant of a disabled vehicle or pedestrian, on a highway/freeway with call boxes, when neither the person nor the disabled vehicle is in a hazardous location or foreseeable danger and a reliable tow service or other appropriate non-departmental service has been dispatched to the scene.
True
True/False - According to GO 100.45, Assistance to Pedestrians and Occupants of Disabled Vehicles, Response Protocol, and Inspection of Unoccupied Vehicles, nonuniformed employees driving marked vehicles or unmarked state vehicles with departmental radios who become aware of a pedestrian or a motorist in need of assistance shall ensure that the need is relayed to the appropriate departmental personnel having responsibility for providing or arranging such assistance.
True
*Note - Non-uniformed employees who drive marked vehicles or unmarked state vehicles with departmental radios shall be trained in procedures and protocols for using those radios.
True/False - According to GO 100.45, Assistance to Pedestrians and Occupants of Disabled Vehicles, Response Protocol, and Inspection of Unoccupied Vehicles, Area commanders should discuss these policies and procedures with allied law enforcement agencies and other service providers. Area commanders may enter into written agreements of understanding for the purpose of carrying out their intent.
True
According to GO 100.45, Assistance to Pedestrians and Occupants of Disabled Vehicles, Response Protocol, and Inspection of Unoccupied Vehicles, Area commanders shall _________________________________.
(1) Incorporate departmental and Area transportation policies and procedures into their standard operating procedures (SOP).
(2) Ensure that all employees under their command are familiar with the procedures required by this policy and the related Area SOP.
(3) Incorporate response protocol into their Area SOP based on the Area’s unique need, and coordinate with their dispatch/communication center.
(4) Notify the appropriate dispatch/communications center of Area procedures.
According to GO 100.46, Reporting of Highway Conditions, any actual or potential highway condition that may affect the safe and efficient flow of traffic (should/shall) be reported to the responsible highway authority by the most expeditious means.
shall
*Note - Personnel of this Department shall only report on existing hazards or potentially hazardous conditions. Personnel of this Department shall not publicly comment on conditions where proper analysis would require expertise in highway design and/or maintenance engineering.
According to GO 100.46, Reporting of Highway Conditions, Area commanders shall establish procedures for the immediate reporting of actual or potential highway conditions that may ____________.
affect the safe and efficient flow of traffic
According to GO 100.46, Reporting of Highway Conditions, notification procedures shall include an initial oral notice to ____________, followed by a brief memorandum. In areas that have a Transportation Management Center (TMC) responsible for monitoring an affected highway, notification should be made to the TMC through the communications center.
the appropriate agency
True/False - According to GO 100.46, Reporting of Highway Conditions, notification process shall also include a procedure for subsequent confirmation from the appropriate agency.
True, however, confirmation is unnecessary if the highway authority immediately responds to the scene while an officer is present and the arrival of highway personnel is recorded at the communications center or Area office.
According to GO 100.46, Reporting of Highway Conditions, Copies of this type of correspondence, including the commander’s memorandum pertaining to the situation, shall be sent to Division. Commanders are to request a response within _______ from the appropriate highway authority.
30 days
Any officer who observes a highway condition involving public safety that cannot be corrected with resources immediately available shall notify the _________- through the proper chain of command.
Area commander
*Note - Any significant obstruction or restriction to normal traffic flow, or significant changes in such conditions, shall be verbally reported as soon as possible. (b) All other conditions requiring examination shall be reported by a brief memorandum.
According to GO 100.46, Reporting of Highway Conditions, upon receipt of information relating to a significant obstruction or restriction to normal traffic flow on a major state route, the concerned commander shall:
(1) Report such condition by MIS Comm-Net message jointly to the Division, adjacent Division(s), and the Assistant Commissioner, Field.
(2) Contact should be established with Caltrans to report highway condition information for inclusion on the Caltrans Highway Information Network (CHIN) tape recording. (3) Commands are also responsible for contacting the communications centers with information on significant weather conditions and/or highway emergencies in the most expeditious manner possible.
According to GO 100.50, Explosive Security and Storage, permanent or long-term storage of explosive training aids is governed by the Bureau of Alcohol, Tobacco and Firearms (BATF) regulations as outlined in what?
Organized Crime Control Act of 1970 (Title XI) and Section 12151 of the California Health and Safety Code (HSC)
*Note - additionally, Section 12151 HSC requires all explosives to be stored as specified in regulations (Title 19, California Code of Regulations [CCR], Chapter 10) adopted by the State Fire Marshal (SFM).
According to GO 100.50, Explosive Security and Storage, separation, packaging, and transportation of individual compounds shall be accomplished as outlined in Annex 5-A of HPM 70.7, Departmental Canine Program Manual. Training aids shall be stored in a Bureau of Alcohol, Tobacco and Firearms (BATF) approved __________ explosives magazine.
indoor or outdoor Type 2
According to GO 100.50, Explosive Security and Storage, there are two explosive magazines at the CHP Academy dedicated to the storage of high explosive compounds. The magazines have a Type 2 rating and are maintained by the Capitol Protection Section (CPS). Each magazine is rated for a maximum of _____ pounds of explosives. Only the OCP canine officers and the Special Weapons and Tactics breacher shall have access to the training aids. The remaining keys shall be kept sealed with the Protective Services Division commander.
250
*Note - For all other magazines, only canine officers and the canine supervisor or other supervisory personnel, as designated by the commander, shall have access to the secured training aids.
According to GO 100.50, Explosive Security and Storage, an explosive magazine entry log will be kept within the explosive magazine. Who shall ensure all personnel complete the necessary information on this log when entry is made into the magazine?
Commanders
*Note - Commanders shall be responsible for ensuring access logs and authorized personnel lists are current and on file at all times. Access logs shall be stored inside the explosives magazine and authorized personnel lists shall be stored in the Area command’s files.
According to GO 100.50, Explosive Security and Storage, initial and annual inspections of magazine storage locations to ensure compliance with state fire regulations, shall be accomplished utilizing the services of the State Fire Marshal’s (SFM) office. Upon successful completion of the final magazine location inspection, the SFM should issue a ___________. Commanders shall ensure any new magazine locations are inspected by the SFM’s office and a ______________, to be filed at the magazine location and in the Area command’s files, is issued prior to use.
letter of compliance, letter of compliance
*Note - Commanders should request that the representative from the SFM’s office respond to inspect the proposed magazine storage location prior to installation. This will minimize complications associated with storing explosives on a semi-permanent basis. A representative of the local fire jurisdiction likely to respond to an incident should also participate in the inspection process. This will serve to alert the agency to the presence of explosive training aids at the facility as well as encourage interagency cooperation.
According to GO 100.50, Explosive Security and Storage, Commanders shall ensure that all magazines under their control are inspected by the canine supervisor at least every ________ days.
seven
*Note - This inspection need not be an inventory, but must be sufficient to determine whether there has been an unauthorized entry or attempted entry into the magazines, or unauthorized removal of the contents of the magazines.
According to GO 100.50, Explosive Security and Storage, the canine officer and canine supervisor shall ensure that training aids are secure in order to prevent accidental ingestion, damage, contamination, and/or loss of the compounds. Lost or stolen training aids shall be reported to the canine supervisor _______.
immediately
According to GO 100.50, Explosive Security and Storage, a __________ inspection shall include confirming the amount of explosives present and ensuring their structural integrity. Commanders shall ensure that the inventory report is forwarded to Investigative Services Section (ISS) as outlined in HPM 70.7.
quarterly
*Note - Training aids should be destroyed per Federal Bureau of Investigation training and Hazardous Device Detail (HDD) guidelines, and replaced as needed due to contamination or integrity loss. In the event a training aid is lost or damaged, the canine officer shall immediately notify the canine supervisor. The canine supervisor shall immediately notify the commander who will make proper notifications.
According to GO 100.50, Explosive Security and Storage, In the event of a discrepancy between the inventory log and the materials in the magazine, the canine supervisor shall immediately notify the commander. If the commander cannot resolve the discrepancy, the commander shall treat it as _______.
lost or stolen material
According to GO 100.50, Explosive Security and Storage, if the commander determines there is lost or stolen material, the commanders shall notify:
(1) their respective Division commanders who in turn shall notify ENTAC.
(2) the Bureau of Alcohol, Tobacco and Firearms (BATF) is notified within 24 hours of discovery
(3) appropriate local authorities.
Assignment of one-officer units between 2200 to 2400 or 0400 to 0600 requires approval of the _________.
Division Chief
According to GO 100.61, Use of Mobile Video/Audio Recording Systems, the use of mobile video/audio recording systems (MVARS) videotapes has been demonstrated to be a valuable tool for law enforcement officers as evidence in the prosecution of violators, a defense against claims of officer misconduct, a deterrent to suspects who have a tendency to become violent, and as a training and self-evaluation device. The videotapes (will/will not) routinely be reviewed to generate monthly and/or annual employee performance evaluations.
will not
According to GO 100.61, Use of Mobile Video/Audio Recording Systems, all uniformed personnel who operate an enforcement vehicle equipped with a video camera shall video and audio recorded in their entirety the following enforcement actions:
(1) Enforcement contacts.
(2) Pursuits.
(3) Code 3 responses.
(4) Vehicle searches (excludes vehicle inventories).
* Note - During enforcement stops, pursuits, code 3 responses, and searches, uniformed personnel are expected to record an entire event or at least as much as their involvement will allow.
True/False - According to GO 100.61, Use of Mobile Video/Audio Recording Systems, all completed videotapes shall be kept in a secure location and/or maintained according to HPM 70.1, Evidence Manual, and the guidelines established in this GO.
True
According to GO 100.61, Use of Mobile Video/Audio Recording Systems, the MVARS will use six-hour videotapes which will be issued by a supervisor. Uniformed personnel (should/shall) use only videotapes provided by the Department.
shall
According to GO 100.61, Use of Mobile Video/Audio Recording Systems, prior to use, a videotape label shall be affixed to the spine of each videotape and shall contain the sequential videotape number (e.g., 001-99 would be the first videotape for calendar year 1999), ___________, _________, _____________ it was placed in the recorder. This information shall be completed in black or blue ink.
the patrol vehicle number, Area name/location code, and the date and time.
*Note - The same information as well as officer ID number shall be annotated on the Master Videotape In/Out Log.
True/False - According to GO 100.61, Use of Mobile Video/Audio Recording Systems, once a new videotape is inserted into the recorder, it is to remain in the recorder until 30 minutes or less of recording time remains or upon occurrence of a significant incident as required by local Standard Operating Procedures (SOP).
True
According to GO 100.61, Use of Mobile Video/Audio Recording Systems, at the start of a shift, a spare videotape and recorder vault key will be issued to each uniformed member assigned a patrol vehicle with a video camera. ___________ will be responsible for ensuring a videotape is replaced when there are 30 minutes or less of recording time remaining.
Uniformed personnel
*Note - If the videotape does not require replacement during the shift, the spare videotape issued at the start of shift, along with the recorder vault key, shall be returned to the shift supervisor at the end of the shift.
According to GO 100.61, Use of Mobile Video/Audio Recording Systems, Commands (should/shall) ensure procedures are placed in their SOP to identify and issue/return each wireless microphone/transmitter and track accountability for broken or lost microphone/transmitters.
shall
True/False - According to GO 100.61, Use of Mobile Video/Audio Recording Systems, the video camera should be zoomed back to its widest angle of view and positioned to record events. For night operation, the autofocus should be shut off.
True
According to GO 100.61, Use of Mobile Video/Audio Recording Systems, uniformed personnel will identify each new videotape upon initial use by entering a videotape identifier that will be superimposed on the videotape and displayed on the video monitor as follows
(1) The sequential videotape number (e.g., 001). The year need not be added since it is already included in the superimposed date.
(2) The patrol vehicle number (e.g., E123456).
(3) “CHP” followed by the three-digit Area location code (e.g., CHP265).
According to GO 100.61, Use of Mobile Video/Audio Recording Systems, Once the MVARS is activated, the audio shall also be activated and (should/shall) remain activated until the video is turned off. Once recording has begun, uniformed personnel are to ensure that there are no obvious obstructions to prohibit capturing an enforcement action on videotape (e.g., raising the hood of the patrol vehicle). Personnel shall ensure that no confidential information is discussed while the audio is activated.
shall
*Note - Uniformed personnel shall follow existing officer safety policies when conducting enforcement stops as outlined in HPM 70.6, Officer Safety Manual. Of particular importance, uniformed personnel are to ensure they do not position themselves or the violator between vehicles for the purpose of capturing the event on videotape.
According to GO 100.61, Use of Mobile Video/Audio Recording Systems, it is not necessary for employees to volunteer the fact that the enforcement contact is being videotaped. However, if asked, employees shall advise persons as to whether the MVARS is in the record mode. Uniformed personnel (are/are not) required to cease or initiate recording an event, situation, or circumstance solely at the demand of a citizen, involved party, or suspect.
are not
True/False - According to GO 100.61, Use of Mobile Video/Audio Recording Systems, uniformed personnel will be responsible for removing the videotape from the locked recorder vault. The date and time the videotape was removed will be annotated on the label affixed to the videotape spine. The completed videotape shall be turned in to the supervisor at the end of the shift, who will annotate the Master Videotape In/Out Log with the date and time the videotape was removed from the recorder.
True
According to GO 100.61, Use of Mobile Video/Audio Recording Systems, if a determination has been made not to retain the videotape as evidence for criminal or civil proceedings, the tapes shall be kept in a secure location for ____________.
12 months
* Note- At the end of 12 months, videotapes which are in good condition must be degaussed (demagnetized) prior to being used again. The degausser shall be kept by a supervisor, and only a supervisor or his/her designee shall degauss tapes for future use (up to five times).
According to GO 100.62, Verbal Notice of DMV Action By Peace Officer - DL310, if an officer stops a driver who is in violation of Section 12591(a) VC, the officer (should/shall) query CLETS to obtain the driver’s record and determine if his/her driving privilege has been suspended or revoked.
should
True/False According to GO 100.62, Verbal Notice of DMV Action By Peace Officer - DL310, if the driver’s record indicates that his/her driving privilege is suspended or revoked, and the record indicates that the driver has been notified (served), the appropriate enforcement action shall be taken in accordance with departmental policy and the vehicle may be impounded in accordance with departmental policy.
True
True/False - According to GO 100.62, Verbal Notice of DMV Action By Peace Officer - DL310, if the driver’s history record indicates that the driver has not been notified, the officer should complete the DL310 form, verbally notify the driver of the suspension, and issue a CHP 215 for violation of 12951(a) VC and the white copy of the DL310 to the driver and release the driver, if appropriate.
True
*Note - The officer should attempt to obtain the signature of the driver on the DL310; however, refusal to sign this form will not invalidate the notification process. The completed pink copy of the DL310 should be attached to the CHP 215 and turned in at the end of the shift. The canary copy should be retained with the officer’s green copy of the CHP 215
True/False - According to GO 100.63, Follow-Up Procedures - California Vehicle Code Section 12951 Violation, Area commanders shall establish, with the local district attorney(s) or the local court(s), complaint process procedures to upgrade a violation of Section 12951(a) VC to the appropriate VC section. Pursuant to departmental policy contained in Chapter 1 of HPM 100.9, Enforcement Documents Manual, a CHP 411, Notice of Correction and Proof of Service, shall be utilized.
False, a CHP 411, Notice of Correction and Proof of Service, shall not be utilized to upgrade an infraction to a misdemeanor. A citation issued for violation of Section 12951(a) VC should be upgraded to the appropriate VC section utilizing established complaint procedures.
True/False - According to GO 100.63, Follow-Up Procedures - California Vehicle Code Section 12951 Violation, in every instance where the arresting officer has recorded a violation of Section 12951(a) VC on a CHP 215, it is the responsibility of the Area commander to ensure departmental personnel contact DMV regarding the status of suspected violators.
True
True/False - According to GO 100.63, Follow-Up Procedures - California Vehicle Code Section 12951 Violation, during the complaint process procedures to upgrade a violation of Section 12951(a) VC to the appropriate VC section and the identifying information is insufficient to positively identify the person, the computer may provide a list of up to 15 possible matches. Each DL number should be run through CLETS until the person is identified.
True
According to GO 100.63, Follow-Up Procedures - California Vehicle Code Section 12951 Violation, if during the complaint process procedures to upgrade a violation of Section 12951(a) VC to the appropriate VC section and the person can not be identified through CLETS or the DMV’s database contains more than 15 possible matches, a request should be submitted by mail to DMV utilizing an _____________.
INF 252 form (Rev. 4/1997), Law Enforcement Request for Driver License/Identification Record Information
True/False - According to GO 100.64, Beat Descriptions, all high occupancy vehicle (HOV) lanes on freeways or expressways (excluding the on-ramps for HOV lanes) shall be assigned a separate beat number.
True
True/False - According to GO 100.64, Beat Descriptions, if a beat is assigned to a resident post, the entire beat must be so assigned.
True
True/False - According to GO 100.64, Beat Descriptions, beats numbered 1 through 798 shall be indicated primary if the roadway is identified as a primary roadway by the Area and its respective Division.
False, the beats are numbered 1 through 698.
According to GO 100.64, Beat Descriptions, beats shall be numbered dependent upon the needs of the Area. Beat numbers shall not exceed three digits. Numbers ________ shall not be used as the last two digits of any beat number. Except for the “specified beats,” no beat number shall exceed 698.
33, 36, and 99
True/False - According to GO 100.64, Beat Descriptions, Area commanders will provide a memorandum to __________ of explanation to accompany all beat descriptions submitted. Such a memorandum should explain what beats are being added, deleted, or revised and the reasons for such action.
Division
*Note - It should also contain the name of a person who can be contacted regarding any s on the beat descriptions.
According to GO 100.64, Beat Descriptions, beat descriptions shall be reviewed annually. If changes are necessary, beat revisions shall be submitted to Division offices prior to _______ and shall be dated and become effective on January 1 of the following year.
October 1
According to GO 100.64, Beat Descriptions, beat revisions necessitated by addition, loss, or change in patrol responsibility shall be submitted to Division at least __________ prior to the date they are to become effective. They shall be effective upon the date of acquisition, loss or change, and only if approved by Assistant Commissioner, Field.
60 days
DMV has combined the DL412 (request for re-exam) and the (priority re-exam) into ___________.
the DMV DS-427 form
True/False - When issuing a DS-427 a citation required to be issued.
False, it is only required for priority re-exam.
True/False - In the case of a priority re-exam the driver is required to sign the form.
False, it should be requested but if they say no just write in refused to sign.
The primary mission of the CHP is the management and regulation of traffic to achieve _______, _________ and _________ use of the State Highway Transportation System.
safe, lawful, efficient
Section 2400 V.C. provides that the ______ shall enforce all laws regulating the operation of vehicles and the use of highways.
CHP Commissioner
Section 225 of the Streets and Highway Code provides that _____ may enact rules and regulations governing roadside rests/vista points and that the regulations may be enforced by employees authorized by ______ and all peace officers.
Caltrans, Caltrans
The Departments shall retain the underlying responsibility to ensure that general as well as traffic law enforcement, is provided in all areas under its jurisdiction, however the Department recognizes the concurrent authority and primary jurisdiction of _______________________________ upon freeways and freeway-related facilities
local law enforcement agencies
True/False - The Department shall provide traffic law enforcement services for all freewayrelated facilities. This includes park-and-ride lots, safety roadside rest areas and vista points.
True
*does not include private park and ride lots
True/False - Private sector toll highways are required to contract with and reimburse the CHP for all traffic enforcement services.
True
In an effort to be more responsive to the needs of the public the Department made a toll free number available______________.
1-800-TELL-CHP
If a request for emergency medical and life saving transportation run is deemed not an emergency _________________.
the requester shall be advised and assisted in finding alternative transportation
When a blood relay involves another area, who is responsible for coordination of the relay to its conclusion?
The originating command.
The code to be used for the continuation of a blood relay is to be determined by ______________.
the accepting command
True/False - According to GO 100.74, Dealer Responsibilities and Violations, enforcement of the provisions of Vehicle Code Section 24007 (selling a new or used vehicle that is not in compliance with the Vehicle Code) shall be limited to investigation and prosecution on a criminal complaint basis.
True
*Note - The purpose of any investigation related to violations of section 24007 V.C. shall be to determine the validity of the allegation and establish facts necessary for the prosecution of dealers.
According to GO 100.74, Dealer Responsibilities and Violations, complaints against dealers alleging violations of Vehicle Code Sections 28050.5, 28051, and 28052, all of which relate to fraudulent odometer readings and the new motor vehicle warranties, shall be referred to the ______________________.
Investigations and Audit Division, Department of Motor Vehicles, *Note - The filing of administrative actions against automobile dealers’ licenses for these violations is at the discretion of the DMV. A CHP 348, Initial Complaint of Dealer’s Responsibility, shall not be completed for these allegations.
According to GO 100.74, Dealer Responsibilities and Violations, individuals who wish to file a complaint, for Vehicle Code Section 24007 (selling a new or used vehicle that is not in compliance with the Vehicle Code), at Area offices during business hours shall be provided assistance in completing the ___________________.
CHP 348, Initial Complaint of Dealer’s Responsibility
*Note - Investigations shall not be initiated until the complainant completes and signs the
CHP 348
True/False - According to GO 100.74, Dealer Responsibilities and Violations, once a complaint has been filed alleging a violation of Vehicle Code Section 24007 (selling a new or used vehicle that is not in compliance with the Vehicle Code), in the complaint shall only be investigated after a dealer has refused to correct the alleged safety equipment defect(s) or when the seller refuses to install a required pollution control device.
True
True/False - According to GO 100.74, Dealer Responsibilities and Violations, complaints alleging a violation of Vehicle Code Section 24007 (selling a new or used vehicle that is not in compliance with the Vehicle Code), which involved vehicle sales between private parties, shall not be investigated except those involving pollution control devices.
True
*Note - Violations involving pollution control devices shall be investigated for possible prosecution against the seller, and to assist the buyer in applying for a transfer of registration within the statutory 10-day period.
According to GO 100.74, Dealer Responsibilities and Violations, complaints which allege dealer responsibility violations regarding vehicle safety equipment items, such as brakes or tires, shall be carefully screened prior to the investigation to ensure that ___________ would not prevent establishment of the corpus delecti.
vehicle mileage and/or elapsed time
*Note - Area commanders should contact their respective district Attorney offices and establish reasonable purchase elapse times and/or vehicle mileage operation criteria applicable to dealers responsibility violations.
True/False - According to GO 100.74, Dealer Responsibilities and Violations, once a complainant completes and signs a CHP 348, Initial Complaint of Dealer’s Responsibility, the investigation shall be completed on a CHP 216.
True
According to GO 100.74, Dealer Responsibilities and Violations, once a complainant completes and signs a CHP 348, Initial Complaint of Dealer’s Responsibility, and an investigation has been initiated the complaint may be terminated for which of the following reasons:
there are two ways to terminate an investigation, the complaint indicates no further interest in pursuing the complaint or the complaint is unavailable during investigation and a regional effort fails to establish contact with the complaint.
According to GO 100.74, Dealer Responsibilities and Violations, the CHP 216 shall include the results of the investigation, into Vehicle Code Section 24007 (selling a new or used vehicle that is not in compliance with the Vehicle Code), in a closing statement indicating the complain was:
the complaint findings are: founded, of a civil nature, terminated by the complainant, terminated by the unavailability of the complainant, or a substantiated violation. If the finding was substantiated violation the following must be indicated: a criminal complaint has been filed, or a criminal complaint was requested and subsequently denied by the City or District Attorney.
According to GO 100.76, Special Alert and/or Wanted Bulletins, When the Protective Services Division (PSD), Dignitary Protection Section (DPS), Threat Assessment Unit (TAU) identifies and individual who may pose a threat to a state official, staff member, or state facility, or has the potential to physically approach an official or staff in an inappropriate manner, TAU many distribute a __________ to CHP personnel, officials and if necessary, allied law enforcement agencies.
Special Alert Bulletin
*Note - Special Alert Bulletins shall not be displayed in public view, nor shall the contents of the bulletin be discussed with persons not directly involved in the investigation.
True/False - According to GO 100.76, Special Alert and/or Wanted Bulletins, Wanted Bulletins may be prepared and distributed to aid an Area command in developing information regarding a wanted individual, where an arrest warrant has been issued or a wanted vehicle is still outstanding. Wanted Bulletins may also be used to identify wanted vehicles involved in crime related incidents. Area personnel may prepare and distribute Wanted Bulletins to allied law enforcement agencies and to the public to solicit assistance in locating the person and/or vehicles.
True
True/False - According to GO 100.76, Special Alert and/or Wanted Bulletins, A Wanted Bulletin may only be disseminated upon approval of an Area sergeant.
False, a Wanted Bulletin may only be disseminated upon approval of the Area commander or designee
According to GO 100.76, Special Alert and/or Wanted Bulletins, Wanted Bulletin shall include the following information:
(1) A bulletin number beginning with the calendar year issued, CHP location code and followed by a sequential number, e.g. 00-252-001. The sequential number shall be assigned by the Area command.
(2) Name, address ,and physical description of the subject and a recent photo if available.
(3) List of warrant(s) and charge(s) for which the subject is wanted.
(4) Crime information: Narrative explaining the purpose of the bulletin and the conduct of the subject, and any officer safety issues that are applicable. Specific instructions if the subject is located (e.g., detain and notify the appropriate CHP Area).
(5) Name and telephone number of investigating officer.
(6) Expiration date or length of time the bulletin is to remain in effect.
According to GO 100.80 - Report of Unusual Occurrences, while determining if an unlisted event should be reported, the following should be considered:
(1) If the occurrence may reflect favorably or unfavorably upon the Department.
(2) If the circumstance may require administrative action at headquarters or direction by Executive Management.
(3) If the magnitude of the incident may necessitate the dissemination of information to allied agencies, governmental organizations, or news media.
According to GO 100.80 - Report of Unusual Occurrences, in the event a telephone notification is required after normal business hours (1700 to 0800 hours), on the weekend, or during holidays, the notifying Division shall contact the on-call designee for the appropriate Assistant Commissioner. In the event contact cannot be made to the affected Assistant Commissioner or on-call designee, contact ___________.
ENTAC
GO 100.82, CHP 302A - Field Interview Card and Electronic Field Interview System, establishes policy and procedures for all field personnel regarding the use of the Department’s CHP 302A - Field Interview card, the Electronic Field Interview System (Mobile Digital Computer [MDC] Field Interview [FI] System), and _______________.
Mask Menu Screen #111
According to GO 100.82, CHP 302A - Field Interview Card and Electronic Field Interview System, _______________ utilizing field interview cards and/or electronic databases shall develop standard operating procedures relative to their specific needs.
Divisions and Areas
According to GO 100.82, CHP 302A - Field Interview Card and Electronic Field Interview System, entries into the MDC FI screen or Mask Menu Screen #111 derived from CHP 302As shall include “302A” as the initial entry in the ____________ field.
Miscellaneous
True/False - According to GO 100.82, CHP 302A - Field Interview Card and Electronic Field Interview System, Field interview cards shall be maintained in a secure environment with access restricted to authorized personnel. Access to electronic databases shall be restricted to those authorized by the commander who have both a legal right and a need to know. This is to ensure the security and confidentiality of the information stored and to ensure the protection of the individual’s right to privacy.
True, information shall only be released on a right to know or need to know basis.
According to GO 100.82, CHP 302A - Field Interview Card and Electronic Field Interview System, field interview cards shall be stored and sorted by ____________. This would facilitate any necessary future research of the card and ensure timely purging of the files. Stored information concerning CHP 302A Field Interview Cards should be reviewed annually for reclassification or purged in order to ensure that the file is current, accurate, and relevant to the needs and objectives of the Department.
year, month, and day
According to GO 100.82, CHP 302A - Field Interview Card and Electronic Field Interview System, all information retained in a criminal intelligence file shall be maintained as such until the case is adjudicated (if applicable) or is no longer needed. Once the information is deemed as no longer needed, it shall be destroyed. There are two categories relating to the retention of gathered information:
Permanent Status and Temporary Status
True/False - According to GO 100.82, CHP 302A - Field Interview Card and Electronic Field Interview System, the separation of public information from criminal intelligence files can better protect the confidentiality of the criminal file. If a request is made for public records (e.g., subpoena, court order, etc.), an agency can release the public file and leave the intelligence file intact.
True
According to GO 100.83, Confidential Address Program, Government Code Section 6205 authorizes the Secretary of State to establish a Confidential Address Program (“Safe at Home”) for victims of _____________.
domestic violence, sexual assault, and stalking
True/False - According to GO 100.83, Confidential Address Program, under the Confidential Address Program (“Safe at Home”) individuals must complete an enrollment process at a designated domestic violence or victims assistance program facility and be certified by the Secretary of State.
True
According to GO 100.83, Confidential Address Program, one certified in the Confidential Address Program (“Safe at Home”), individuals will be issued a laminated authorization identity card containing ________________.
participant’s name, Safe at Home address, enrollment and expiration dates, signature, and four-digit authorization ID number.
According to GO 100.83, Confidential Address Program, California Highway Patrol personnel shall except in the Confidential Address Program (“Safe at Home”) Card in response to request for their address. The substitute P.O. Box address must be excepted and used on whatever document/report is being completed. In addition to the address, the ____________ authorization identification number should be included on the document/report.
four-digit
*Note - Should personnel need to verify the status of a Safe at Home participant,The confidential address of a Safe at Home participant may be obtained by submitting a Law Enforcement Exemption Request form to the Secretary of State’s office. The form must state the bona fide administrative or statutory justification for requesting such information.
True/False - According to GO 100.83, Confidential Address Program, the street address on the back of a Confidential Address Program (“Safe at Home”) participants authorization card can be used if a street address is required. The street address can also be used for mailing purposes.
False, the street address on the back of the participants authorization card can be used at if a street address is required; however, the street address can ONLY be used for NONMAILING purposes. When it is necessary to send correspondence to a Safe at Home participant, the correspondence must be sent to the P.O. Box address and the participants four-digit authorization identification number must be placed adjacent to the participants last name.
According to GO 100.84, Service of Search and Arrest Warrants Involving Entry into Residents, Businesses and Other Structures (Warrant Service Program), it is the policy of this Department that service of search and arrest warrants requiring entry into structures may be accomplished at the discretion of each _____________, based on his/her assessment of operational needs.
field Division commander
According to GO 100.84, Service of Search and Arrest Warrants Involving Entry into Residents, Businesses and Other Structures (Warrant Service Program), Area commanders or designee, with Division commander or designee approval, may authorize service of search and arrest warrants obtained as a result of investigations conducted by ____________________.
CHP Area personnel
True/False - According to GO 100.84, Service of Search and Arrest Warrants Involving Entry into Residents, Businesses and Other Structures (Warrant Service Program), All personnel engaged in warrant service activities shall comply with uniform requirements outlined in HPM 73.5, Uniform and Equipment Manual. The work uniform (tan) shall be the required uniform for all warrant service operations.
True, Exception: At the discretion and upon authorization of the Division commander, WST members may wear the departmentally approved blue utility (Rip Stop) uniform while engaged in WST activities, including training. When the blue utility uniform has been approved, every warrant service operation shall include at least one officer in a basic tan uniform to provide visible evidence of authority. An officer not a member of the WST may be utilized to meet this requirement. The wearing of undercover or plain clothes attire during warrant service operations is prohibited.
True/False - According to GO 100.84, Service of Search and Arrest Warrants Involving Entry into Residents, Businesses and Other Structures (Warrant Service Program), Area commanders are to ensure all personnel involved in warrant service activity receive departmentally approved warrant service training and that all Area personnel receive training in perimeter control responsibilities. Additionally, Area commanders shall provide their respective Divisions with all warrant service documentation
True
According to GO 100.84, Service of Search and Arrest Warrants Involving Entry into Residents, Businesses and Other Structures (Warrant Service Program), prior to service of a search or arrest warrant by Area personnel, a critical risk assessment must be completed in accordance with the GO. If any of the critical risk assessment criteria exists, the ____________ shall be utilized.
Division Warrant Service Team (WST)
*Note - In extreme circumstances, as outlined in the General Order, warrant service activity shall be referred to allied agency Special Weapons and Tactics Teams (SWAT).
According to GO 100.84, Service of Search and Arrest Warrants Involving Entry into Residents, Businesses and Other Structures (Warrant Service Program), Area commanders or designee shall evaluate all warrant service operations and complete a CHP 413, Warrant Service Report, following the operation. The warrant service report narrative shall include a summary, analysis and critique. When a warrant service operation meets the criteria of an unusual occurrence, a Comm-Net shall be prepared as required by GO 100.80. A completed CHP 413, Warrant Service Report, shall be submitted to the ISS WSP Coordinator within _____ days following the date of the warrant service operation.
30
True/False - According to GO 100.84, Service of Search and Arrest Warrants Involving Entry into Residents, Businesses and Other Structures (Warrant Service Program), all warrant service activity shall require a case number which will be obtained through FSS. When it is determined that a warrant will be served, it is the responsibility of the Area commander or designee to contact the WSP Coordinator in FSS to obtain a warrant service case number and ensure the case number is indicated on all documentation, prior to receipt in FSS.
True
According to GO 100.84, Service of Search and Arrest Warrants Involving Entry into Residents, Businesses and Other Structures (Warrant Service Program), All WST members shall attend mandatory training prior to team assignment and mission deployment. Training will be coordinated through ________. Proficiency must be demonstrated during initial training before certification as a team member is granted.
FSS
According to GO 100.84, Service of Search and Arrest Warrants Involving Entry into Residents, Businesses and Other Structures (Warrant Service Program), A minimum of one _________, per quarter, shall be utilized to provide training to WSTs..
eight-hour day
True/False - According to GO 100.85, Departmental Assistance to the Homeless, steps shall be taken to ensure all CHP officers are sensitive to homeless individuals unique needs. Further, officers are to be made aware of the types of assistance available to California’s homeless residents.
True
True/False - According to GO 100.85, Departmental Assistance to the Homeless, upon contacting a homeless person in need of assistance, officers typically refer to a list of available resources within the community and, if possible, either provide or arrange for transportation to the nearest homeless shelter.
True, However, officers should make every effort to determine that homeless persons do not pose a threat to public safety such as: carrying an illegal weapon, possessing narcotics, public intoxication, or having outstanding arrest warrants. If an existing warrant for arrest is confirmed, then officers are bound to duty to take the appropriate enforcement action.
According to GO 100.85, Departmental Assistance to the Homeless, Area commanders will be responsible for implementing standard operating procedures for the following:
a. Establish and maintain an Area jurisdictional list of telephone numbers and hours of operation for local shelters, agencies, and organizations that routinely provide assistance to the homeless.
b. Identify and maintain admittance criteria to all homeless shelters located within an Area’s jurisdiction.
c. Identify mechanisms of transportation available for use by homeless persons to nearby shelters and other agencies and organizations capable of providing health and human assistance.
d. Each quarter, verify all information relative to local homeless shelters and other assistance agencies and organizations and provide updated information to the assigned field Division and Communications Center serving the Area command.
e. Periodically disseminate the information to both uniformed and non-uniformed personnel within the Area during training days and daily field briefings.
According to GO 100.90, Deployment of Field Officers During Maximum Enforcement Periods, “deploy” means to:
place an officer in an enforcement role
According to GO 100.90, Deployment of Field Officers During Maximum Enforcement
Periods, “available officers” means every officer assigned to an Area, excluding officers in any of the following capacities:
(1) Annual pre-approved vacation
(2) Limited duty
(3) Injury status
(4) Military leave
(5) Administrative time off
(6) Bereavement leave
(7) Departmental mandated training
(8) Temporary assignment away from Area(9) Special duty
According to GO 100.90, Deployment of Field Officers During Maximum Enforcement Periods, “specified holidays” include:
(1) New Year’s Day
(2) Memorial Day
(3) Independence Day
(4) Labor Day
(5) Thanksgiving Day
(6) Christmas Day
According to GO 100.90, Deployment of Field Officers During Maximum Enforcement Periods, “Maximum Enforcement Periods” will coincide with the following holiday reporting periods as outlined in which HPM.
HPM 90.1, Public Affairs Manual
According to GO 100.90, Deployment of Field Officers During Maximum Enforcement
Periods, Area commanders are to determine which shifts during the Maximum Enforcement Period (MEP) significantly impact traffic safety within their jurisdiction and ensure deployment is maintained at ___% during those shifts. During the remaining shifts, Area commanders are to ensure deployment is maintained at no less than _____%.
80, 70
According to GO 100.91, Search and Seizure Policy, a ________ occurs when an expectation of privacy that society is prepared to consider reasonable is infringed; a _________ occurs when there is some meaningful interference with an individual’s possessory interest in that property; a __________ occurs when a peace officer physically applies force, or when a person voluntarily submits to a peace officer’s authority.
search, seizure of property, seizure of a person
According to GO 100.91, Search and Seizure Policy, a search is defined as:
The physical intrusion into one’s person or property to seek potential evidence or contraband that may be concealed. Merely looking at that which is open to view is not a search.
According to GO 100.91, Search and Seizure Policy, uniformed employees (may/shall not) request consent from an individual absent reasonable suspicion or probable cause.
shall not
*This does not preclude an officer from requesting consent when circumstances establish a threat to officer safety (i.e. Terry patdown).
According to GO 100.91, Search and Seizure Policy, the _________ Amendment assures the right of the people to be secure in their persons, houses, papers, and effects against unreasonable searches and seizures which shall not be violated. No warrants shall be issued, except upon probable cause, supported by oath or affirmation, describing the place to be searched, and the persons or things to be seized.
Fourth
According to GO 100.91, Search and Seizure Policy, an individual may waive his/her Fourth Amendment right by permitting a law enforcement officer the ability to conduct a ________ search of his/her person, house, papers, and effects (including a vehicle). Therefore, a consent search is a lawful procedure utilized by law enforcement officers.
warrantless
According to GO 100.91, Search and Seizure Policy, in order for a consent search to be lawful, the following requirements must be met:
(a) Consent must be granted freely and voluntarily.
(b) The person granting consent must have “standing” over the items to be searched.(c) The scope or limitation of the search must be defined and cannot be exceeded by the officer.
(d) The person granting consent has the right and the ability to withdraw consent at any time.
According to GO 100.91, Search and Seizure Policy, a CHP 202D shall be completed for _______________, whether or not a search was conducted.
all requests for investigatory consent searches
True/False - According to GO 100.92, Misuse of the 911 Emergency Reporting Telephone System, effective January 1, 2005, Penal Code Section 653(y) authorizes law enforcement agencies to issue warning letters OR citations for non-emergency use of the 911 telephone system.
True
According to GO 100.92, Misuse of the 911 Emergency Reporting Telephone System, valid emergency calls for which the 911 system is intended include, but are not limited to, reporting the following:
(1) Highway accidents.
(2) Intoxicated, reckless or other erratic drivers.
(3) Traffic hazards (hazardous material spills, roadway blockage, wires down, spilled loads, etc.).
(4) Crimes in progress
(5) Concerns for personal safety
(6) Any incident that requires an officer to respond.
According to GO 100.92, Misuse of the 911 Emergency Reporting Telephone System, examples of the misuse of the 911 system are as follows:
(1) Asking for directions.
(2) Checking the time.
(3) Checking to see if their telephone is functioning.
(4) Other calls of a harassing nature.
According to GO 100.92, Misuse of the 911 Emergency Reporting Telephone System, upon receiving a misused 911 call with sufficient information to allow follow-up (at a minimum a telephone number), the public safety dispatcher shall document the information using the Computer Aided Dispatch (CAD) system. The information shall be forwarded to the ___________, along with a printout of the corresponding CAD log.
public safety dispatcher’s supervisor
According to GO 100.92, Misuse of the 911 Emergency Reporting Telephone System, once a public safety dispatcher supervisor receives information, regarding misuse of the 911 system, the public safety dispatch supervisor will review and forward the information to the commander of the host Area for the dispatch center to assign to ________ personnel for follow-up investigations.
uniformed
According to GO 100.92, Misuse of the 911 Emergency Reporting Telephone System, once the communications center commander, receives information, regarding misuse of the 911 system, he/she who may either:
(1) Assign follow-up investigations to uniformed personnel, or
(2) If no uniformed personnel are assigned to the communications center, forward this information to their Division Investigative Services Unit for follow-up investigations.
True/False - According to GO 100.92, Misuse of the 911 Emergency Reporting Telephone System, for the first or second violation misusing the 911 system, a written warning should be sent by mail within 10 days to the violator. For a third or subsequent violation, a citation may be issued to the violator.
True, a local tracking system shall be established and updated to reflect the corrective action for each incident of misuse of the 911 system for which follow-up investigations are possible.
True/False - According to GO 100.93, Withhold of Enforcement, a “Withhold of Enforcement” is a directive by the Commissioner to enforcement personnel to modify existing enforcement procedures and is not a circumvention or a nullification of existing statutes or regulations.
True
According to GO 100.93, Withhold of Enforcement, the CHP will consider a Withhold of Enforcement only when one or more of the following conditions exists:
- Statutory authority, e.g., Vehicle Code Section 34501.2(c)(2).
- Regulatory authority, e.g., Title 13, California Code of Regulations, Section 1202(e).
- Court order or case law permitting or mandating such action.
According to GO 100.93, Withhold of Enforcement, Area/Division Commanders who wish to request a Withhold of Enforcement shall submit to the Commissioner through channels a memorandum that contains the following headings/information:
- Proposed Withhold
- Background
- Justification
- Authority to Issue Withhold
- Consequences of Not Approving Withhold
The following Government agencies received T/C reports at no charge:
1) Peace officers in the performance of their official duties.
2) Coroner or his/her deputies (fatal collisions only).
3) District Attorney or Deputy District Attorneys.
4) Irrigation and municipal utility districts for collisions involving their vehicles or property.
5) Public defenders or public or quasi-public offices organized to provide free legal services to indigent persons.
6) Grand juries - limited to the investigation(s) within their respective counties.
7) County officers in charge of county highways. Information released shall be restricted to reports of collisions occurring at locations within their respective jurisdictions.
8) Public school districts for collisions involving their vehicles or property.
9) A county exercising rights to recover from third parties under Government Code Section 23004.1 (recovery of hospital, medical, etc., provided at the county’s expense), if authorized by the patient.
10) Public agencies exercising their rights to recover expenses for emergency responses under Government Code Section 53150 (a person under the influence or person(s) whose intentional wrongful conduct results in emergency response creating liability for expense of response).
Authority for release of accident reports in contained in ___________.
20012 V.C.
True/False – According to GO 110.2, Release of Collision Information, government agencies may receive a copy of a traffic collision report free of charge when the public agency is exercising their right to recover expenses for emergency responses under Government Code 53150 (a person under the influence or person(s) whose intentional wrongful conduct results in emergency response creating liability for expense of response).
True
True/False - Completed CHP 190’s request for accident report are for Departmental purposes only.
True
True/False - Before releasing any collision report, departmental employees shall make a reasonable determination that the person requesting the report is a person who has proper interest or represents a person with proper interest.
True
Responses to inquires made by telephone, written or in person, should be handled within _________.
48 hours
Discussions between patrol members and parties interested in a collision investigation shall be scheduled by:
Immediate Commander
Discussions in an AI interview (should/shall) be scheduled during the investigating officer’s duty hours for a ________.
shall
15-20 minute period
True/False - A citizen requests an AI interview with an employee and wishes to record the interview. Per policy parties shall not be allowed to record these interviews.
True
True/False - A party of interest may review a report in its entirety without charge.
True
True/False - Privately-owned copying machines may not be used to make copies of accident reports.
True
A motor vehicle traffic death is defined as a death which occurs _____ days or less after the collision
30
True/False - Area Commanders shall report motor vehicle deaths occurring on incorporated / unincorporated / private property daily.
True
True/False - According to GO 110.8, Photographs for Accident and Investigations, photographs may be loaned without charge to federal agencies, state departments, political subdivisions of the state, various news media, traffic safety groups, service clubs, and other interested organizations when such loan will be of assistance to the governmental agency or will further safety education efforts of the Department provided the evidence value of the photographs for possible court action is not jeopardized.
True
True/False - According to GO 110.8, Photographs for Accident and Investigations, the sale, loan, or gift of any accident photograph, except as provided for in the GO and without prior approval from Headquarters, is considered to be incompatible with departmental policy and constitutes grounds for adverse action as outlined in Internal Investigation Manual, HPM 10.2.
True
Area Commanders shall report all deaths in custody to the _______________ within 10 days after the death.
Attorney General
True/False - A heart attack during a traffic stop would constitute an “in-custody death.”
True
Commanders shall establish Area policy to develop __________ security/welfare checks at the district office of each state elected official. Officers who perform security/welfare checks shall document that activity on the Daily Field Record, CHP 415.
monthly
Per the Key Contact Program, Commanders shall meet with assigned elected officials once a _______.
quarter
The ___________Chief is the Department’s appointed Merit Award Administrator.
Administrative Services Division (ASD)
True/False - The Associate Analyst in Administrative Services Division (ASD) coordinates the program.
True
The Commissioner is authorized to provide monetary awards up to $_________.
5,000
Employees appointed to Career Executive Assignments (CEA), or Exempt classifications with a collective bargaining designation of ___________ are not eligible for the Merit Award Employee Suggestion Program.
“managerial”
If a verbal suggestion to a supervisor was implemented and it can be proven it was because of your suggestion that the safety feature or procedure was implemented you have how long to submit a STD 645.
six months
A cash award, not to exceed ______ % of the savings may be paid to the suggester.
20
Awards of more than _______ require legislative approval and may never be more than ______.
$5,000, $50,000
True/False - Before an award is granted for an adopted suggestion, the suggestion must be implemented.
True
Does the Dept. have a Mentor Program?
Yes
True/False - Per the CHP Mentor Program are employees allowed time off to mentor.
True, but only after they have volunteered 40 hours off duty or by using vacation, annual leave or CTO credits within a calendar year in order for them to be able to get mentoring leave (40 hours per year) to be used to mentor during work hours. Mentor Leave cannot be used for travel to and from and must be requested and used before that calendar year.
Are employees involved in the mentoring program required to report time spent.
Yes, on a CHP Mentor Program Quarterly Report, turned in to the Division Mentor coordinator.
What is its purpose of the Mentor Program?
For the Dept. to support the Governor’s efforts by providing departmental employees volunteer opportunities with a “bona fide mentoring organization” (at risk youth).
Who manages the Governor’s security?
A new position was created, The Chief of Governor’s Security, who reports directly to the Commissioner or one of his executive officers.
Regarding PBOR legislation, how long does the public agency have to notify the employee of the imposed discipline?
within 30 days after the decision and has to include the date the discipline will be imposed, unless the employee is unavailable for discipline.
Regarding PBOR legislation, commander must ensure that an investigation is completed within __________________.
Regarding PBOR legislation, commander must ensure that an investigation is completed within one year (except for above exceptions), noticed re discipline and date within 30 days. what are the exceptions?
Regarding PBOR legislation and investigations, Are the exceptions to the one year time frame?
Yes, (1) If the act, omission, misconduct, etc. is also the subject of a criminal investigation or criminal prosecution is still pending. (2) If the public safety officer waives the one year time period in writing. (3) If the investigation involves multi-jurisdictional investigation that requires a reasonable extension for coordination of the involved agencies. (4) If the investigation involves more that one employee and requires a reasonable extension. (5) If the investigation involves an employee that is incapacitated or otherwise unavailable. (6) If the investigation involves a matter in civil litigation where the public safety officer is named as a party defendant, the one year period shall be tolled while that civil action is pending. (7) If the investigation involves a matter in criminal litigation where the complainant is a criminal defendant the one year time frame is tolled during the period of that defendants criminal investigation and prosecution. (8) If the investigation involves an allegation of worker’s compensation fraud. (9) The one year time period can also be waived if new evidence is discovered that is likely to affect the outcome of the investigation (and could not have otherwise been reasonably discovered in the normal course of the investigation) OR the evidence resulted from the employees pre-disciplinary response or procedure.
Regarding PBOR legislation, what is the time frame to complete punitive action?
One year from the time the conduct was discovered by a person authorized to initiate an investigation of the allegation, act, omission, or other misconduct.
Who is responsible for material management functions regarding new badges and cap pieces, initiation of processing of purchase contracts, quality control, repairs, rank ribbon changes, and issuance of temporary badges?
Administrative Services Division, Business Services Section
What is the Dept’s 2000 Command Management Plan?
Reducing the MDR to 1.19, Improving Internal services (Recruitment), and Improving External Service (Congestion Relief, Accident Investigation, Commercial Enforcement, Community Outreach) REVISE!!!!!
The requirement for reporting the Dept’s 2000 Command Management Plan are?
Quarterly reports that summarize the highlights of the activities and results.
Per Assembly Bill 1127, Employee Safety Violations, the absence of an Injury and Illness Prevention Program (IIPP) is a violation.
Yes
Per Assembly Bill 1127, Employee Safety Violations, are state agencies exempt from safety violation penalties in the work place?
No, clarify
Assembly Bill 1127, Employee Safety Violations, increased the penalty for violations to what?
$25,000 for a serious violation to be levied against the Department, clarify
Who is now required to attend TAIT I (Techniques of Accident Investigation Training per the Department’s in-service accident investigation program?
All officers and Sergeants.
Who completes the career development plans for first line supervisors and what criteria are used?
Commanders complete using the 12-dimension criteria formerly used during the assessment center and include both strengths and developmental areas for the employees. Need to be completed prior to the end of their 1st probationary year.
True/False - Career development plans are required to be completed for first line supervisors
True
What are the 12-dimensions in the career development plans for first line supervisors?
Positive Influence, Planning and Organization Skills, Written Communication Skills, Initiative, Judgment, Flexibility, Sensitivity, Decision making Skills, Organizational Sensitivity, Verbal Comm. Skills, Problem Analysis, Performance Under Stress.
What is the policy concerning the Congestion Relief Strategies (re. Investigating officers and FSP)?
Officers are to coordinate with FSP tow drivers for the expeditious removal of vehicles involved in PDO type traffic collisions from the freeway lanes and/or shoulders to a location immediately off of the freeway/adjacent surface street.
Prior to leaving the scene, what are officers required to do re. congestion relief and use of
FSP?
Call a rotation tow and indicate a new or correct location. Transport motorists/passengers to the off freeway location by FSP and/or CHP to remain with their vehicle. ONLY CHP may determine the sobriety of the driver of vehicles that are to be pushed off of the freeway. Officers shall determine if there is any safety concerns at the off freeway location. If the driver wants to leave their vehicle at the off freeway location, officer shall advise them of the possibility of vandalism, theft, and parking restrictions.
According to the Bargaining Unit 5 agreement, the CAHP has the right to represent its members before the state regarding:
wages, hours, and other terms and conditions of employment
According to the Bargaining Unit 5 agreement, the CAHP also has the right to receive timely ______ notice of changes to, or adoption of, any rule or regulation directly relating to wages, hours, and other terms and conditions of employment.
written
According to the Bargaining Unit 5 agreement, if a request is made by the CAHP Area Representative to make changes in the current practice of scheduling shifts and days off, the Commander shall ______________.
meet and confer to discuss the requested changes
According to the Bargaining Unit 5 agreement, an authorized CAHP Representative refers to a CHP Officer designated as a (an) ____________.
CAHP Director, Defense Representative, Area Representative, Alternate Area Representative or paid staff member
According to the Bargaining Unit 5 agreement, a CAHP Representative’s “area of primary responsibility” shall be ___________.
the Division, Area, Section or Bureau which is the employee’s assigned work location
True/False - According to the Bargaining Unit 5 agreement, Directors, paid staff, and defense representatives may be called to represent members statewide.
True, however if outside the CAHP Representative’s area of primary responsibility, shall not be on State time except as otherwise noted by this agreement.
True/False - According to the Bargaining Unit 5 agreement, there shall be no more than one Area Representative and one Alternate Area Representative per work location.
True
According to the Bargaining Unit 5 agreement, a CAHP Representative desiring access to a work location must state the purpose and request approval from the Area Commander or his/her representative ___________.
within a reasonable amount of time prior to the intended visit
According to the Bargaining Unit 5 agreement, the Area Commander or his/her representative may restrict access for reasons of ______________.
safety, security, or operational needs
True/False - According to the Bargaining Unit 5 agreement, the CAHP agrees that its representative will not interfere with Department operations.
True
According to the Bargaining Unit 5 agreement, CAHP Representatives shall have access to employees to represent them. If a requested visit is denied, or access is restricted, other reasonable accommodations (should/shall) be made.
shall
According to the Bargaining Unit 5 agreement, an employee designated as an authorized CAHP Representative must obtain permission from his/her _______________ to engage, during duty hours, in business relating to this agreement.
immediate supervisor
*Note - in no instance shall the designee be a CAHP Representative. Permission to engage in such activity shall be granted promptly unless such absence would interfere with efficient operations. If permission is denied, an alternate time will be designated.
According to the Bargaining Unit 5 agreement, a CAHP Representative shall be allowed up to ________ hours of release time to assist an employee with a grievance or complaint at each level of the grievance/complaint procedure.
four
*Note - Provided it is in the CAHP Representatives designated area primary responsibility. This time may be extended with approval of the commander of Office of Employee Relations.
According to the Bargaining Unit 5 agreement, a grievant or a CAHP Representative may be allowed up to _______ hours of release time to assist the CAHP in preparing for arbitration.
eight
*Note - In no event will more than one individual be provided released time per arbitration. This time may be extended with approval of the commander of Office of Employee Relations.
According to the Bargaining Unit 5 agreement, a CAHP Representative may be allowed up to ______ hours of release time to review an Adverse Action file and to assist the employee in preparation and presentation of the “Skelly” response.
four
*Note - Provided it is in the CAHP Representatives designated area primary responsibility. This time may be extended with approval of the commander of Office of Employee Relations.
According to the Bargaining Unit 5 agreement, CAHP Representative shall be allowed released time to assist the employee during an Adverse Action interrogation. If representation is provided as a result of an internal investigation at a time other than the CAHP Representative’s regularly scheduled shift, the regularly scheduled shift for the CAHP Representative (shall/shall not) be adjusted for the time actually spent in the representation.
shall
According to the Bargaining Unit 5 agreement, if representation is provided as a result of an internal investigation and is outside of the CAHP Representative’s area of primary responsibility, the only release time allowed will be __________.
the actual time spent in the interview
*Note - Exceptions to this provision require approval from the commander of Office of Employee Relations.
True/False - According to the Bargaining Unit 5 agreement, employees on reimbursable paid leave shall waive any and all claims against the state for worker’s compensation and industrial disability leave.
True
According to the Bargaining Unit 5 agreement, employees using release time shall report such time on a _________.
CHP 610
According to the Bargaining Unit 5 agreement, employees shall be entitled to reasonable time off without loss of compensation to confer with a representative of the CAHP on representational matters at the work site, relating to grievance/complaint, arbitration, Skelly response, adverse action interrogation, during work hours. This is subject to the approval of _____________.
the employee’s supervisor
True/False - According to the Bargaining Unit 5 agreement, with an employee’s written consent, an authorized CAHP Representative shall be permitted, upon request, to inspect the employee’s official Departmental personnel file during normal business hours.
True, such review shall not interfere with the normal business of the department. Other existing rules relating to personnel folders shall remain in effect.
According to the Bargaining Unit 5 agreement, the CAHP may use existing employee organization bulletin boards to post information or materials concerning ___________________.
(1) Notices and results of any official Association Committee or Board of Director’s Meeting.
(2) Notices of association elections and their results.
(3) Notice of association recreational and social events.
(4) Notice of other official Association business.
According to the Bargaining Unit 5 agreement, any materials posted shall be _______________ and a copy provided to ________ at the time of posting.
initialed and dated, the Commander or his/her designee
*Note - the CAHP agrees that any material posted or distributed at work location will not be obscene, libelous, defamatory, or of a partisan political nature.
According to the Bargaining Unit 5 agreement, the CAHP may distribute CAHP literature before or after work hours or ________.
during meal periods in areas which work is not being conducted
True/False - According to the Bargaining Unit 5 agreement, the Department will permit CAHP to use State facilities for membership meetings and conferences, upon reasonable advanced notification.
True
True/False - According to the Bargaining Unit 5 agreement, CAHP Representatives shall have access without cost to State telephones.
True, however the use of state telephones shall not result in toll charges.
According to the Bargaining Unit 5 agreement, one CAHP representative at each Area office will be allowed ______ hour(s) of time released from duty to distribute and discuss the MOU. This time may be used in ________ hour increments __________ each quarter.
4 hours, ½ hour increments, twice each quarter
According to the Bargaining Unit 5 agreement, the _____________ is used to process and resolve grievances under this agreement.
grievance procedure
According to the Bargaining Unit 5 agreement, the purpose of the grievance procedure is to ____________________.
resolve grievances at the lowest possible level and to provide an orderly procedure for reviewing and resolving grievances promptly
According to the Bargaining Unit 5 agreement, a grievance is defined as ___________________.
a dispute of one or more employees, or a dispute between the State and CAHP involving the interpretation, application, or enforcement of the express terms of this Agreement
According to the Bargaining Unit 5 agreement, the term “immediate supervisor” means:
the individual identified by the appointing authority who are signs, reviews and directs the work of an employee.
True/False - According to the Bargaining Unit 5 agreement, the parties may mutually agree to waive any step of the grievance procedure.
True
According to the Memorandum of Understanding (Unit 5), a ___________ is a dispute of one or more employees or a dispute between the CAHP and the Department involving the application or interpretation of an existing written rule or policy. This procedure does not cover merit-related issues.
complaint
According to the Bargaining Unit 5 agreement, the hourly rate shall be calculated using a Conversion Monthly Divisor of _______, which is the equivalent of a _____ hour work week, or _______ hour work period of 28 days.
184.17, 42½, 170
According to the Bargaining Unit 5 agreement, FTO differential of 5% of the daily rate of base pay per shift applies when an FTO is ________ training.
formally
Swing shift (pay differential) is ____ or more hour(s) of the regularly scheduled work shift between _______ and _____________.
4, 1800, 0100
According to the Bargaining Unit 5 agreement, to qualify for a swing shift differential ($1.00/hr.), the employee must work ____ or more hours of a regularly scheduled work shift between _____ and _____.
4, 1800 hrs, 0100 hrs
According to the Bargaining Unit 5 agreement, to qualify for a graveyard shift differential($1.50/hr.), the employee must work ___ hours or more of a regularly scheduled work shift between ____ and _____.
4, 2300 hrs, 0600 hrs
According to the Bargaining Unit 5 agreement, to receive an OIC differential the officer must perform OIC duties ____ hours or more during a shift.
6
According to the Bargaining Unit 5 agreement, a work period is a regular and recurring _____ consecutive-day period for CHP Officers.
28
According to the Bargaining Unit 5 agreement, business telephone calls outside the employees work hours of less than _____ minutes duration shall receive $10 compensation. The employee is limited to this benefit _____ time(s) per day.
30 minutes, 1
According to the Bargaining Unit 5 agreement, an employee’s work period starts __________ and ends _________.
at the employee’s shift start time and ends 28 consecutive 24-hour periods later
According to the Bargaining Unit 5 agreement, business calls longer than _________ are credited as overtime.
30 minutes
According to the Bargaining Unit 5 agreement, the workday for an employee shall start at _________ and end _________.
the beginning of the employee’s shift and end 24 hours later
According to the Bargaining Unit 5 agreement, overtime is authorized time worked in excess of ____________.
8½ hours per work day or order work on scheduled days off
True/False - According to the Bargaining Unit 5 agreement, employees will be required to expend one hour of vacation or CTO that is not worked by employees when standard Time changes to daylight savings time.
False, no charge for time off is made (e.g. the employee still claims an 8 hour day but only worked 7 hours)
True/False - According to the Bargaining Unit 5 agreement, overtime is credited for the additional hour worked by employees when daylight savings time reverts to standard time.
True
According to the Bargaining Unit 5 agreement, officers whose total work hours exceed 171 hours in a 28 day work period (except admin. positions) are assigned to Work Week Group (WWG) _____.
2
According to the Bargaining Unit 5 agreement, overtime is credited in ____________________.
¼ hour increments with a full quarter hour credited if half or more of the period is worked
According to the Bargaining Unit 5 agreement, the paid overtime rate is ____________ the hourly equivalent of the employee’s total monthly compensation, ____________.
1½, including specialty pay
According to the Bargaining Unit 5 agreement, When is CTO required?
While in travel status is not connected with enforcement duties, such as travel to or from the Academy or other schools for the purpose of training.
According to the Bargaining Unit 5 agreement, employee CTO balances shall not exceed _____ hours.
480
According to the Bargaining Unit 5 agreement, CTO may be used only in units of ____________.
¼ hour or multiples thereof
True/False - According to the Bargaining Unit 5 agreement, CTO earned must be used within 12 months
False, there is no time limit; however, the time when CTO may be taken shall be at the discretion of the employee’s commander.
According to the Bargaining Unit 5 agreement, when an employee is called back for overtime other than prescheduled voluntary overtime, and an additional trip to the work location is required, the employee will be compensated, up to a maximum of __________, for travel time.
one and one-half hours each way
*Note - An employee shall not be subject to this limit when he/she is required to attend court in an Area other than where he/she is currently assigned.
According to the Bargaining Unit 5 agreement, if an employee who has completed a normal work shift and is called back to work, without having been notified prior to completion of the work shift, they shall be credited with ______________
a minimum of four hours work time
According to the Bargaining Unit 5 agreement, an employee who has completed a normal work shift and has received notification of a call back prior to completion of their work shift, they shall be credited with a minimum of four hours work time if the work begins more than _________________.
three hours after the completion of the work shift
True/False - According to the Bargaining Unit 5 agreement, when an employee is called back within four hours of the beginning of a previous call or an additional call is received while still working on earlier call, the employee shall not receive an additional four hours credit.
True
According to the Bargaining Unit 5 agreement, if an employee is on an authorized day off, when order back to work, they shall be credited with __________.
a minimum of four hours work time
According to the Bargaining Unit 5 agreement, call back overtime which extends beyond the four hour callback shall be credited in _____.
units of ¼ hour increments
True/False - According to the Bargaining Unit 5 agreement, if an employee is called back to work, completes the callback situation, and returned to his/her home only to be called out again, more than four hours after receiving the first call, he/she is entitled to an additional four hour of callback time.
True
According to the Bargaining Unit 5 agreement, callback due to court appearances shall be limited to one four hour call back period. If an employee is scheduled for two court appearances in one day, call back time shall be credited from the beginning of the first appearance through the completion of the second; except that when a second appearance in more than _______ hours from the end of the first appearance, a minimum of four hours credit for each appearance shall be given.
six
True/False - According to the Bargaining Unit 5 agreement, when an employee is called back within four hours of the beginning of the next shift, 4 hours callback credit shall be received.
False, they are paid only for the hours remaining before the next shift.
According to the Bargaining Unit 5 agreement, when there are ______ hours or less between the end of the shift and the time an employee must leave from the office for a court appearance, an employee shall receive overtime for the intervening period. Employee is entitled to and shall receive overtime whether or not he/she works during the interval.
three
*Note - Departmental policy provides that the employee may be scheduled to work during this period. If the employee is not scheduled to work and he/she chooses to leave the work site, time for travel and appearance will still be computed based upon departure from the office.
True/False - According to the Bargaining Unit 5 agreement, an employee who is required to appear in court while on leave of absence without pay or suspension does not receive salary payment for the court appearance and does not accumulate call back time or overtime for such appearance.
True.
According to the Bargaining Unit 5 agreement, an employee should not normally be called back to duty while an injury status. If an employee called to court while on injury status he/she will be compensated with _______.
regular time
According to the Bargaining Unit 5 agreement, employees who must make court appearances while on military leave, including routine annual leave of 30 calendar days or less, (is/is not) entitled to callback time or overtime for such appearance.
is not
*Note - Regular salary payment is made only to the extent that the employee is eligible for payment for the first 30 calendar days of active duty.
According to the Bargaining Unit 5 agreement, employees shall not normally be called back to work from a scheduled vacation. In the event an employee is required to appear in court during a scheduled vacation and the court appearance is _______________, employee shall be compensated in accordance with callback provisions of this section
outside the employee’s normal scheduled shift
True/False - According to the Bargaining Unit 5 agreement, work schedule shall not be adjusted to accommodate an employee’s court appearance on either a criminal or civil matter simply to minimize overtime earnings. However, in a situation where an employee will be too fatigue following a court appearance to work his/her schedule shift a supervisor may determine a change of schedule is appropriate in this type of situation to protect the employee from the possible consequent of being overly fatigue.
True
According to the Bargaining Unit 5 agreement, when an employee has completed a normal shift or is on an authorized day off, and is required to testify telephonically in response to a subpoena issued by the Department of Motor Vehicles, he/she shall be credited with _____________.
two hours of overtime
*Note - If the employee elects to respond in person to the assigned work location, the employee shall be compensated in accordance with four hours of overtime. Additionally, if an employee expends more than two hours of preparation and telephonic testimony, the employee shall receive overtime for the actual time worked.
According to the Bargaining Unit 5 agreement, short Notice cancellations (less than 24 hours) of court appearances or reimbursable contracts entitle employees to ________.
$50
According to the Bargaining Unit 5 agreement, employees who are on standby and can respond to work within one and one-half hours shall be compensated at the rate of _________________.
one hour of pay or CTO for each 4-hour period of standby
According to the Bargaining Unit 5 agreement, full time employees are eligible to receive a total of ________ hours of holiday-in-lieu credit each calendar year.
164
True/False - According to the Bargaining Unit 5 agreement, employees assigned to administrative positions shall be required to expend holiday-in-lieu credits on the day the holiday occurs.
True, unless the employee is directed to work on the holiday.
According to the Bargaining Unit 5 agreement, the maximum vacation leave credits for an employee is ___ hours.
816
According to the Bargaining Unit 5 agreement, the maximum sick leave credits for an employee is ______ hours.
no limit
According to the Bargaining Unit 5 agreement, sick leave verification may be required after the ______ consecutive day of sick leave usage.
2nd
According to the Bargaining Unit 5 agreement, family sick leave is limited to _______ per fiscal year.
48 Hours
True/False - According to the Bargaining Unit 5 agreement, the Department may require a doctor’s certificate or other verification of illness for every sick leave absence, regardless of length.
True, if it appears that sick leave is being used improperly and discussion with employee has shown no positive results.
According to the Bargaining Unit 5 agreement, sick leave is used in _________ increments.
½ hour
According to the Bargaining Unit 5 agreement, the maximum annual leave credits for an employee is ___ hours.
816
According to the Bargaining Unit 5 agreement, bereavement leave shall be authorized for up to _____ eight hour days in a fiscal year.
3 *eight-hour days; 3 days per occurrence for immediate family or same residence, nolimit on occurrences per year; only one occurrence per year authorized for extended family
According to the Bargaining Unit 5 agreement, _____ additional days of bereavement leave is authorized if the employee is required to travel over _____ miles one-way.
2 days, 400 miles
According to the Bargaining Unit 5 agreement, a Department head or his/her designee shall grant a permanent female employee’s request for unpaid leave of absence for purposes of pregnancy, childbirth, recovery there from, or care for the newborn child for a period not to exceed ___________ including a paid leave taken for said pregnancy, childbirth, recovery or care for the newborn child.
one year
*Note - The same applies to males and for adoptions.
True/False - According to the Bargaining Unit 5 agreement, sick leave credits can transferred for catastrophic leave.
False, only annual leave, vacation, CTO, and holiday credits
According to the Bargaining Unit 5 agreement, donations for catastrophic leave must be a minimum of _____ hours and in increments of whole hours thereafter.
2
According to the Bargaining Unit 5 agreement, the total leave credits received by an employee shall not exceed ___________, however, if approved by the appointing authority, total leave credits received may be ____________.
6 months, one year
True/False - According to the Bargaining Unit 5 agreement, when approved by the Commissioner, time donated by sworn members of the Department for use by other sworn members of the Department may be converted into direct financial assistance for the employee qualifying for catastrophic leave assistance.
True
According to the Bargaining Unit 5 agreement, to be eligible for a second disability benefit for the same or related cause or condition (under the Annual Leave Program), an employee must have returned to work for at least ______ consecutive work days.
10
According to the Bargaining Unit 5 agreement, NDI benefits are paid at a rate of ______ of their gross salary for a period of _______ to employees participating in the Annual Leave Program.
50%, 26 weeks
According to the Bargaining Unit 5 agreement, the waiting period for NDI benefits is ___________.
seven days unless confined to a hospital or nursing home
According to the Bargaining Unit 5 agreement, an employee on NDI may supplement with annual leave, sick leave, or partial payment to provide for up to ______ income replacement.
100%
True/False - According to the Bargaining Unit 5 agreement, an employee is required to exhaust leave credits before using NDI benefits.
False, the employee may elect to use annual leave for sick leave credits prior to receiving NDI payments, once NDI is approved the used leave credits will be restored.
True/False - According to the Bargaining Unit 5 agreement, an employee who is medically certified as able to work limited duty may be required to do so by the employer.
True, as long as the limited duty assignment is at the employee’s headquarters. If the employee refuses a limited duty assignment at his/her headquarters, the NDI benefits will be terminated.
True/False - According to the Bargaining Unit 5 agreement, an employee, offered a limited duty assignment at a location not his/her headquarters, may be compelled to accept the assignment.
False, IS NOT compelled to accept the assignment. If the employee refuses a limited duty assignment at other than the employee’s headquarters, the NDI benefits will remain in effect.
According to the Bargaining Unit 5 agreement, an employee will be eligible for NDI benefits on the first day of the monthly pay period following the completion of _________ hours of compensated work.
960
True/False - According to the Bargaining Unit 5 agreement, all appeals of an employee’s denial of NDI benefits shall only follow the procedures in the Unemployment Insurance Code and Title 22. All disputes relating to the denial of NDI benefits are not grievable or arbitrable.
True
True/False - According to the Bargaining Unit 5 agreement, an employee who is eligible to receive NDI benefits and who is medically certified as unable to return to his/her full-time work during the period of his/her disability, many upon the discretion of his/her appointing power work those hours (in hour increments) which when combined with the NDI benefit will not exceed 100% of their regular “full pay.”
True
According to the Bargaining Unit 5 agreement, employees who supplement their NDI benefits at 75% will receive service and annual leave credits at ______ of the rate of those who supplement at 100%.
one-half
According to the Bargaining Unit 5 agreement, employees not on annual leave will receive ________ per week NDI benefit.
$135
According to the Bargaining Unit 5 agreement, NDI benefits are paid at a rate of ______ per _____ to employees participating in the vacation/sick leave program.
$135 / week
According to the Bargaining Unit 5 agreement, Unit 5 employees will receive up to _______ counseling services per problem per fiscal year.
seven
According to the Bargaining Unit 5 agreement, an employee ______ years of age or older is entitled to __________ to attend a retirement seminar.
50, one shift
*Note - To attend a retirement seminar prior approval from his/her commander must be obtained. No overtime is to be allotted and no expenses are to be provided. An employee may only utilize this provision once.
According to the Bargaining Unit 5 agreement, the initial boot allowance for Category I motorcycle riders and their alternates is _________ while pilots and flight officers receive ____________.
$255 (motorcycle riders), $100 (pilots and flight officers)
According to the Bargaining Unit 5 agreement, subsequent boot allowance for Category I motorcycle riders is _____ while pilots and flight officers receive __________. Alternate motorcycle riders receive ________.
$85 (motorcycle riders), $50 (pilots and flight officers), $0.3269 per day ridden (alternate motorcycle riders)
According to the Bargaining Unit 5 agreement, employees working in areas served by mass transit (including rail, bus, or other commercial transportation license for the public conveyance) shall be eligible for a ______% discount on monthly public transit passes sold by State agencies up to a maximum of ________ per month.
75%, $65 per month
According to the Bargaining Unit 5 agreement, the primary driver of a vanpool will receive _______ per month.
$100
If an employee agrees to reimburse the Department for the loss or damage of safety and police protective equipment or, any other Department issued equipment, the Department _______ not initiate an adverse action against that employee for the loss or damage.
shall
True/False - According to the Bargaining Unit 5 agreement, If an employee, through neglect, loses their departmentally issued firearm and elects to reimburse the Department for the loss, the department may initiate an adverse action against that employee for the loss.
False, if an employee agrees to reimburse the Department for the loss or damage of safety and police protective equipment or, any other Department issued equipment, the department shall not initiate an adverse action against the employee for the loss or damage. This includes through neglect or misuse. However, the MOU reads the Department may allow an employee to reimburse…
*Note - If of the employee agrees to such reimbursement, it shall be at the current replacement cost.
According to the Bargaining Unit 5 agreement, annual, interim, or transfer performance appraisal is grievable up to the ______ level.
third
According to the Bargaining Unit 5 agreement, if a State-ordered medical examination is not scheduled on an employee’s regularly scheduled work hours, the employee will attend on ___________. In no event will an employee earn overtime compensation for this examination.
paid leave of absence
According to the Bargaining Unit 5 agreement, the odor of alcohol or marijuana on an employees breath or clothing _________ be the sole basis for determining “reasonable suspicion.”
shall not
According to the Bargaining Unit 5 agreement, information on an employee’s medical condition (unrelated to illegal or unauthorized drug use) secured through a substance abuse test or conversations with the Medical Review Officer may be used to order a _________________.
fitness for duty test
According to the Bargaining Unit 5 agreement, in regards to completing a substance abuse test utilizing urine, _______ sample(s) will be collected and preserved.
two
*Note - This is done by collecting it in one container then separating it into two containers, prior to shipping it.
According to the Bargaining Unit 5 agreement, upon giving ______ prior notice, an employee shall be permitted to participate in a State Civil Service Exam during the employee’s work hours if said exam is scheduled during a period.
48 hours
A CHP Officer makes a traffic stop and finds a plastic baggy container, what he/she believes to be “Rock” cocaine in the vehicle. What is minimum amount of the substance required for the vehicle to be seized?
14.25 grams
The requirements outlined in 11470 H&S: 14.25 grams or more of heroin or cocaine base as specified in paragraph (1) of subdivision (f) of Section 11054, or a substance containing 14.25 grams or more of heroin or cocaine base as specified in paragraph (1) of subdivision (f) of Section 11054, or 14.25 grams or more of a substance containing heroin or cocaine base as specified in paragraph (1) of subdivision (f) of Section 11054, or 28.5 grams or more of Schedule I controlled substances except marijuana, peyote, or psilocybin; 10 pounds dry weight or more of marijuana, peyote, or psilocybin; or 28.5 grams or more of cocaine, as specified in paragraph (6) of subdivision (b) of Section 11055, or methamphetamine; or a substance containing 28.5 grams or more of cocaine, as specified in paragraph (6) of subdivision (b) of Section 11055, or methamphetamine; or 57 grams or more of a substance containing cocaine, as specified in paragraph (6) of subdivision (b) of Section 11055, or methamphetamine; or 28.5 grams or more of Schedule II controlled substances.
Departmental policy is established or changed by the Commissioner and is contained in:
General Orders, Manuals, or temporarily, in Management Memorandums and Comm. Nets.
For the purpose of this publication, policy is defined as written statements that establish ______ toward the accomplishment of departmental objectives.
direction
Requests for more than 10 courtesy copies of Departmental publications shall be approved by ___________________.
Assistant Commissioner, Staff
OPI’s must review publications every ___________.
6 months
Comm-Net messages which contain policy and procedures shall be placed in the appropriate publications within ________ from date of issue.
45 days
_______________ provides a means for writing temporary directives, policy, and regulatory material.
Management Memorandum
Management memorandums contain expiration dates not to exceed ___________ from their effective dates.
nine months
Which type of Departmental publication is intended for public use?
HPH’s (Highway Patrol Handbooks)
___________ disseminate information only and contain no directives or policy
Information Bulletins
Any policy or direction contained in Staff, Board, committee, conference minutes will expire __________ after the meeting.
6 months
In 1979 a California Appellate Court decision, Northern California Police Practices Project vs. Craig, determined that the CHP can exclude (exempt) from public disclosure material contained in manuals, guides, orders, etc. when it relates to ____________.
officer safety and/or internal security.
Officer safety/Internal security materials are exempt from disclosure per what Code?
Government Code
The approved font that shall be used for all Departmental Publications is _____________.
Arial (Universal no longer allowed)
The font size that shall be used in the body and text is _______ point type. Major headings shall be______ point type in bold and the footers shall be in 12 point type.
12, 12
Information Bulletin is the required medium for transmitting communications which are strictly _________________ in nature.
informational
A distribution designation of “G” indicates distribution to _____________.
Executive Offices and all headquarters commands (Division and section offices
A distribution designation of “D” indicates distribution to _____________.
all uniformed employees
A distribution designation of “A” indicates distribution to ___________.
Field Commands
A distribution designation of “F” indicates distribution to _____________.
all personnel.
Publications ___________ be reproduced locally.
may reproduce small numbers to fill special need
Who is accountable for the maintenance and number of copies of publications in each command?
the Commander
Route slips are not correspondence and may be used ___________ departmentally.
intra
The quality, content, and format of correspondence is the responsibility of the _______.
signer
Publications Transmittals, Management Memos, and Information bulletins are governed by which Departmental Manual?
Publications Management Manual, HPM 1.1
Communications which contains directives or information shall be issued as _________________.
either Management Memorandums or Information Bulletins.
Correspondence does not include ___________ Memorandums.
Publications Transmittal
Correspondence includes all communications on ________________.
Departmental Letterhead and Memorandum (CHP 51).
File information copies ___________ require a signature.
do not
True/False - All correspondence shall be signed in ink.
True
If a reply to correspondence is required and the desired information cannot be furnished within ______ working days from the date of receipt, the correspondence shall be acknowledged.
15
All written communications shall be written in plain, straightforward language, avoiding technical terms as much as possible, and using a coherent and easily readable style per ____________.
Government code 6215
A copy of all informative correspondence to or from a member of Congress or the President’s Cabinet shall be prepared for _____________________.
the Governor’s Washington D.C. office
All suggested replies shall be _____________ spaced.
double
Masculine or feminine terms _______ be used when referring to groups which may include both sexes.
may not
A copy of all correspondence to State Legislators shall be coordinated with ________.
the Office of Special Representative
Category 2 correspondence is prepared on ___________________.
CHP Letterhead
Category 1 correspondence is used for individuals or agencies _______ State Government.
inside
Category 2 correspondence is used for individuals or agencies ________ State Government.
outside
Category 2 correspondence shall be used within state government for the following:
commendations or letters to the Governor, Lieutenant Governor, State Legislators, judges and justices (elected officials).
Category 1 correspondence is prepared on _____________.
Memorandum, CHP 51
True/False - The use of file numbers mandatory for Areas.
False, it is mandatory on HQ correspondence, but only optional for Areas.
When may abbreviations be used in the inside address correspondence?
State names and directions (NE, SW, etc.), always spell out street names
The _____________ system of time expression shall be used in interdepartmental and letterhead correspondence (category 2).
American
On multiple page letters or memorandums, correspondence is resumed _________ below the date.
four line spaces
The second and each succeeding page of a letter or memorandum shall be headed with the name of the addressee(s) as it appears in the inside address, the page number, and the date ___________ from the top, flush with the left margin.
one inch (six line spaces)
“Enclosures” is used for _____________.
letters
“Attachments” is used for ___________.
Memorandums
Other categories of U.S. Postal Service mail (second-class, third-class, and fourth-class) (are/are not) used by MSU.
are not
What is the purpose of Department Employee Relation Program?
Encourage harmonious relations between the Department and its employees, and establish procedures for the equitable and peaceful resolution of differences on employee relations matters.
What is the key to increased job satisfaction?
Open communication.
Under SEERA, elected representatives of the rank and file deal as equals with the employer in determining _________________.
wages, hours, terms and conditions of employment
If there is a conflict between Departmental policy and the provisions of a negotiated labor agreement, which is controlling?
labor agreement
Managerial employees are ___________ the definition of “Represented Employees.”
excluded from
Employees representing themselves individually may use a personal advisor from an organization which competes with the exclusive bargaining unit.
False
Once an employee organization is certified to represent an employee group, an individual employee ___________ refuse to join or participate.
may
True/False - An employee may represent themselves individually in their relations with management.
True
The Dills Act addresses the formation of bargaining units, exclusive representatives, and labor agreements for supervisory employees.
False, rank and file employees only.
Managerial employees have all of the rights of “State Employees.”
False
Managerial employees have the right to use the grievance and appeal procedure set forth in HPM 9.1 (Chapter 8).
True
Managerial, supervisory, and confidential employees are examples of ___________.
excluded employees
Who may represent a managerial employee?
Another excluded employee, personal advisor, legal counsel.
“Meet and Confer” means that the employer shall consider as fully as it deems reasonable presentations made by the employee organizations on behalf of its supervisory employees. Under this process the final decision rests with _____________.
the employer
Management authority is absolute.
False
The _____________ is/are responsible for developing sound, positive employee relations and ensuring that Departmental policies, procedures, and the terms of the negotiated labor agreements are administered properly and consistently.
managerial and supervisory employees
Who is link between management/employees?
The supervisor
A bona fide association is an organization that (does/does not) have as their purpose the representation of employees.
does not
Officials and representatives of employee organizations (should/shall) be permitted access to work locations to meet with Departmental employees.
shall
An employee designated as an authorized employee organization representative must obtain permission from his/her immediate supervisor to engage, during work hours, in business relating to representational matters. Permission shall be granted in what manner?
promptly
A recognized employee organization may use an existing bulletin board to post organization notices.
True
If doubt exists as to the propriety of material posted, what must be done before removal?
Consult with Office of Employee Relations.
Use of Departmental A/V equipment by employee organizations may be _________.
permitted
After requesting and being granted access, when may a recognized employee organization may distribute organizational literature?
Before or after work or during meal periods.
Use of the State and Department’s internal mail system to distribute employee organization material is ___________.
prohibited
Release time may be granted to __________ meet and confer.
attend
Shift or schedule changes (may/may not) be made to provide for release time.
may not
If an employee elects to meet with an employee organization representative off-site, release time (is/is not) granted.
is not
An employee and his/her representative may use a reasonable amount of release time at each stage or review level to prepare and present a grievance. ____ hours are authorized at each level of review.
four
True/False - An employee who is representing him/herself in a grievance or appeal has the right to 4 hours release time for preparation.
False, there is no release time.
When an employee transfers to another command all grievance and complaint documents are forwarded to the new command.
False, only active grievances or complaints.
Grievance records shall be retained in the affected command for ________ year(s) following the date of final action.
three
Where are grievance and complaint records filed?
In a separate confidential classification.
Complaint records shall be retained in the affected command levels for _______ year(s) following the date of final action.
one
A ________ is a dispute involving the application or interpretation of a statute, regulation, policy or practice under the jurisdiction of DPA or involving the express terms of a bargaining unit agreement.
grievance
The first step of the grievance process is the informal discussion. Following the informal discussion between the employee and the immediate supervisor a decision or verbal response shall be provided to the employee within ____ working days.
5 for excluded employees, 7 for represented employees
Failure of the Department to respond in a timely manner _____________.
permits filing to the next level
In the event the grievance alleges a reprisal, the employee shall forward a copy to _________.
2nd level of appeal
A third party settlement of disputes between groups or individuals outside a court of law is __________.
arbitration
Efforts by a third party to bring parties to an agreement on their own is ________.
mediation
Mutual obligation to personally “negotiate” promptly, upon the request of either party and continue for a reasonable period of time in order to exchange opinions and endeavor to reach an agreement is the definition of __________.
good faith
Copies of proposed change and written notice shall be _______.
forwarded to Office of Employee Relations
Commanders contemplating a change in policy which affects working conditions, or that has a significant impact on terms and conditions of employment, shall, prior to the implementation:
(1) Give written notice to employee representative
(2) Discuss change with employee rep and majority of affected employees
(3) Advise employee rep of final decision.
Copies of the proposed change and notice, along with employee comments shall be retained for _________ after the effective date of the change.
6 months
________ is the state agency responsible for enforcing the collective bargaining law covering employees in state civil service.
Public Employment Relations Board (PERB)
According to the National Institute on Drug Abuse (NIDA), the most common health hazard in today’s work place is __________.
the abuse of drugs
The ________ plays the most important role in any successful substance testing program.
first line supervisor
*Note a supervisor is in the best position to assess any changes in job performance and/or employee behavior/appearance.
For a substance test to be effective, each supervisor must ensure that ________.
(a) Reasonable suspicion is supported by proper documentation;
(b) The sample is properly collected;(c) The chain of custody is maintained; and (d) The employee’s rights are not violated.
True/False - In addition to supervisors, policy requires the involvement of a specified mangers in all substance tests to act as a confirming official before a sample can be collected.
True
What are the five elements that are critical for the drug program to be successful? (hint 5
C’ s)
Consistency, Confirmation, Collection, Chain of Custody, and Control of Quality
Before any sample is obtained for substance testing, the supervisor’s foundation for reasonable suspicion must be approved by _________.
a specified departmental manager (confirming official).
True/False - Liability arises when it can be shown that a supervisor failed to supervise his/her subordinates appropriately due to negligence and the negligence resulted in an injury to a co-worker and/or the public. Since the potential for such liability clearly exists, Departmental supervisors must act quickly and reasonably when dealing with employees whom they suspect are abusing alcohol and/or drugs. In the area of substance abuse, the Department can be criticized for inaction as well as inappropriate action.
True
Department of Personnel (DPA) policy only addresses _________.
on-duty impairment
No state employee who is on duty or on standby for duty shall ___________________.
(1) Use, possess or be under the influence of illegal or unauthorized drugs or other illegal mind-altering substances; or
(2) Use or be under the influence of alcohol to any extent that would impede the employee’s ability to perform his/her duties safely and efficiently.
* Note - For the purposes of this policy, standby for duty occurs when an employee is designated on-call and must thereby be available to respond to an incident within a specified period of time. This would include situations such as planned protest demonstrations, special events, or unplanned natural disasters.
Only employees serving in ___________ positions shall be subject to substance testing.
sensitive
A stipulated agreement for periodic DRUG testing may be offered to ____________ as a _________.
non uniformed employees only, condition of continuing employment
Periodic drug testing may be chosen as a condition for continued employment by _____ employees. Periodic alcohol testing is available to __________ employees.
non uniformed only, both uniformed and non uniformed
Periodic testing shall not exceed a period of one year and shall not be offered without permission of ________.
the Assistant Commissioner.
The retention period for the original stipulated agreement for periodic drug testing settlement and a copy will be ________ beyond the termination date of the stipulated settlement.
12 months
True/False - Prescriptions taken in excess of amounts prescribed would be considered unauthorized and subjects the employee to testing.
True, No employee shall attempt to perform duties which, because of drugs taken due to a LEGAL prescription, he/she cannot perform without posing a threat to the health and safety of the employee or others. Employees who are so restricted may be subject to reassignment, medical examination or other actions specified by applicable statutes and regulations.
When a conflict between DPA policy and a negotiated MOU, _______ is controlling.
the MOU
An employee from voluntarily submitting to a substance test after being involved in a significant incident (i.e., combat shooting, major traffic accident, etc.) for the purpose of establishing his/her sobriety at the time of the incident as protection in the event of future litigation. While an employee may ask for a test or a supervisor (may/may not) suggest a test.
may
*Note - No action can be taken against the employee for not participating in a test unless there is reasonable suspicion of substance abuse. In this voluntary situation, an employee’s decision not to be tested shall not be documented as a refusal since it is at the employee’s option.
If an employee voluntarily submits to a substance test after being involved in a significant incident (i.e., combat shooting, major traffic accident, etc.), for the purpose of establishing his/her sobriety at the time of the incident as protection in the event of future litigation. The Department will pay for it and the test can be administered according to these established Departmental procedures. The supervisor is to ensure the employee provides some form of documentation, including their signature, to substantiate the voluntary nature of the test. What should the supervisor do with the document once it is received?
The supervisor should date and initial the document, the original shall be maintained in the field folder for 12 months, and a copy provided to the employee.
According to the Unit 5 Substance Abuse Contract Provision, the odor of alcohol or marijuana on an employee’s breath or person ______ be the sole basis for determining “reasonable suspicion” in ordering the complete drug test panel.
shall not
True/False - According to the Unit 5 Substance Abuse Contract Provision, Information on an Officer’s medical condition (unrelated to illegal or unauthorized drug use) secured through a substance abuse test or conversations with the Medical Review Officer may be used to order a fitness-for-duty test.
True, provided the “reasonable suspicion” which led to the drug test was based upon objective symptoms.
According to the Unit 5 Substance Abuse Contract Provision, in performing any substance abuse test, the state will agree that _____ samples will be taken.
two
The Unit 7 Substance Abuse Testing Side Letter states, “procedures (for collecting the sample) may include direct observation of the employee giving the sample by a medical clinician or other appropriately trained person of the same sex. This person shall not be the ______________.”
employee’s immediate supervisor, or the designee
According to HPM 9.2, Substance Testing Manual, only those individuals in positions designated as ________ by the DPA may be tested according to the provisions of this manual.
sensitive
According to HPM 9.2, Substance Testing Manual, a “sensitive” position is defined as ________________.
any peace officer and any other position in which drug or alcohol or drug affected performance could clearly endanger the health and safety of others
According to HPM 9.2, Substance Testing Manual, what characteristics must be present in the non-peace officer positions for them to be designated sensitive?
(1) Duties involve a greater than normal level of trust, responsibility for or impact on the health and safety of others; and
(2) Errors in judgment, inattentiveness or diminished coordination, dexterity or composure while performing duties could clearly result in mistakes that would endanger the health and safety of others; and
(3) Employees in these positions work with such independence or perform such tasks that it cannot be safely assumed that mistakes such as those could be prevented by a supervisor or other Departmental employee.
According to HPM 9.2, Substance Testing Manual, subject to DPA approval the _____________ designates the sensitive positions within our Department.
Commissioner
According to HPM 9.2, Substance Testing Manual, the Commissioner has designated which positions as “sensitive?”
(1) All peace officers.
(2) All cadets.
(3) Automobile Mechanic.
(4) Automotive Technician series.
(5) Commercial Vehicle Inspection Specialist I and II.
(6) Communications Operator I and II.
(7) Communications Supervisor I and II.
(8) Gunsmith.
(9) Heavy Truck Driver.
(10) Lead Automobile Mechanic.
(11) Lead Motorcycle Mechanic.
(12) Motor Carrier Specialist I, II and III.
(13) Motorcycle Mechanic.
(14) School Pupil Transportation Safety Coordinator.
According to HPM 9.2, Substance Testing Manual, DPA rules do not permit the mandated substance testing of nonsensitive positions. Despite this requirement, there is nothing in the rule which precludes a nonsensitive employee from voluntarily submitting to a substance test. With this in mind can a supervisor request a substance test from a nonsensitive employee?
NO, such a test will be limited to instances where the Department receives an UNSOLICITED request for a test FROM a nonsensitive employee.
According to HPM 9.2, Substance Testing Manual, should a supervisor suspect on-duty substance abuse or intoxication of an employee in a nonsensitive position, prompt action is still required. While the employee cannot be ordered to submit to a chemical test, there is a need for a thorough investigation into the actions/circumstances which led to the reasonable suspicion. Such an investigation and any subsequent action taken shall be done in accordance with _____________.
HPM 10.2 Internal Investigations
*Note - If the event which leads to the reasonable suspicion is from a complaint from a citizen, the complaint should be investigated consistent with HPM 10.4, Citizens’ Complaint Manual.
According to HPM 9.2, Substance Testing Manual, Supervisors who suspect substance abuse by nonsensitive employees are encouraged to establish reasonable suspicion utilizing the same criteria used to establish reasonable suspicion for sensitive positions. Especially since a chemical test may not be part of the investigation, it is essential that the reasonable suspicion be based upon:
(1) Articulable facts; (2) Close observation; and
(3) Good faith.
True/False - According to HPM 9.2, Substance Testing Manual, as part of the internal investigation, supervisors will be required to carefully document their observations. Since there will not be a mandated test result and there may not be a voluntary test result to confirm the reasonable suspicion, supervisors must be especially accurate and complete in their documentation of reasonable suspicion. Reasonable suspicion is to be documented utilizing the Reasonable Suspicion Report outlined in Chapter 11, Documentation.
True
True/False - According to HPM 9.2, Substance Testing Manual, adverse action shall not be sought when there is reasonable suspicion for substance abuse on the part of a nonsensitive employee.
False, even for a nonsensitive employee, adverse action should be sought when there is reasonable suspicion for substance abuse. The requested penalty should be consistent with the specific described circumstances surrounding the abuse. The report, a CHP 202, outlining the reasonable suspicion will be included as an exhibit in the final request for adverse action.
According to HPM 9.2, Substance Testing Manual, reasonable suspicion is a good faith belief based on ____________.
(1) Specific articulable facts or evidence that an employee may have violated the substance abuse policy; and
(2) Substance testing could reveal evidence in support of a violation.
True/False - According to HPM 9.2, Substance Testing Manual, reasonable suspicion exists only after the appointing power or his/her designee (confirming official) has also considered the facts and/or evidence and agrees that they constitute a finding of reasonable suspicion.
True
True/False - According to HPM 9.2, Substance Testing Manual, reasonable suspicion must be based on specific, identifiable facts and/or evidence.
True
True/False - According to HPM 9.2, Substance Testing Manual, initial suspicion could include any of the following: An industrial accident, unusual demeanor or appearance, atypical behavior, abnormal work performance.
True, when substance abuse cannot be ruled out, a closer observation should be made. The nature of this observation will depend on the particular qualifications of the involved supervisor and attendant circumstances.
According to HPM 9.2, Substance Testing Manual, a positive test for alcohol requires a B A level of _________.
.04%
*Note - This does not prevent the Department from taking adverse action against the employee for violating the inconsistent and incompatible activities which mandates a zero tolerance for on-duty employees.
True/False - According to HPM 9.2, Substance Testing Manual, it is suggested that nonuniformed supervisors seek the assistance of a uniformed supervisor to corroborate reasonable suspicion whenever possible.
True
*Note - In any situation, a second opinion will help to ensure all factors are considered and put into proper perspective. A second opinion will also strengthen the State’s case in any potential appeal or litigation.
According to HPM 9.2, Substance Testing Manual, an anonymous tip regarding employee substance abuse _________ sufficient cause to initiate drug testing.
is not
*Note - This only gives cause for closer observation. Irrespective of whether or not a test is ordered, an internal investigation may be initiated pursuant to the procedures outlined in HPM 10.4, Citizens’ Complaint Manual, if appropriate.
A reliable informant is defined as?
A peace officer who is willing to publicly testify on behalf of management, should it become necessary
True/False - DPA policy requires that when using a reliable informant to develop “reasonable suspicion” the employee shall be told who the informant is.
True
True/False - According to HPM 9.2, Substance Testing Manual, reasonable suspicion is a good faith belief based on specific articulable facts that the employee has violated this policy and that testing could reveal evidence of that violation. Depending upon the circumstances, information from a reliable informant alone could be the foundation for reasonable suspicion.
True, supervisors must be extremely careful when basing reasonable suspicion on information of this nature.
According to HPM 9.2, Substance Testing Manual, a “Confirming Official” is _______.
first designated manager in the supervisor’s chain of command
*Note - In the event the aforementioned manager is unavailable, the chain of command shall be followed until another manager is contacted to act as the confirming official. In no event shall the confirming official be the suspected employee’s immediate supervisor or the individual who made the initial observation leading to reasonable suspicion.
According to HPM 9.2, Substance Testing Manual, the role of the confirming official shall be to:
(1) Consider the facts and/or evidence and agree they support reasonable suspicion;
(2) Ensure accurate and proper application of the rules;(3) Provide guidance and direction; and
(4) Authorize the substance test.
True/False - According to HPM 9.2, Substance Testing Manual, substance testing is to determine current impairment as well as past abuse.
False, current use only impairment.
According to HPM 9.2, Substance Testing Manual, the substance abuse test to be used is for suspected drug use is _______.
a urine test
According to HPM 9.2, Substance Testing Manual, the supervisor/confirming official should carefully consider the following before deciding where the sample will be collected:
(1) Sex of the employee and availability of a supervisor of the same sex to collect of the sample;
(2) Some MOU’s prohibit the collection of a sample by the employee’s supervisor;
(3) A breath test can be administered for an employee who is suspected of abusing alcohol; and
(4) Employee’s willingness to provide a sample at the work location.
True/False - According to HPM 9.2, Substance Testing Manual, from the moment reasonable suspicion is developed until the time the employee provides a sample, he/she should be under continual supervisory observation. The employee should not be allowed to go to a car, locker or desk without supervision. Additionally, to secure the best possible sample, the employee SHOULD NOT be allowed to void his/her bladder until the collection of the sample.
True
How many ounces of urine are required to be considered an adequate sample?
Two fluid ounces (60 milliliters)
According to HPM 9.2, Substance Testing Manual, supervisors should realize that an employee may not be able to provide a urine sample immediately. A reasonable waiting period should be allowed for the employee to provide the sample. If, however, after a reasonable period of time the employee is still unable to provide a sample, this will be treated as a refusal, which constitutes a presumption of impairment. Employees (are/are not) permitted to drink water for the purpose of aiding them in providing a sample.
are, so long as it is supervised
According to HPM 9.2, Substance Testing Manual, if the supervisor does not collect the sample at the work location, then the urine sample may be collected by authorized medical or custodial personnel. This individual must be of the same sex and will actually __________.
watch the urine leave the employee’s body
*Note - The supervisor is to confirm that the sample will be collected under direct observation. If for some reason, authorized medical or custodial personnel refuse to collect the sample, the supervisor will personally collect the sample.
True/False - According to HPM 9.2, Substance Testing Manual, if the supervisor is not the sex as the employee, the supervisor must get another supervisor (uniformed or nonuniformed) of the same sex to obtain the sample.
True
According to HPM 9.2, Substance Testing Manual, when the laboratory testing is completed (usually ______ after the sample’s arrival), the results will be communicated to the Department which is then responsible for providing the employee with the test results as soon as possible. The initial contact by the Medical Review Officer will be by telephone. This will provide the supervisor and employee with the results in the most timely manner. Written confirmation will follow all tests.
24-48 hours
According to HPM 9.2, Substance Testing Manual, negative results will be communicated directly to the Medical Review Officer, who will immediately relay this information to the Department in the following order until the Department receives the notice:
(1) Directly to the employee’s Commander; or
(2) Directly to the Division Commander; or
(3) Directly to the appropriate Assistant Commissioner; or
(4) The Bureau of Professional Standards.
According to HPM 9.2, Substance Testing Manual, the substance abuse test to be used is for suspected alcohol use is _______.
a breath test
*Note - If the breathalyzer results are .00/.00, a urinalysis test should be secured to determine the cause of impairment.
According to HPM 9.2, Substance Testing Manual, the substance testing process is a very serious procedure, and the first-line supervisor will be dealing with the involved employee from the time reasonable suspicion first arises until the results of the test are known. Throughout that period, which may span several days, the supervisor should base his/her actions on concern for all of the following:
(1) Safety of the employee and others;
(2) Potential disciplinary action up to and including dismissal;(3) Proper enforcement of the State’s substance abuse rules; and
(4) Employee rights and privacy.
According to HPM 9.2, Substance Testing Manual, once a decision to test has been made, the employee is placed on _____ for remainder of his or her shift.
dock time
True/False - According to HPM 9.2, Substance Testing Manual, Employees suspected of drug use should be placed on Administrative Time off until the test results are known.
True, initially, on dock for remainder of their shift, subsequent days on Administrative Time off. If only alcohol is suspected the employee will be on dock for remainder of their shift can return to work the next day if they are fully recovered from its effects.
According to HPM 9.2, Substance Testing Manual, following testing, for suspected use of drugs uniformed employees shall be ______________.
stripped of peace officer powers, forfeit authorization for secondary employment, and be required to turn in State property.
Provisions of the POBR extend to ______ employees and requires that employees tested be provided ______ once tested.
all members of the Department whether or not they are peace officers, all copies of results *Note - Employees may exercise their option to retest the urine sample (at own expense), and may also file mitigating information with the Medical Review Officer.
True/False - Employees shall not be entitled to representation during testing.
True, Unit 5 employees are entitled to representation only during interrogations, either prior to or after testing. DO NOT INTERROGATE DURING TEST! If MOU other than Unit 5 check their MOU.
Expenses resulting from employee requests for sample re-testing are borne by _____.
the employee.
True/False - According to HPM 9.2, Substance Testing Manual, all positive tests will be sent to a medical review officer for review.
True, The person who replaced Dr. Smith is the designated medical review officer.
True/False - According to HPM 9.2, Substance Testing Manual, It is possible that the urinalysis could result in the identification of some other medical condition which the employee and/or the Department may or may not have previously known. Some of these conditions could jeopardize the employee’s continued employment. Yet, the State has a responsibility to further evaluate these latter conditions. Should such a condition be revealed through the substance test, the employee will be directed to complete a fitness-forduty examination.
True, additionally, any other substances detected which are not screened according to the DPA rules shall be reported to the Department by the Medical Review officer for consideration and/or action.
According to HPM 9.2, Substance Testing Manual, records, and any other information pertaining to an employee’s substance test, must be considered confidential and shall be released only to:
(1) The employee tested.
(2) An individual designated in writing by the employee tested.
(3) The Medical Review Officer.
(4) DPA as necessary to effectively administer these rules.
(5) Individuals who need-the records or information to properly supervise or assign the employee determine, or assist in determining, what action the Commissioner should take in response to the test results, respond to appeals or litigation arising from the substance test or related actions.
According to HPM 9.2, Substance Testing Manual, in an effort to minimize the stigma attached to a substance test, negative results should not be included in the employee’s personnel file. Therefore, negative test results and the documentation regarding reasonable suspicion for the test shall be maintained apart from the employee’s personnel folder unless the employee requests otherwise. This information shall be forwarded to Headquarters Office Services Unit as confidential material. This information will be maintained in a separate file for _______ or until such time as any litigation arising from circumstances leading to the test has concluded, whichever is longer.
five years
According to HPM 9.2, Substance Testing Manual, positive test results and the documented reasonable suspicion will become part of ___________. This information will be maintained for a period of five years and handled consistent with Office of Internal Affairs guidelines for these files.
the request for adverse action file
According to HPM 9.2, Substance Testing Manual, DPA rules require that the observations which lead to reasonable suspicion be documented and a copy of this information provided to the affected employee. While the rules are not specific, this information should be provided to the employee within ________ except when not reasonably possible or where other time frames are dictated by the applicable MOU.
48 hours
According to HPM 9.2, Substance Testing Manual, supervisory observations which lead to substance testing are documented on what form?
The report is to be prepared on a CHP 202 and marked “confidential.”
According to HPM 9.2, Substance Testing Manual, after completing the report (CHP 202), the supervisor must sign the document and submit it to the manager who approved the substance test. The ___________ must then sign the document indicating his/her review and concurrence with the reasonable suspicion.
confirming official
According to HPM 9.2, Substance Testing Manual, the completed report (CHP 202) must be signed by the involved employee and a copy provided to them within _______.
48 hours
*Note - If the employee refuses to sign, this fact shall be noted and initialed by a witness.
According to HPM 9.2, Substance Testing Manual, the following four elements are considered essential to a complete and comprehensive report:
(1) A detailed description of the incident and/or circumstances initiating the reasonable suspicion.
(2) The fact that substance abuse could not be ruled out after considering other possible causes, if any.
(3) Supporting evidence resulting from closer observation of the employee’s appearance and demeanor. This includes the results of any field sobriety tests, Portable Alcohol Screening (PAS) device, drug evaluations and/or medical screenings.
(4) Names of other supervisors, employees or, witnesses who can verify or support the reasonable suspicion.
True/False - The terms inefficiency and incompetency are interchangeable.
False, must be competent on task before can be considered inefficient.
The role of a dismissal review panel is to review dismissal actions which have been approved by the appropriate Assistant Commissioner. The panel will evaluate the evidence and determine __________.
if the offense warrants dismissal or a lesser offense
An employee lacking basic qualities/abilities necessary for effective action can be charged with __________.
incompetence
To charge Neglect of Duty, the action/lack of action must be __________ and without __________.
intentional or grossly negligent, lawful excuse or justification.
Charges of Dishonesty are normally only included in an investigation if the recommended penalty will be for __________.
dismissal or rejection during probation
True/False - The investigator of an act of insubordination should not be the supervisor against whom the act was committed.
True
True/False - Employee sobriety should be determined through use of a chemical test.
True
To be charged with intemperance, it must be shown to have an adverse impact on the employee’s __________.
job
The definition of Moral Turpitude is:
Conduct contrary to justice, honesty, modesty or good morals.
True/False - When charging discourtesy, it must have occurred on duty.
False, on or off-duty.
Levels of approval for Adverse Action penalties are:
Division: Written reprimand up to and including 5 days
A.C. Field: 6 - 20 days, plus removal of specialty pay for field positions
A.C. Staff: 6 - 20 days, specialty pay positions for HQ positions, plus cadet rejections The Commissioner or Deputy Commissioner: 20+ days, dismissals, demotions, and rejections during probation, (except rejections of cadets).
As the appointing party, ____________ has the final approval authority for all AA penalties.
the Commissioner
The POBR applies to probationary and permanent personnel who are __________.
peace officers.
*Note: By policy, the Department has extended POBR rights to all employees except cadets.
When information is obtained or uncovered involving acts or omissions by an employee that could result in adverse action or rejection during probation, the commander will ensure an investigation is completed. After completion, it will be submitted as either _______________.
a request for adverse action, rejection during probation, anonymous complaint, or miscellaneous investigation.
By policy, POBR applies to all Departmental employees except __________.
cadets
True/False - All cadet rejections and AA’s are processed through OIA.
False, Only rejections and AA’s involving misconduct are processed through OIA. Rejections for performance related deficiencies will be processed through Personnel & Management Division.
True/False - Internal Affairs will conduct or assist in investigations only when requested to do so by the Commissioner.
False, May be requested to assist in any investigation if unusually complex or sensitive. Request through channels to the appropriate Assistant Commissioner.
Any _______________ or designee is authorized to initiate rejection during probation with the concurrence of the next level of command.
commander
Types of Adverse Actions include __________.
dismissals, demotions, suspension/reduction in pay and written reprimands. *Does not include Form 2, Memo of Direction/correction or supervisory counseling verbally or in writing
Adverse Actions can be initiated by a commander with concurrence of __________.
next level of command.
Commanders should consider reassignment to administrative duty or a Leave of Absence with or with out pay for AAs if __________.
dismissal/rejection is probable
Commanders should consider relieving employees of assigned duties if rejection during probation is probable and __________.
assign them to administrative duties removed from the public
Leave with pay is authorized by __________.
Office of the Commissioner
*Note - Notify DPA if over 5 days.
If a leave of absence with pay will exceed __________, the Department (BIA) must obtain approval from __________.
30 work days, DPA
Leave with out pay is authorized by the __________.
appropriate Assistant Commissioner
True/False - Peace officer powers may be removed by an employee’s immediate Commander.
False, must first be approved by appropriate Assistant Commissioner.
True/False - When an employee resigns in lieu of an AA, the Commander need not complete the investigation.
False, The investigation shall be completed, the report sent to BIA, and included in the employees personnel file.
Commanders (may/shall) accept a resignation submitted voluntarily in lieu of an adverse action.
shall
The commander may terminate a leave of absence by giving the employee __________ hours notice ___________.
48, in writing
Internal investigations may be initiated as a result of __________.
any source of information
The objective of an internal investigation is to:
to gather facts which will clear the employee, provide a basis for corrective action, or lead to adverse action.
An internal investigation includes investigations of any Departmental employee for ___________.
alleged misconduct or substandard performance
An ___________ is defined as an inquiry by departmental personnel concerning alleged misconduct or substandard performance on the part of any departmental employee which leads to or may lead to adverse action.
internal investigation
When an employee of this Department, including the subject to investigation, learns that another agency is conducting an investigation involving CHP personnel, he/she shall immediately ____________________.
Notify his/her commander.
Interviews should be written in ___________except when quotations are used.
third person
All copies of completed investigations shall contain ____________ photographs.
original (not photocopies)
All original documents, negatives, video tapes, etc., _______ be entered into evidence and a CHP 36, Evidence/Property Receipt/Report, completed in accordance with HPM 70.1, Evidence Manual.
shall
True/False - Interrogations of an employee shall be recorded.
True
True/False - Employees shall be provided copies of all previously taped interrogations with a bearing on their investigation.
False, must request, and only of their own interrogations.
The “Administrative Interrogation Record” side of the CHP 8 will be read in all cases where the interrogation __________.
could lead to Adverse Action
At what stage should administrative investigations be conducted if the incident has warranted a criminal investigation?
After criminal investigation is completed.
Statements resulting from an administrative interrogation may only be used in a criminal proceeding if __________.
employee was advised and waived Miranda rights
Where an employee’s conduct is criminal in nature, what is the correct procedure with regards to conducting an investigation?
Contact allied agency to conduct investigation, use their investigation as a starting point in the investigation. Once complete, their investigation shall be included as an exhibit in the administrative file.
If Criminal Charges are possible, the Area shall contact the Office of Commissioner __________ contacting the appropriate prosecuting authority.
prior to
True/False - Departmental policy requires that involved employees cooperate with authorities investigating civil rights violations.
False, decision to interview is up to employee.
Evidence gathered during an administrative investigation (should not/shall not) be released to an agency doing a parallel criminal investigation.
shall not
True/False - The productivity of an employee can be judged solely through comparison with other employees.
False, but comparisons of others performing like tasks under similar circumstances may be considered.
Civil rights interviews conducted on __________ time, a __________ will be present.
state, supervisor
*Note - It will also be taped.
Internal investigations which do not result in a recommendation for adverse action or rejection during probation shall be disposed as follows:
Forwarded to OIA and retained in Command for 3 years.
True/False - The Public Safety Officer’s Procedural Bill of Rights is extended to all permanent Departmental employees.
True, by policy
Policy restricts the number of interrogators to a maximum of __________.
two
Prior to interrogation, employees shall be informed of __________.
all persons to be present
Interrogations should normally be scheduled during __________.
normal work shift
*Note - If interrogated while off-duty, compensated with overtime.
An officer who refuses to respond to s during an interrogation shall be informed __________.
that failure to respond may result in an AA. (3303(e) G.C.)
May an employee bring his/her own recording device to an interrogation?
The employee being interrogated shall have the right to bring his/her recording device and record any and all aspects of the interrogation (3303(g) GC).
An employee is entitled to have representation when __________.
an AA is involved
Is an officer’s representative required to disclose information received from the officer who is under investigation for a non-criminal matter?
No
Employees have __________ days to respond in writing to adverse comments in their personnel files.
30
A search of an employee’s Departmental property (i.e. locker) is authorized when:
(a) In his/her presence.
(b) With his/her consent.
(c) After a valid search warrant has been obtained.
(d) Where the employee has been notified that a search will be conducted. This applies only to lockers or other space which is owned or leased by the Department and assigned to the employee.
True/False - Officers can be ordered to take a polygraph examination.
False
True/False - An employee can be forced to submit to a lie detector test against his/her will.
False, an employee can be forced to submit to a lie detector test against his/her will and no disciplinary action or other recrimination shall be taken against an employee refusing to submit to a polygraph examination, nor shall any comment be entered anywhere in the investigator’s notes or anywhere else that the employee refused to take a polygraph examination, nor shall any testimony or evidence be admissible at a subsequent hearing, trial, or proceeding, judicial or administrative, to the effect that the employee refused to take a polygraph examination (3307 GC).
If during an investigation, a Commander feels a polygraph would be desirable, approval to ask the employee to volunteer must be obtained from __________.
the Commissioner
An employee’s desk can normally be entered by a supervisor when looking for work produced except:
when the command has allowed a reasonable expectation of privacy, such as issuance of a key to the desk, then the provisions of GC 3309 would apply.
An employee’s representative may be someone other than a union representative, but shall not be ________?
Anyone in his immediate chain of command
Skelly requires that employees be allowed __________ days to respond to the hearing officer.
5 working days (10 working days for managers)
True/False - Regarding Bargaining Unit 5 members who lose or damage State equipment, the employee may reimburse the State for current replacement or repair cost with no AA.
True
When a censurable Form 2 is issued for the same incident as the AA, it should be rescinded, with the date issued and the rescinded date documented in the investigation file. It should normally not be rescinded if more than __________ old.
30 days
What is the most important part of the investigative file?
The exhibits. They provide the proof necessary to substantiate the charges.
Copies of adverse action investigative files shall be retained for ______– years from the effective date of the action taken.
five
Who prepares the notice of Adverse Action/Rejection during probation?
BIA prepares all then sends to original Command for service.
Suspensions resulting from AA are computed on a __________ work day.
24 hour / 8 hours worked per day basis.
With the exception of dismissals, the effective date of the adverse action should not be less than ______ calendar days from the date of service.
25
The employee must be allowed a minimum of _____________ between the service of the final notice of adverse action and the predisciplinary hearing date (Skelly) to respond to the hearing officer.
5 working days
In accordance with Government Code Section 19590, managerial employees must be notified ______ days prior to the effective date of the adverse action and allowed _____ days to respond to the Predisciplinary Hearing Officer.
20, 10
Whenever possible, the Notice of Adverse Action shall be served on the employee personally. If not possible, service by ____________ can be used.
certified mail
Service of a Notice of Adverse Action/Rejection during probation should be served to employee in person by __________.
a disinterested party
A Predisciplinary or rejection hearing provides the affected employee with an opportunity to respond ________ to the imposition of discipline, rejection during probation, or termination / reassignment for medical reasons as required by Title 2, California Code of Regulations (CCR) 52.3.
prior
Employees may appeal to SPB within __________ calendar days after effective date of rejection during probation.
15
Not later than __________ calendar days after service of an AA, employees may file an appeal with SPB.
30
An appeal must be filed no later than __________ days after service notice of AA or __________ days after effective date of rejection.
30 calendar, 15 calendar
Failure to file an appeal or to appear at a hearing will cause the action taken by the appointing power to be __________.
final
True/False - PC 832.7 requires that evidence gathered from an administrative investigation be released to Allied Agencies, to Grand Juries or D.A.s investigating police conduct. The information should not be released prior to contacting Legal Coordination.
True
True/False - The specifics of an AA are not subject to disclosure at any time.
False, notice and the specifics become public record once served.
The four types of exams are:
promotional, open statewide, open with continuous filing, spot in a specific County location
Examinations are administered by ________________.
Selection Standards and Examinations Section (SSES)
A candidate testing for Communications Operator II may take the test no more than ___________.
once in any consecutive 24 month period
A candidate for Cadet, CHP may have only _________________ during any six-month testing period.
one active application
For promotion to Assistant Chief, CHP and Deputy Chief, CHP, a minimum of _________ is required in the previous rank.
One year. *Applicants who have completed six months of service performing the duties of an Assistant Chief, CHP, will be admitted to the examination, but they must satisfactorily complete one year of experience performing the duties of an Assistant Chief, CHP, before they can be considered eligible for appointment.)
For promotion to Lieutenant, CHP and Captain, CHP, how much time is required in the previous rank?
Two years.
During the process of filling a vacancy, the applicant flow data chart, CHP 440A, shall be completed to note ethnicity and gender, as well as any disability among the applicant group considered. The information is acquired through __________.
visual observation
True/False - s regarding convictions are permitted of any applicant for any position.
True
A check of the applicant’s background shall be made _______ a commitment to hire.
after
Medical clearances are obtained __________ a commitment to hire.
after
The Rule of One Rank:
Identifies that the selection must come from the first rank only.
The Rule of Three Names:
Identifies that appointments may be made from the top three names.
The rule of 3 Ranks:
Selection shall be made from the top three ranks. Those who achieve the same percentage score rounded to the nearest while point will be placed in the same rank.
True/False - It is Departmental policy to fingerprint all employees new to the Department.
True
A person considered for appointment to a non-uniformed position (is/is not) required to be a U.S. citizen or a California resident.
is not
On an Open List:
Appointment may be made using the Rule of Three Ranks process.
All applications and files of applicants not selected for hire must be retained for a minimum period of ____________.
two years
Per the Government Code, persons retired from PERS are permitted to work up to ______ hours in a calendar years without reinstating from retirement.
960
A limited term appointment is for less than _________.
two years
An individual may not work more than __________ months in any consecutive 12 month period in a TAU appointment.
nine
Retired Annuitants shall be appointed to a classification in which the person had, could have emoted to, or could have transferred to prior to retirement. They shall be paid at a rate substantially the same as other employees performing comparable duties. In no case shall the new salary step_________________.
exceed the salary step the employee was receiving at the time of retirement.
Temporary assignment or loan of an employee, within or between Departments, may not exceed 2 years. Temporary assignments or loans of employees between jurisdictions may not exceed ____ years.
four
True/False - Any person having probationary or permanent status, has the privilege of reinstatement.
True, it is not a right though. This applies if he or she was separated: by resignation; by service retirement; by termination from a limited term, temp, or career executive assignment or exempt appointment; by AWOL; without a break in State service to accept another Civil Service or exempt appointment.
The Department has the right to accept or deny any request for permissive reinstatement made within three years from the date of separation. Reinstatement during that period is solely at the discretion of the Commissioner. It will be the rare exception when approval is granted to begin the reinstatement process.
rare exception
Reinstatement of uniformed employees is normally _______ the step at the time of separation.
one salary step below
Reinstatement of a former uniformed employee to a uniformed position shall be within _________.
3 years
*Note - The process does not have to be completed in that time frame.
Reinstated employees must pass PPT, a Psych, a medical exam, and background investigation. Those requesting reinstatement after _________ months of his/her last full duty assignment will: _______________.
six, be required to attend the Academy Reinstatement Training Course.
Mandatory reinstatements are for ___________________.
medical or mental reasons when the disability no longer exists
*Note - Return from a disability retirement must not be within 6 months of turning 60.
Employee shall be given a written notice of transfer ____ days in advance of the effective date of transfer.
60
Note - Only if the transfer is mandatory and requires the employee to move his/her residence. There is no set date for voluntary transfers.
The _____ Code gives the Commissioner the power to administratively determine the geographic area of residence of any member of the Department.
Vehicle
All employees, except for _________, shall take and subscribe to the “Oath of Allegiance.” This also applies for reinstatement following permanent separation.
Sergeants and designated alternates are authorized to administer the Oath.
Merit salary adjustments (MSA) are increases equal to one step in the salary range, which may be ranted an employee annually if he/she ________ the standards of efficiency required for his/her position
meets
Time during which an employee is absent because of holidays, sick leave, vacation, or CTO shall be considered as ________________.
time worked
An employee who has _____ or more working days of service in a monthly pay period shall be considered as having a complete pay period.
11
Regardless of the probationary period length, an employee will receive ____ evaluations during the period. Most classes require a six month probationary period.
three
An employee serving a 12-month probationary period must work a minimum of _____ hours during the 12-month period.
1680
In determining the total hours worked, vacation, sick leave, military leave or other leaves of absence, CTO, suspension, (shall/shall) not be considered working time.
shall not
Veterans Educational Leave is also available for those who __________.
served in the military.
A regular leave up to _____ may be granted by the Department.
one year
*A one-year leave may be extended up to one additional year if approved by the appropriate commissioner prior to the expiration of the original one-year leave.
Temporary Leave without pay does not exceed_____ calendar days.
30
A spouse/domestic partner or parent who is a permanent employee shall be granted a leave of bsence without pay for a period not to exceed ________- to care for the newborn child.
one year
An employee who has had _____ qualifying pay periods of State service without a break is entitled to pay for the first 30 days of a short term military leave.
12
Short-term military leave is ____________ or less in length.
six months
Long term military leave is more than six months but not exceeding ___________.
five years
The employee should notify his/her commander of a military leave at least ____ days prior to the date of leave.
30
To be eligible for FMLA/CFRA benefits, an employee must have at least 12 months of state service; and, have worked at least ______ hours during the prior ____ months.
1,250, 12
An employee who becomes disabled may be eligible to receive Non-industrial Disability Insurance (NDI). NDI payments may be authorized for a maximum of ______.
26 weeks
What are the two categories of separation?
Temporary and permanent.
How many categories of separations are there?
two
A resignation may be _______ or ______.
written, oral
Dismissal (is/is not) the result of an adverse action.
is
Automatic resignation is the separation of an employee after absence without leave (AWOL) for _____or more ________ working days.
5, consecutive
On all types of separations, it is important that the commander notify ________ immediately.
PSS
If a recommendation against rehire or adverse comments are made in the record of exit interview, the employee has ____ days to reply.
30
Departmental seniority of an employee who is reinstated (does/does not) include credit for prior Departmental Service.
does
The ________ specifies mandatory retirement for uniformed patrol members at age 60.
Government Code
Regarding transfer of leave credits for an excluded employee, a family member is defined as:
mother, father, husband, wife, son, daughter, brother, sister, domestic partner (registered with the ecretary of State), or any person residing in the immediate household of the employee at the time of the catastrophic illness or injury.
Regarding catastropic leave, a catastrophic illness is:
a severe illness or injury which is expected to incapacitate the employee or a qualifying family member and which creates a financial hardship because the employee has exhausted all of their leave credits.
True/False - Catastrophic Leave may be granted as the result of a natural disaster even though the employee or any family member were not injured.
True
Requests for catastrophic leave credits made in accordance with DPA rules are reviewed and approved by _________.
the employees immediate commander
Catastrophic leave donations of Annual leave, vacation, CTO, personal leave, and or holiday credits can be credited to the employees account in _______ increments after a minimum donation of ________.
1 hour, 1 hour (excluded) / 2 hours, 1 hour (Unit 5)
True/False - A non-represented employee may donate eligible leave credits to either a nonrepresented employee or represented employee.
True
For an excluded employee, Use of catastrophic leave may not exceed a maximum of ______ continuous months for any one catastrophic illness or injury. For an employee impacted by a natural disaster, use of catastrophic leave may not exceed ________ continuous months for any one occurrence; however, if approved by the appropriate Assistant Commissioner, use of catastrophic leave may be for _____ continuous months.
12, 3, 6
True/False - A non-represented employee may receive donated leave credits from a represented employee.8/21/9
False, they may not receive donated leave credits from a represented employee.
(T/F) - If the employee feels the decision to deny a secondary employment request is improper or discriminatory, they may appeal the decision through the complaint/grievance procedure.
True
When secondary employment is approved for more than __________ or is denied, a copy of the CHP 318 shall be forwarded to the next level of review.
30 calendar days
Requests to engage in secondary employment shall be reviewed __________.
annually
When an employee is on sick leave, injury status, or limited duty, CHP 318s are __________________.
automatically suspended
Employees shall submit memorandums of cancellation within ________ whenever they are no longer employed.
10 calendar days
Incident reports are used to record _________ and ___________ acts.
Commendable, Censurable
A employee may file a written response within __________.
30 days
True/False - An act or incident for which a Form 2 has been issued may not subsequently be made a part of an adverse action.
False, the Form 2 shall be removed from the file and destroyed, but may be used as an exhibit in the AA.
Employees required to file an annual statement of economic interests shall do so not later than _______.
April 1
Seniority within a classification shall be computed on the basis of continual departmental service within that that classification. Temporary separations are included if they result in _______. Time while serving in a parallel classification or a higher classification within the Department is also included.
mandatory reinstatement
(T/F) - Employees must surrender all State property to the State for a leave of and kind.
True
State-sponsored dental plans are administered by _________.
DPA
Each Area and Division office will appoint a _____________.
health benefits assistant
Public employees’ health benefits are administered by _____.
Public Employees Retirement System (PERS)
True/False - Membership in an employee organization is not a requirement for enrollment in a State-sponsored plan (except the CAHP Health Benefits Trust Plan).
True
An employees child loses eligibility the first of the month following the _____ birthday. Except those mentally or physically incapable of self support.
23rd.
True/False - If an employee is enrolled in a State-sponsored health benefits plan, the enrollment will be automatically continued into retirement.
True
If an employee desires to have others on the Department informed of his/her medical condition, a ______ shall be completed.
CHP 369
When a medical appointment for evaluation of an on-duty injury is scheduled during other than the employees regular shift, the employee will attend on __________.
Leave of Absence with pay
Under 4800 time provisions, time lost on the shift on which the injury occurs will be handled as ___________.
work time
Sick leave and bereavement leave are governed by the ___________.
Government Code.
An employee may use sick leave while on scheduled vacation if:
(1) The employee becomes injured or ill and is unable to continue his/her vacation activities. The ortion of the vacation during which the employee is incapacitated may be charged to sick leave.
(2) The employee has a dental, eye, or other physical or medical examination or treatment by a icensed practitioner.
Exposure to contagious disease is a valid reason for sick leave if ____________________.
it requires absence from work
For chronic health conditions requiring the use of sick leave, the supervisor _______ have the employee supply a licensed physician’s certification at reasonable intervals of time.
should
An employee (may/may not) use sick leave for a family member who goes to the hospital for surgery or a serious injury or illness, if the employee’s presence is needed.
may
Sick leave for family care (is/is not) authorized for the care of well children, for household duties, or imply to provide companionship.
is not
Non-represented bereavement leave not to exceed ____ days shall be granted to an employee. If the death occurs out of State, 2 additional days may be granted without pay or charged to sick leave credits.
three
True/False - If it appears that an employee is using sick leave improperly, the commander may require a Doctor’s certification for all illnesses.
True
A commander may require a _________ or other verification of injury or illness for every sick eave absence, regardless of length, if it appears the employee is using sick leave improperly, and iscussions with him/her have shown no positive result.
doctor’s certificate
A disapproved sick leave request as a result of evidence of an employee falsifying a sick leave claim or attempting to willfully misuse sick leave, is reported as _________.
dock time (Leave of absence without pay)
Vacation is charged in increments of _________.
15 minutes
Once an excluded employee elects to enroll in ALP, the employee may not elect to enroll in the sick leave/vacation program until ______ has elapsed from the date of enrollment.
24 months
Annual leave may be used in increments of _____ for vacation purposes and _____ for sick leave purposes.
15 minute, 15 minute
*Note - The exception is WWG E and SE
For nonuniformed employees the maximum vacation accumulation for employees is ________.
640 hours
Employees are allowed a minimum of _____ and a maximum of _____ for lunch.
½ hour, 1 hour
Lunch time should be granted no earlier than ____ hours after the beginning of the employee’s shift and no later than ____ hours before the end of the shift.
three, three
Commanders may grant employees a rest period of ____ minutes or less for each four hours of work, not to exceed a total of ____ minutes for a full work shift.
15, 25
A ____ day notice is required by an employee prior to taking a personal holiday.
five
An employee may not carry over or cash out more than ___ personal holiday(s) in any fiscal year.
two
With Division approval, Commanders that have employees working staggered work hours may start work as early as ________ and may work as late as _________ as long as an eight hour work day is completed.
0700, 1800
Commanders shall establish core hours, the period each day that employees are required to be at their work station.
True
True/False - The minimum lunch period is 30 minutes, to be taken between 1130 and 1330 hours.
True
The work day for all employees shall commence at the start of the employee’s shift and end _______ hours later.
24
Overtime is credited in _____ hour increments.
¼
Overtime for employees in uniform classes is defined as all hours worked in excess of ___ hours in a 28-day work period.
170
Employees (should not/shall not) accrue overtime in the same day as scheduled leave credits are used.
should not
An employee who has completed a normal work shift, when ordered back to work shall be credited with a minimum of _____ hour(s) work time, provided that the call back to work is without having been notified ______ completion of the normal work shift.
4, prior to
When an employee is called back within four hours of the beginning of the next shift, call back credits shall be received ________________.
for the time remaining until the shift begins
Overtime credit for attendance at funerals (may/may not) be allowed for employees assigned to honor guard, escort duty, or pallbearer.
may
If an employees absence is not considered by the commander as an appropriate charge against accumulated credits, the employee may be considered _______.
absent without pay
Dock for tardiness is charged at a minimum of _______ hour(s).
1/10 (6 minutes)
True/False - An AWOL absence is reported on a STD 634.
False, Dock time is reported on the 634.
Uniformed personnel who are required to perform jury duty shall be granted a leave of absence with pay provided the employee requested and was denied the exemption and they ____________.
remit all jury duty fees received to the Department
*Note - Non-uniformed must do the same; however, they cannot not get the request an exemption from the court.
True/False - If an employee performs jury duty while off duty, on scheduled vacation, Annual Leave, Overtime credit, or on a holiday, where it is not a regularly assigned day, they are on their own time and do not remit fees.
True
An employee shall be allowed to take a State Civil Service exam and be absent with pay, provided the employee gives the supervisor at least ___ days notice.
two
*Note - This also applies to SPB board hearings and State Civil Service employment interviews
Employee will receive a maximum of ___ hours of work time to vote if there is insufficient time to vote outside of work hours.
two
Employees may be granted up to 5 days of Leave of Absence with pay if they live or work in a County where a state of Emergency was declared by the Governor. The Commander who identifies a need will request approval of the Commissioner’s officer. The use will always be at the discretion of the commander. To qualify:
The office must be temporarily closed or Reasonable routes to and from the office are difficult or The emergency presents an immediate or grave peril to the employee’s immediate family or a person at their residence or The employee is actively involved in a formal organized effort to protect the health and safety of the general public (sandbagging, aux. Fire or police). The employee needs time to apply for FEMA and their hours don’t permit it.
Managers and supervisorial employees who have been offered managerial employment positions, may get up to _____ days ATO (admin. time off) granted by the commander to move or attend to moving details. They need not be consecutive days.
five
Employees who are assigned RDO’s other than Saturday and Sundays are considered __________________ employees.
irregular workweek
For the 4/10 workweek, the day off (may/may not) vary from week to week.
may
State regulations prohibit authorization of ___________ to receive and distribute warrants.
attendance clerks
Commanders shall not release warrants until an employee has _________.
completed work for the pay period
No adverse comment shall be entered in any personnel file without the employee ___________.
reading and signing the document *Note - This does not apply to cadets.
When an employee is being transferred, his/her personnel folder shall be forwarded to the new commander so it will arrive _________.
one week before reporting date
Grievance records shall be filed in separate confidential files and shall be retained at the affected command levels for _______ subsequent to the final action.
three years
All applications and files of applicants not selected for hire must be retained for a minimum of _______.
two years (by calendar year, alphabetical order).
The bilingual program was adopted to provide compensation for employees that use blingual skills on a continuing basis, average of (what percent) of their work time?
10%
True/False - Relocation expenses will be paid for training and development assignments.
False
All out-of-class (OOC) assignments will be made in writing and must have the advance approval of the Commissioner or appropriate __________ and _____________.
Assistant Commissioner, Selection Standards and Examinations Section, Classification, Hiring, and Validation Program (CHVP)
Out-of -Class assignment wmade ill be made in writing and will have advance approval of the _________.
Commissioner or appropriate Assistant Commissioner and Selection Standards and Examinations Section, Classification, Hiring, and Validation Program (CHVP).
It is expected that in no case should an Out-of-class assignment exceed ______ days.
120
Confidential, supervisory, and excluded employees are eligible for out-of-class compensation if the assignment lasts over ____ consecutive working days.
15
An employee who believes they have been working out of class may file a claim during the assignment or within _____ days of the cessation of the out-of class duties.
30
Managerial employees (may be/are not) eligible for out-of-class compensation.
may be
The _____________ procedure shall be utilized if the employee attempted the informal process with the supervisor and that does not produce adequate agreement.
grievance
What is the Department’s philosophy on how the citizens complaint process should be utilized.
The citizens’ complaint process should be utilized as a management tool to provide the highest level of public service. The public must have faith in that the Department accepts and investigates complaints in an unbiased manner.
By investigating complaints objectively, supporting employees when allegations are proven invalid, and taking corrective action when necessary, the Department provides a means of:
monitoring employee conduct and attitudes toward the public, and allows for improved operational procedures through the review and analysis of complaint trends.
When a citizen complains to the Department, either verbally, in writing, or in person, the complaint will be___________; an ___________ will be initiated, and the complainant will be __________.
acknowledged investigation
notified (of findings and actions taken)
Category I complaints allege __________.
physical contact, excessive force, and/or criminal, racial, sexual, or immoral conduct.
Category II complaints allege __________.
verbal misconduct, nonverbal misconduct (not involving actual physical contact), and/or complaints regarding matters not related to an employee’s conduct.
Complaints which may contain Category I or II allegations but which also meet the definition of one of the following: Departmental, Citation Validity, Rescinded, or Frivolous Complaints are categorized as __________.
other complaints
A citizen’s expression of concern regarding a specific traffic problem is classified as a __________.
traffic complaint (non complaint) *Note - Issues brought to the attention of the Department which are not normally considered citizens’ complaints for the purpose of investigation and documentation in accordance with this manual. Examples of such non-complaint issues include: Traffic, Vehicle Storage/Impound, Validity, Other Agency, Off-duty conduct
There are __________ types of findings to citizen complaint investigations.
five (Sustained, Exonerated, Departmental, Undetermined/No Finding, and Unintentional
Error)
A finding of sustained indicates that the alleged incident __________.
did occur and was improper
When an investigation indicates that an employee made an honest error not related to misconduct, the complaint finding shall be __________.
unintentional error
A Departmental findings indicates that employee actions were __________.
in compliance with Departmental policy.
- but the policy or procedure itself is found to be erroneous or is the cause of the complainant’s concerns.
- Departmental is also the only allowable finding for Departmental complaints.
An exonerated finding indicates that __________.
employee conduct was proper/no misconduct occurred, or did commit the act and it is deemed to be proper or within policy
A complaint brought by any person or group, who is not a witness or party to an alleged incident is classified as a __________. This includes complaints by non-involved relatives, parents of children over 18 years of age, and attorneys acting on behalf of a client.
third party complaint
*Note - The parent or guardian of a minor child would be a first party complaint.
CHP 240A, Complaint Control Log
What CHP form __________ shall be maintained and used as a control log for complaints?
What CHP form __________ describes the Department’s complaint process?
CHP 240B, Citizens’ Complaint Information
Complaints should be received by an individual at the rank of __________.
supervisor or above
When a complaint is lodged at other than the originating command, proper procedure is to __________.
complete the Area’s 240 and 240A with a note in the remarks section indicating who was contacted at the responsible Area and when the Area was contacted. Forward it with a memo to the proper command and send a copy to the next level of command.
All complainants shall be acknowledged by correspondence within ______business days of the Department’s notification of the complaint.
five
*As an exception, interim correspondence is not required if the complainant originally contacted the Department in person and the requisite information normally contained in an interim letter was provided at that time. (Incluidng 240B/240D)
An acknowledgment to any type of complaint is required __________.
within five business days of the Departments notification of the complaint.
If a commander receives a third party complaint, is the commander required to attempt to contact the allegedly aggrieved party.
Yes
True/False - An employee’s off-duty conduct should be investigated when his/her actions involve the Department or he/she interjects the Department into his/her conduct.
True
*Note - Most Complaints are not investigated simply if complainant is aware of employer and there is no nexus to the department.
The citizens’ complaint process (may/shall not) be utilized to document internal complaints or grievances.
shall not
Normally, legislative complaints will be forwarded to commands by the Bureau of Internal Affairs (BIA), and the initial correspondence to the legislator will _________________.
have already been accomplished
*In the event a command receives a legislative complaint that was not forwarded from BIA, the command, in coordination with the Department’s Office of Special Representative, shall also send a response letter directly to the legislator or other originating entity.
In a third party complaint, if the third party is a federal or State elected official, responses are coordinated through __________.
Office of Special Representative.
The Department (will/will not) accept and investigate complaints against uniformed employees submitted through the Internet.
will
*Investigators shall ensure that a standard CHP 240B is provided to such complainants, to ensure that the proper Penal Code advisory has been complied with.
What rank shall the primary investigator be?
The primary investigator shall be a supervisor or of one rank higher than the person being investigated. Lower ranking personnel with specific qualifications (PMA, DRE, EMT, MAIT etc.) may assist by providing expert opinion.
Normal suspense period for legislative complaints is ______ days.
30
The normal suspense period for complaints received at the command, or forwarded from BIA is ______ days.
60
If a complaint is generated while an employee is attending training at the Academy, who will be responsible for the investigation?
the Academy Commander
When a complaint involves individuals from multiple commands, which command is responsible for overall coordination of the investigation, and issuing the control number?
The primary investigating command.
*Note - In most instances, this will be the command with the employee who has the most serious allegations, or the command with the greatest number of employees involved.
Who is responsible for the conduct and quality of the compliant investigation including documentation and correspondence with the complainant?
Primary Investigator
Normally, an interview with the involved employee should be conducted ______ gathering all other available information.
after
If, during the course of a routine interview in which the employee does not have representation, information surfaces which indicates the employee may be faced with adverse actionthe interview _____ be suspended and the employee _____ be informed of his/her right to representation.
should, shall
Statements by complainants and witnesses ________ be recorded in potentially serious cases, as determined by the commander.
shall
*Given the inherent advantages of having a completely objective version of the event, the recording of statements and interviews should be considered in virtually all instances.
The employee’s complaint history (may, should, shall) be examined in order to determine the existence of previous complaints which would be relevant to the current investigation.
shall
All complaints with allegations of criminal misconduct which have a finding of sustained or unintentional error shall be referred to whom?
District Attorney
Allegation findings shall be based on a preponderance of evidence adequate to lead a _______ and _______ person to reach the same conclusion.
reasonable and prudent
Multiple occasions of the same allegation will be addressed with how many findings?
Only one finding for similar allegations.
If during the investigation the complainant indicates a wish to withdraw the allegations, the commander may __________.
elect to accept or decline the request based upon reasons for the request. This does not relieve commander from responsibility to determine if misconduct exists, and following it to conclusion. A closing correspondence is required either way
When an investigation reveals a deviation from policy that is not part of an allegation, Commanders shall __________.
initiate corrective action and comment in recommendations section.
If the complaint investigation uncovers any actual or alleged damage to property, or injuries to persons which may result in a claim against the state, a CHP 268, Potential civil litigation Report, shall be completed. The CHP 268 ___________ be attached to the complaint investigation.
shall not
(T/F) - The Bazemore Admonition shall not be included in any CHP 2.
True
The Bazemore admonition shall be included in all _______________ which are counseling or remedial in nature.
Memorandums of Findings or Direction
True/False - A Form 2 may serve in lieu of a closing documentation to the officer for corrective action.
True
* May also be request for AA, MOD, or MOF
In instances where the corrective documentation is being issued solely as a result of a finding of ___________, the inclusion of the Bazemore admonition should be left to the discretion of the commander.
Unintentional Error
The following statement is known as the ______________.
“Your conduct on this occasion [these occasions] was unacceptable and will not be tolerated by this Department. If you engage in similar conduct in the future, the Department may take Adverse Action against you based on the incident[s] cited in this documentation, as well as any future incidents.”
Bazemore admonition
A Category I complaint’s closing letter is delivered once __________.
Division approves the file
*Note - Divisions may establish local procedures for Category II complaints.
Category I complaints are approved by __________.
BIA
Category II complaints are approved by __________.
Area Commanders
*Note - Division commanders may reserve approving authority as they deem necessary.
How may employees unsatisfied with the outcome of an investigation interject objections?
Write a written response per G.C. 3306 within 30 days.
A copy of any corrective documentation issued to an employee may only refer to allegations with findings of _____ or _____.
Sustained, Unintentional Error
*Other closing documentation issued to an employee shall remain as an exhibit in the complaint investigation, but shall not be placed in the field personnel folder.
Any corrective documentation issued to an employee as the result of a complaint investigation, shall be removed from the employee’s field personnel folder after a period of ____ years, commencing from the date of issue.
three
Complaint investigations shall be retained for a period of __________ years beginning on the date the complaint was received by the Department.
five.
When an employee transfers, all complaint files shall be ________ to the new command.
transferred
Complaint investigations (are/are not) discoverable under the Public Records Act.
are not
Personnel investigations may be released to the Attorney General if __________.
the Attorney General is defending the Department/Employees
Commands are required to provide statistical information to BIA by MIS or memorandum NLT __________.
January 20th of each year
An investigation may be amended at any time before or after __________.
closing notification to complainant and/or division and prior to review with the employee
Changes made to a complaint that has already been closed shall be made by __________.
attachment of memorandum, complete an amended 240, review with the employee *Note - The original complaint may not be altered.
Civil Code Section 47.5 allows a peace officer to __________.
sue individual who files false complaint
The Information File is for what purpose?
The Information File is a catalog of complainants who have demonstrated a propensity towards the filing of frivolous, spurious or specious complaints.
If the complainant is in the information file does the commander have to investigate the complaint?
Yes
Upon learning that a departmental employee is the subject of an allied agency investigation, a Commander shall __________.
notify BIA through channels and, if appropriate, begin separate internal investigation
Civil rights violations are identified in federal statutes and are _______ in nature.
criminal
The decision to consent to an interview with an outside civil rights investigator shall be at the _____________.
sole discretion of the employee
* If such an interview is conducted on state time, a departmental supervisor shall be present and shall tape recorded any interview.
Section 832.5 of the __________ Code requires that all law enforcement agencies set up a system for complaint investigations.
Penal
(T/F) - Prepaid professional counseling sessions are only available for work related personal issues.
False
*wide range of personal issues (family, marriage, etc…)
The Purpose of the Employee Assistance Program (EAP) is to provide _________________.
confidential, professional assistance to any employee with behavioral or personal problems which may impair his/her job performance, attendance, or conduct.
____________, including supervisors, may inform other employees of the availability of EAP services.
Any employee
Unit 5 and 7 employees and their families are entitled to ________ for each unrelated problem type per year.
7 sessions
True/False - Peer support can be considered a substitute for professional counseling.
False
True/False - The Peer Support Program does not take the place of the mandatory debriefing following a shooting incident.
True
(T/F) - No records will be maintained which identify employees who utilize the Peer Support Program
True
Employees shall be advised that confidentiality shall be maintained except in the following three circumstances:
illegal activity, when a PSO/PSCO is subpoenaed, when a PSO/PSCO believes that the employee is a danger to him/herself or others.
If an employee requests assistance prior to becoming the subject of an adverse action for misconduct involving alcohol or prescription drug abuse, his/her request shall be treated in a _________.
confidential manner
Commanders shall refer officers who have been involved in a traumatic incident to a single post-incident debriefing session within _______ hours.
72
True/False - An employee may arrange for a mandatory critical incident debriefing with a licensed clinician of their choice at their own expense.
True
The department is ________ and _________ responsible for the safety of its employees.
legally and morally
To be effective, an occupational safety program needs ___________ to prevent or mitigate injuries, illnesses, and exposures, and reduce or eliminate accidents and loss or damage to departmental property.
employee participation
Occupational Safety Committees assist commands in administering safety responsibilities, achieving compliance with safety requirements and resolving local health and safety issues. Members of the committees represent _________________ as well as _________
all collective bargaining units, local management within commands
_________________ is responsible for investigating all complaints alleging unsafe and/or unhealthy conditions in the workplace.
Department of Industrial Relations, Division of Occupational Safety and Health (DOSH)
Commands are to respond to all contacts from DOSH alleging unsafe or unhealthy conditions in the workplace. Commands should coordinate their response with the ______________.
Health and Safety Section, Occupational Safety Unit
The _____________ provides a framework for establishing and maintaining safe work practices and healthy conditions in the workplace.
Injury and Illness Prevention Program (IIPP)
According to the Hazardous Substances Program, affected employees are to be provided with information including:
This includes labeling of all hazardous substances routinely used in commands and posting warning signs as necessary, ensuring applicable Material Safety Data Sheets are available, and training of employees and its documentation.
______________ is required to be given to employees who are required to drive routinely on official business.
Defensive driver training
True/False – With regard to hazardous environments in the workplace, personal protective equipment shall be used only when all other forms of corrective measures are exhausted.
True
__________ are responsible for minimizing the incidences of employee accidents, injuries, exposures and loss or damage to departmental property.
Commanders or their designees
______________ have the authority and responsibility to oversee the work efforts of supervisors to ensure attainment of the command’s safety goals and compliance with healthy and safe work practices. They are also responsible for ensuring that the appropriate health and safety training is received.
Managers
Accidents usually are unexpected results of operational and/or management errors. Responsibility for control of these errors is a ______________ .
management function at every command level
______________ are responsible for ensuring that their subordinates receive appropriate health and safety training, monitoring employee job performance, and ensuring that employees follow healthy and safe work practices.
Supervisors
Measures to correct deficiencies within divisions are implemented through the ________, preferably at the lowest level.
Division Occupational Safety Committee
The DOSB is the policy-level occupational safety organization within the department and reports _________.
Assistant Commissioner, Inspector General (ACIG)
The Chairperson for the DOSB is the ___________.
Assistant Commissioner, Inspector General (ACIG)
An ______________ serves as the Chairperson for each Division Occupational Safety Committee.
Assistant Chief
Minutes of DOSB meeting are prepared by ___________.
the Occupational Safety Unit (OSU) staff, who shall also be responsible for the distribution 933
The DOSB shall meet at least _____________.
quarterly (Division and Departmental Occupational Safety Committee).
A ____________ serves as an ex-officio member of the DOSB.
Director of the California Association of Highway Patrolmen
Minutes of the Division Occupational Safety Meetings shall be prepared in a timely manner and forwarded to ____________ and ____________.
the appropriate Assistant Commissioner and OSU
*Note - Action items shall be highlighted in the meeting minutes.
Determining “Preventability” is the responsibility of ____________.
the local commander
Members of the COSC shall conduct periodic inspections, at least ________, of facilities and equipment to identify potentially unsafe work conditions, practices or situations.
semi-annually
The members of the COSC may review the findings of the commander for a recommendation on ___________.
preventability
Command Occupational Safety Committees (COSC) assist the commander in achieving ___________________.
compliance with occupational safety requirements and resolving health and safety issues within the local command
Participative management techniques are highly productive in accident prevention at this level and operate on the highest plane when they are __________.
proactive rather than reactive
Copies of minutes shall be sent to _________.
Division with the action items highlighted
The COSC shall meet at least _________.
quarterly
The major emphasis of the COSC must be on __________________.
skill techniques and procedures which minimize operational hazards and which must be utilized by personnel who perform a wide variety of tasks under difficult stress situations
Suggestions from an individual should be channeled to the _____________. When such recommendations have departmental application, they should be forwarded to ________.
the local command safety committee for considerations, the appropriate Assistant Commissioner to DOSB
The Division Health and Safety Coordinator shall be responsible for carrying out the directions of the Division commander in support of the Division’s occupational safety program. The Division Health and Safety Coordinator reviews __________, _______, _______, _____________ and prepares the Division reports for submission to Health and Safety Section.
CHP 208, Accident Prevention Report, CHP 121, Employer’s Report of Occupational Injury or Illness, CHP 113, Accident and Injury Report, OSHA No. 200, Log and Summary of Occupational Injuries and Illnesses
The _______________________ maintains current Material Safety Data Sheets for immediate access by all departmental personnel.
Assistant Commissioner, Inspector General (ACIG)
___________ and ________ are the primary safety instructors for the department.
Supervisors and Managers
Supervisors and managers shall receive general training from ___________ to familiarize themselves with the safety and health hazards to which personnel may be exposed.
Departmental Training Division, Occupational Safety Unit (OSU)
True/False – The safety performance of the supervisor’s or manager’s respective units shall be an element in the annual performance appraisal of the supervisor or manager.
True
By ________ of each year, Areas, Sections, the academy, and communication centers shall submit their proposed goals and action plans to their respective Divisions.
the 15th of December
By ________ of each year, Executive Offices, Protective Services Division, Air Operations, Program Management shall prepare consolidated goals and submit them to the appropriate Assistant Commissioner.
the 15th of January
Following negotiations and upon approval, finalized goals and action plans shall be included as an annex to the command’s ______________ and retained for ______.
IIPP, the current year plus three years
Commanders may use the past as a guide for setting future goals, but not as __________.
the primary basis to identify future performance
The commander shall not consider _________ or ___________ when setting occupational safety goals.
illnesses or non-disabling injuries
When an employee is involved in a personal injury, illness, hazardous exposure or vehicle/aircraft accident, the commander shall ensure that an __________ is conducted so that corrective measures may be identified and implemented.
adequate review
The review process includes an examination of the employee’s ________ to aid in detecting unsafe practices, physical weaknesses and attitudes that may need modification.
CHP 442
True/False – The COSC may review the commander’s findings in regard to preventability and change the finding.
False, They may only ask the commander to consider various factors in the assignment of the finding.
If the employee disagrees with the commander’s finding, he/she may _________.
utilize the standard grievance procedure of the employee’s collective bargaining unit. If non-represented, follow the procedures in HPM 9.1, Employee Relations Manual
When an accident, injury, illness or hazardous exposure is deemed to have been preventable, the commander shall _____________.
conduct an interview with the employee to ensure an understanding of the causative factors
Corrective action must be taken when an employee does not follow safe or healthy work practices. This corrective action is documented in _________.
accordance with the command’s IIPP, Chapter 4
True/False – Repeated poor motorcycle riding practices shall provide a basis for removal of a rider from motorcycle duty.
True
Commanders shall schedule ___________ safety inspections of departmental facilities.
semi-annual
Inspections shall proceed __________.
COSC meetings and shall be an agenda item
Safety inspections and any discrepancies shall be documented on the _________.
CHP 113A, Safety Inspection Checklist.
Accountability reporting is required _________ of all commands by submission of the _______.
Quarterly, CHP 113
Each headquarters’ Division Health and Safety Coordinator shall prepare a composite CHP 113 for accidents and injuries occurring within their divisions. This report shall be forward to ________ no later than ____________. If applicable, Divisions shall submit a memorandum explaining why their goals were not attained to the _______ with a copy to _______.
OSU/
/the first day of the second month following the reporting period appropriate assistant Commissioner/
OSU
Division, Area, Communications Center, Inspection Facility, and Academy CHP 113s shall be submitted to Division no later than __________.
the 15th day of the first month following the end of the reporting period
The fourth quarter (year-end) report from field Divisions shall include the Division composite as well as _____________.
a copy of each Division’s subordinate commands’ fourth quarter CHP 113s
A recordable vehicle accident is any _____________.
fleet motor vehicle accident as defined by the American National Standards Institute. A fleet accident is also generally defined as any accident involving any motor vehicle operated by Departmental personnel while on official business. This includes privately owned, rented, leased or General Services pool cars. It does not include privately owned motorcycles.
True/False - Any accident involving any motor vehicle, not including privately owned motorcycles, operated by a CHP employee could be classified as a recordable accident.
True, if operated on official business.
Accidents that occur to an employee on temporary assignment shall be charged to the command of temporary assignment unless ________________.
unless the assignment is for control of civil disturbance, then it is charged to the permanent command.
Accidents that occur to an employee traveling to and from a temporary assignment shall be charged to ____________.
the command where the employee is permanently assigned.
Accidents that occur to an employee while temporarily assigned to and/or under the direct control and supervision of an entity other than the Department shall be charged to ________.
the appropriate Assistant Commissioner
The term “Preventable Accident” refers to _______________.
a recordable accident the commander has determined to have been preventable by the driver/rider
Accidents which occur during training at other sites, including the Academy, shall be charged to the _______________.
command where the employee is permanently assigned at the time of the accident
A “Disabling Injury or Illness” is documented as a __________ on the OSHA No. 200.
“Lost Workday” injury or illness
An injury is defined as any cut, fracture, sprain, amputation or other event resulting from a work accident or exposure involving a __________. Conditions resulting from animal bites, such as insect or snake bites, or from one-time exposure to chemicals are considered to be injuries.
single incident
An illness is any abnormal condition or disorder, other than one resulting from a workrelated injury, caused by _______________. Included are acute and chronic illnesses or diseases which may be caused by inhalation, absorption, ingestion, cumulative trauma, stress or direct contact.
exposure to environmental factors associated with employment
able injuries or illnesses shall not be included until __________.
accepted by the State Compensation Insurance Fund (SCIF)
Fitness injuries/illnesses are defined as any injury or illness which occurs or is manifested during ___________, ______________ or ______________.
pre-employment physical fitness examination, physical training at the Academy, or evaluation of any employee for physical fitness for the job
Use of private vehicles on official business may be authorized by a commander only if the driver certifies ____________.
that the vehicle is and will be maintained in a safe condition and is covered by insurance.
All employees who frequently are requested to drive on official business shall be trained in defensive driving techniques. Frequently means _______.
once a month or more
*Note - Chapter 4 was the Injury and Illness Program which is now HPM 10.7
When a complaint is received from DOSH, the command required to investigate the alleged incident and respond to the DOSH Compliance Office within ________.
14 calendar days
Upon receipt of a complaint, the command shall immediately ____________.
forward a copy of the Complaint Letter to both its Division and the Departmental Training Division, Occupational Safety Unit (OSU).
*The command should coordinate its response with OSU.
A copy of the Complaint Letter and a copy of the command’s response are to be posted in a prominent location in the command readily accessible for employee review for _______.
a minimum of three days or until the unsafe condition is corrected
If the command does not satisfactorily respond to DOSH within 14 calendar days upon receipt of the Complaint Letter, ___________________________.
the DOSH, Compliance Office will conduct the inspection
DOSH Compliance Officers should conduct the inspection jointly with ________.
the highest-ranking manager or supervisor on the site
True/False – Employees who are requested to be interviewed by the DOSH Compliance Officer may decline to do so.
True
True/False - Employees who agree to be interviewed by DOSH may do so in private.
True
The California Labor Code requires that fire or police agencies responding to accidents involving ______________________________ shall immediately notify DOSH by telephone.
death, serious injury or illness or overnight stays in the hospital for other than observation *Note- The exceptions are: Accidents that occur on a public street or highway, or any serious injury, illness, or death caused by a violation of a Penal Code violation, except PC Section 385 (illegal operation of equipment adjacent to high-voltage overhead conductors)
True/False - A CHP vehicle parked in a restaurant parking lot is struck by a DUI suspect leaving the lot. This is a recordable accident.
False, fleet motor vehicle accidents exclude properly parked vehicles.
True/False - An officer is pushing a disabled vehicle off the freeway. In the process the patrol car push bumper smashes the motorists tail light. This is a recordable accident.
False, fleet accidents do not include deliberate acts or push bumper operational damage.
Each Commander must post a list of hazardous substances used, assure that containers are labeled, and obtain _____________.
Material Safety Data Sheets.
True/False - Uniformed commercial officers are required to have commentary driver training?
True, all uniformed employees which includes uniformed commercial officers are required to have commentary driver training annually for one hour completed with a supervisor. Non uniformed personnel who frequently drive on official business shall have between 30 minutes and one hour annually.
Uniformed employees will receive _______ of commentary driving each year.
one hour
Non-uniformed employees will receive __________ of commentary driving each year.
30 minutes to one hour
Non-uniformed employees who frequently drive on official business will receive multimedia driver training course every _______ year(s).
four
___________ mandates that employees be protected from potentially harmful exposures to hazardous conditions, substances, or forms of energy found in the work environment through the use of appropriate engineering and/or administrative controls.
California Code of Regulations, Title 8, General Industrial Safety Order 5141 (GISO)
Commanders are to ensure that pregnant employees are made aware of the risks associated with firearms training. Pregnant employees should _________.
confer with their medical care provider regarding the advisability of the employee participating in, or performing duties associated with firearms training
If an employee sustains a serious or fatal injury involving a body part protected by personal protective equipment (PPE), the command shall ensure the equipment is preserved as _______________.
evidence
Program objectives are:
Provide appropriate benefits to qualified disabled employees.
Provide for prompt and effective reporting of injuries within designated time frames.
Return disabled employees to work as soon as medically appropriate. Maintain on-going communication with injured employees
A ____________ designation applies for those injuries which do not require any first aid, medical treatment.
record only
An employee who is injured while on duty and goes home for the remainder of the shift but reports back to work (full or limited duty) the next scheduled work shift has a ___________ injury.
non-disabling
When an employee is unable to return to work on the next scheduled work shift the injury or illness is considered __________.
a disabling injury or illness
The four types of injury or illness designations are:
record only, first aid, disabling, non-disabling
An employee carries a mattress at home the day before claiming an injury at work. The employee is checked by a doctor and returns to limited-duty the next day for a period of two weeks. This would be considered a ________ _________ injury.
nondisabling, able
A serious injury is one which requires, __________________, a lengthy disability status or retirement.
overnight hospital care other than for observation
A hazardous exposure is defined as ____________________.
exposure to any chemical, biological, or physical agent which does not result in an injury or illness
A recurrence of an injury is defined as a spontaneous recurrence (with/without) a new causative incident.
without
An aggravation of a prior injury has an identifiable new ______________ and shall be processed as a new injury.
incident of injury or illness
An injury or illness claim to which there exists substantial evidence to whether the injury or illness is employment (job) related is considered a(n) _____________.
able injury or illness
Four separate injury related notices are to be posted in each work location. These are
STD 621 - Injury procedures and potential sources of medical care
OSHA - “Safety and Health Protection on the Job”
CAL-OSHA S-11 - “Access to Medical and Exposure Records”
OSHA NO. 200- “Log and Summary of Occupational injuries and illnesses
True/False - Commanders shall ensure injury and illness claims are not deemed able simply because they are not witnessed or are a result of cumulative trauma. If, based on facts and information obtained during preparation of the employee’s CHP 121, Employer’s Report of Occupational Injury or Illness, there is reason to whether the injury or illness is work related, the claim should be deemed able pending SCIF’s decision of acceptance or denial.
True
*Note - Reasons for ing the claim shall be documented in detail on the employee’s CHP 121. Any additional supporting documentation shall be attached to the CHP 121.
Commanders (should/shall) revoke a uniformed peace officer powers and secure all stateissued firearms whenever the uniformed employee is off duty as a result of a psychological reason, to include stress.
shall
*In those instances where commanders identify extenuating circumstances, the commander may provide justification through channels to the Office of the Commissioner, requesting a waiver.
Commanders (should/shall) direct uniformed employees who are off duty, as a result of an industrial or non-industrial injury or illness where a physician has diagnosed that the employee is not capable of performing the 14 critical tasks, should avoid engaging in any activity requiring the use of peace officer powers.
shall
True/False – Commanders shall authorize medical expenses if preventative medicine or post-exposure testing is conducted relative to the hazardous exposure incident which did not result in employee injury or illness.
True
Commanders shall maintain an open line of communication with employees who are ____________.
off duty pending retirement
Commanders shall notify Division if it appears as though an employee in not making a good faith effort toward prescribed medical rehabilitation and make recommendations toward the course of action to be taken. They may also consult with _____________ regarding possible courses of action to assist in formulating recommendations
Disability and Retirement Section (DRS)
Commanders shall guard against the fraudulent use or abuse of the worker’s compensation system. The presence of several indicators, while suggestive of possible fraud, does not mean that fraud has been committed. Indicators should be considered __________ only and not actual evidence that fraud has been committed. Commanders shall notify ___________, through the chain of command, if fraud is suspected.
“Red Flags,” the Bureau of Internal Affairs if fraud is suspected
Commanders may suspend secondary employment requests if medical care provider’s written response indicates the secondary employment ___________.
may impede ability to recover
*Note - Commanders may reinstate secondary employment if medical care provider indicates secondary employment will not impede the employee’s ability to recover.
Commanders shall maintain a ___________ for all employees assigned limited duty or who are off duty.
CHP 121D
The Commander (or designee) shall notify the appropriate Assistant Commissioner, Division Commander, and Disability and Retirement Section (via comm net message) of any employee off duty as a result of an industrial injury on the first day following _____
CHP 121D
The Commander (or designee) shall notify the appropriate Assistant Commissioner, Division Commander, and Disability and Retirement Section (via comm net message) of any employee off duty as a result of an industrial injury on the first day following _____
the first 30 calendar days
Upon notification of an injury, illness, or hazardous exposure, the supervisor shall _____________.
conduct a comprehensive review of the facts surrounding the incident
Supervisors if practical shall accompany employees to the initial medical appointment but in no event shall supervisors attempt to be present when ____________.
the employee is being examined by the doctor
Regarding death, serious injury or illness, immediate __________ must be made to Division and the _________________________.
notification, appropriate assistant Commissioner by telephone
If notification to the commissioner’s office cannot be made, ___________ shall be contacted _____________________.
the Supervising Watch Officer at the Sacramento Communications Center, to assist with making notification through the pager system
In the event of a death or serious injury, a Comm-Net message shall be sent to the ________ and _________ within ________ of the occurrence.
the appropriate assistant Commissioner, DRU, eight hours
In the event of a death or serious injury, notification shall be made to SCIF by telephone _____________.
as soon as possible
CHP 121 documentation for job applicants shall indicate the salary as ________ and the occupation as ____________.
“None,” “Job Applicant”
True/False – Injuries and illnesses to job applicants shall be included in the departmental occupational safety statistics.
False, they shall not be included.
True/False – Volunteers are considered employees and are entitled to worker compensation benefits.
False, they are not considered employees (California Labor Code) but if the governing agency adopted a resolution declaring the volunteer to be an employee of that agency, the volunteer may be eligible for worker’s compensation benefits.
Within ________ an employee must prepare a memorandum for a recurrence of an injury or illness.
24 Hours
*Note - If the employee is unable to prepare within 24 hours, prepare as soon as possible.
Information identifying ___________ shall be included within the memorandum documenting the recurrence of an injury or illness. Additionally, __________ shall be attached to the memorandum and the original shall be forwarded to SCIF.
the employee’s medical care provider, medical documentation and available information identifying the prior injury or illness
The CAL/OSHA 300, “Log and Summary of Occupational Injuries and Illnesses”, requires the entry of each occupational injury or illness within working ____ days.
six
All able injuries (unless record only or first aid) and illnesses shall be entered on the Log and ___________ if subsequently denied by SCIF.
line out
Cadet injuries are initially recorded on the Academy Log and upon graduation they are ___________.
forwarded to the command of permanent assignment
A Cal-OSHA number shall be assigned to every injury and illness which is recorded on the Log except _________.
except able injuries and illnesses until accepted by SCIF
True/False - If no recordable injuries or illnesses have occurred in the previous year, a OSHA 300A Log should not be prepared.
False, The OSHA 300A (Summary of Work-Related Injuries and Illnesses) shall be prominently posted at the work site by February 1st of the year following the year covered by the Log, and shall remain posted until April 30th. Negative reports SHALL be prepared and posted.
Commands must save the OSHA 300 Log, the privacy case list (if one exists), and the annual summary for how long?
Five (5) years following the end of the calendar year that the records cover.
*Note - CHP 121s shall also be maintained five years for each injury or illness recorded on the Log.
hat are the Supervisor’s duties within the 24 hours of an injury or illness to an employee?
To provide the employee with a CHP 600 and CHP 601; to complete and have employee sign CHP 121 and CHP 121A; to initiate SCIF 3301 and to provide a copy to the employee; to prepare status change Comm-Net Message.
If an injury/illness occurs to an employee while he/she is temporarily assigned to another command, who will be responsible for filing the CHP 121, Employer’s Report of Occupational Injury or Illness?
The temporary command.
*The command where the employee is permanently assigned shall be responsible for subsequent case management.
Injuries shall be reported to a supervisor at the earliest opportunity. A CHP 121 and 121A must be prepared within _____________.
24 hours by a supervisor
Reports of injury must be submitted to the State Compensation Insurance Fund (SCIF) within ___________.
five days
If necessary a ______ completed CHP 121 may be submitted to SCIF containing available information and stating that supplemental information will follow.
partially
In even of a hazardous exposure claim, does the Supervisor fill out and complete both the CHP 121 and CHP 121A?
No. Only the 121A and within 24 hours.
In event of an injury, illness or exposure, what forms must the employee sign?
1) CHP 121 (This form and the 121A shall be initiated by the Supervisors.)
2) CHP 121A
3) CHP 121B (This form the employees initiate themselves)
4) CHP 121C, Medical Information Release Authorization
As soon as possible after notification of an employee’s injury/illness requiring medical treatment beyond first aid, the Supervisor shall provide the medical care provider with a form to assist in determining if the employee may perform full or limited duty. What is that form?
CHP 225, CHP Patrol Officer Task Statements.
The form which the Supervisor provides the medical care provider after notification of a non-disabling injury or illness which requires assignment of limited duty is which form?
CHP 443, Approval of Limited Duty Assignment.
On what form should a Supervisor report any change in status involving an injury/illness?
CHP 442, Individual Accident, Injury and Safety Recognition Program, within three days.
The Supervisor is responsible for initiating a SCIF form and providing the employee this form for all injuries or illness other than Record Only or First Aid. What is this form?
SCIF 3301, Employee’s Claim for Workers’ Compensation Benefits, within 24 hours.
When must the Supervisor give the employee, who is injured or ill, forms CHP 600, Right of Privacy Instructions Relative to Occupational Injuries/Illness and Vehicle Accident Reports, and CHP 601, Coping with Your Injury?
Within 24 hours.
__________ may be contacted to obtain a list of authorized medical care providers and facilities serving the command’s geographical location.
SCIF
Commanders shall prepare a memorandum advising employees of _________.
authorized medical care providers and facilities
True/False – A medical care provider may be removed from the list if either the employee or the employer reports unsatisfactory service.
True, SCIF shall be notified
An employee has the right to predesignate a preferred medical care provider by listing the provider on the CHP 102. If the preferred medical care provider was not documented prior to the injury or illness, SCIF may designate a medical care provider. After _______, the employee may select another medical care provider. The employee must notify SCIF of any such changes.
30 days
True/False – SCIF may order a fitness-for-duty examination that is equivalent of a Department-ordered fitness-for-duty exam.
True
A fitness-for-duty exam may be requested by the Commander _______________ whether the employee has a previous or current related injury or illness claim on file with SCIF.
whenever it is deemed appropriate (Commissioner’s policy)
A __________ shall be used when ordering a fitness for duty exam.
CHP 121C
Commanders shall ensure that temporarily disabled employees return to work in a limited duty capacity as soon as medically appropriate. A vacant employment position _____ exist when assigning limited duties.
need not
Uniformed employees on limited duty shall have public contact limited to __________ or _______.
non-enforcement, limited enforcement encounters (watch officer, scale facilities, special investigations etc.)
True/False – Commanders may specify if a uniformed employee on limited duty can drive an enforcement vehicle.
False
*While on limited duty, employees shall not wear a uniform, display a badge, or operate an enforcement vehicle.
Commanders shall discuss the limited duty assignment with _______ and ________.
the employee and the employee’s supervisor
Proposed limited duty assignments shall be documented in detail on the ______.
CHP 443
Under no circumstances will limited duty extend beyond ________.
24 months
Limited duty supervisor responsibilities: Supervisor shall notify the commander when _______.
it appears an employee is not making a good faith effort towards medical rehabilitation or of any significant change in the status of an employee’s injury or illness
Termination dates may be identified as ___________________.
date of return to full duty, the date of off-duty placement for scheduled surgery, commencement of maternity leave or other reasons
Commanders shall request authorization from the ________ to extend limited duty assignments beyond _________.
appropriate Assistant Commissioner, one year
Commanders may authorize limited duty assignments of __________.
less than one year
Limited duty assignments will not be authorized if the medical care provider fails to _______.
specify a termination date
Commanders and supervisors are responsible for ___________ with temporarily disabled employees and for _______________ when medically appropriate.
ongoing communication, arranging for a return to full duty
Officers absent from full duty for __________ shall be retrained and recertified at their local commands.
one year or less
Upon authorization from the Office of the Commissioner or appropriate assistant Commissioner, employees who have ___________ and are waiting for a disability retirement may be assigned to limited duty until such decision is rendered.
depleted all leave credits
Employees absent from work for more than _______, but less than _______, are to be scheduled to complete Reresher Training at the Academy prior to resuming field related duties at their assigned command.
more than one year, two years
If the disability retirement of an employee on limited duty is denied, the commander shall immediately _________________.
contact the employee to discuss employment options
If an employee, injured on the job, is capable of performing limited duty but declines to do so, ___________.
the Commander will request the appropriate Assistant Commissioner expeditiously render a departmental decision to order the employee to perform the limited duty
If the employee refuses to perform medically approved AND Department-ordered limited duty, _______________.
the employee shall be removed from pay status and action to terminate his/her employment shall be initiated
Refusal of Limited Duty by Employee: In addition to requesting a department order for the employee to perform limited duty, the commander shall _______________.
advise the employee that all absences subsequent to his/her refusal to perform limited duty will be covered by vacation, annual leave or sick leave credits until the Department issues an order to perform limited duty and the employee refuses or until SCIF determines if worker’s compensation benefits will continue.
Officers absent from full duty for more than two years are to complete Reinstatement Training at ___________.
the Academy
An employee shall be returned to full duty if the Public Employees Retirement System has denied a request for disability retirement unless __________.
the denial is being appealed
The four Units in the Health and Safety Section are:
Occupational Safety Unit
Disability and Retirement Unit
Physical Standards/Wellness/Reinstatement Unit
Employee Assistance Unit
SCIF is a ______________ funded by ________________.
California state agency, the premium payments from those organizations it insures
Commanders are required to maintain ongoing communication with SCIF to _______.
cooperatively manage injury and illness cases
An employee who has retained the services of an attorney may not discuss the case with SCIF adjusters unless _________.
the employee’s attorney has given his/her permission
The Workers’ Compensation Appeals Board (WCAB) is a __________ within the Department of Industrial Relations.
semi-judicial organization
True/False – An employee is precluded from contacting the Workers’ Compensation Appeals Board (WCAB) to obtain impartial advice relevant to his/her occupational injury or illness.
False, they may contact Workers’ Compensation Appeals Board (WCAB).
True/False – An employee or his/her attorney may contact the Workers’ Compensation Appeals Board (WCAB) to request a hearing or a trial to resolve disputes between the employee and SCIF.
True
Commanders receiving an employee’s application for a Workers’ Compensation Appeals Board (WCAB) hearing or trial from any other source other than the _____________ shall forward a copy of the application to the Disability and Retirement Section and Division as soon as possible and inform them if urgent or unusual issues are involved.
Disability and Retirement Section
Departmental representation at a Workers’ Compensation Appeals Board (WCAB) hearing is not legally required unless specifically requested by ________.
SCIF
An employee who is attending his/her own Workers’ Compensation Appeals Board (WCAB) hearing or trial, or who attends on behalf of the claimant employee (is/is not) eligible for the use of state time?
is not
Absences solely for attendance at a Workers’ Compensation Appeals Board (WCAB) hearing or trial are not eligible for coverage by ________________________.
Government Code Section 4800, industrial disability leave or sick leave
True/False – Employees are not prohibited from utilizing 4800 time, industrial disability leave or sick leave on the day a hearing WCAB hearing if they were already to be off-duty on the day of the hearing.
True
State transportation is authorized for use by an employee who is attending a Workers’ Compensation Appeals Board (WCAB) hearing or trial as a departmental representative. The employee is reimbursed by __________.
submitting a CHP 262, Travel Expense Claim
The commander (should/shall) arrange for departmental representation upon notification of a scheduled Workers’ Compensation Appeals Board (WCAB) trial.
shall
Prior to a Workers’ Compensation Appeals Board (WCAB) hearing or trial date, commanders (should/shall) arrange for the SCIF attorney to meet with departmental witnesses to review the case in detail and prepare the witnesses for trial.
shall
The Annual Fitness Challenge is an event involving five physical tasks that are designed to accomplish increased physical fitness. These tasks have been validated by __________.
the Cooper Institute for Aerobic Research
Participation in the Annual Fitness Challenge is ________________.
voluntary
Each employee will be evaluated based on age and gender in the following physical tasks:
1.5 mile run sit and reach for flexibility
300 meter run
timed sit-ups and push-ups
An alternate task for employees unable to participate in the 1.5 mile run is ________.
the 3.0 mile walk
Each uniformed employee may participate in _________ event per calendar year.
only one Annual Fitness Challenge
*Note - The employee may not participate in two if he/she transfers to another command.
The Annual Fitness Challenge will be administered at approximately _______ intervals within each command.
12 month
A Fitness Pin may be awarded to an employee who meets the recommended minimum fitness level. Minimum fitness means the employee must reach the ____________.
fifty percentile range in four of the five events
All employees participating in the Annual Fitness Challenge shall complete a _____.
prescreening naire
The resting heart rate is measured after the employee has _______________. Heart rates and pulse are taken for 30 seconds and multiplied by two. The resting heart rate must be __________ or less.
been sitting for a minimum of five minutes in a relaxed, comfortable position while monitoring the heartbeat with a stethoscope or taking the pulse from the carotid or radial artery
90 beats per minute
Resting heart rates above 90 beats per minute will preclude the employee from participation that day. The Division Fitness Coordinator should check the employees resting heart rate for _______ consecutive days at the same time every day.
five
Resting blood pressure is taken is taken after the employee has been sitting in a relaxed and comfortable position for five minutes. Resting blood pressure may not exceed ________.
140/90
If blood pressure is _________ systolic or _________ diastolic, it should be suggested that the employee consult a physician.
160-179, 95-119
If blood pressure is _______ systolic or _______ diastolic or above, the employee should notify a physician immediately and schedule a diagnostic evaluation within 24 hours.
180, 120
The AFC event shall not begin without having ________________ at the site of the event.
A Department EMT with O2 and an EMT bag available.
Employees preparing for the challenge do so on their own time. Injuries sustained as a result of off-duty exercise in preparation for the challenge are the sole responsibility of ________.
the employee
Employees injured during __________ in the challenge are covered.
“Actual Participation”
Any injury sustained while participating in the Annual Fitness Challenge shall be reported immediately to Division Fitness Coordinator/Area Fitness Coordinator immediately. Late reported injuries will be considered ______.
able
Commanders shall ensure that an employee will not participate in the Annual Fitness Challenge while an adverse action is pending in which the recommendation is for the ______________________.
the termination of employment with the Department
Commands (are/are not) required to disseminate wellness information to all command employees.
are
True/False - All physical activity events organized through the departmental wellness program should be conducted on state property, and during on duty time.
False, shall be off state property and off duty.
CHP employees’ participation in strikes/job actions is ___________.
incompatible.
A job action includes:
Strikes, sick ins, slow downs/speed-ups, picketing, other concerted activities.
Upon receiving information regarding job actions, commanders should investigate the nature and reasons, notify appropriate command levels, coordinate with Division, document activity of those involved and _______________.
initiate a system of review to detect increase/decrease in work efforts/improper absences
Who determines the legal course of action to pursue against employees engaged in job actions?
Upon direction of the Office of the Commissioner, OER will consult with DPA for a determination.
Should an employee job action take place it will be essential that the commander have a(n) _____________.
operational plan.
True/False - The use of State facilities for employee meetings is normally identified in Bargaining Unit M.O.U.s. This use cannot be denied even in the event of a job action.
False (Use prohibited during job action)
In the event of Departmental labor strike, commanders shall maintain a daily record of events associated with the labor strife. Supervisors should carry _________ to record events as they occur.
3X5 cards
The use of the State communications network or facilities to advocate or promote a job action is cause for ______.
adverse action
A temporary stoppage of work or a concerted withdrawal from work by employees to express a grievance or enforce demands is know as a ____________.
strike
In the event of a wildcat strike, the commander should attempt to obtain a _____________ concurrence of Division and the approval of the Commissioner.
court restraining order
Employees failing to notify of a strike, who fail to show up for work, are considered _______.
AWOL
Prior to the strike, each employee is to be contacted and asked not to participate and told that _____________ and their actions are unlawful.
disciplinary action may result
Each employee is to be provided _____________.
an order to report/return to work
Each employee suspected of participating in a strike shall be interrogated by a supervisor. This interrogation can occur _________ or ________ the strike.
during, after
When a sick out is suspected, employees shall be directed to obtain ___________.
medical verification
The ___________ shall advise the employee that if he/she cannot support the illness they should return to work.
supervisor
Docking (does/does not) preclude punitive action.
does not
If you request verification of an illness and an employee refuses to go to a private doctor or claims that they are too sick for travel, the commander, with the concurrence of Division may ___________.
transport by ambulance for examination
Employees who fail to provide medical substantiation will be ___________.
docked
Punitive action to be taken after an employee returns to work should be taken only after ______________.
consultation with division
Commanders should meet with employees involved in a speed-up/slowdown. The meeting should be held in a _____.
positive and noncritical environment
When it becomes apparent that employees have engaged in a slowdown or speed-up, the commander should ________.
notify division
If the positive approach fails, supervisors shall interrogate each employee and after any admitted slow down, the employee shall __________________.
be ordered both verbally and formally, by means of a memo of direction or form 2, to resume to full duty
A concerted effort to be overly strict in enforcement efforts in an attempt to cause public indignation as a means of forcing demands is called ___________.
an enforcement speed-up
In the event of a speed-up, commanders shall initiate a judicious review of __________.
all enforcement documents
An officer who issues a able document as the result of an enforcement speed-up should be interviewed. If it appears that the documents are inappropriate, the employee will be ordered in writing to ______.
comply with Departmental enforcement policy
When developing “Job Contingency Action Plans”, the commander must assure continuation of critical; programs and services. The primary are:
communication, automotive servicing, clerical, traffic functions
During a job action, work weeks should be ______ days and shifts _______ hours in length.
7, 12
True/False - During a job action, the use of allied agencies is not to be considered.
False, may be used as a last resort.
The FTEP consists of ______ weeks of individualized training which has been divided into _____ phases.
11, 4
Trainees effectiveness is evaluated and documented through performance ratings captured on the _______ in conjunction with a set of well defined rating guidelines.
CHP 115A Daily Observation Report (DOR)
The DOR was designed so that each of the _______ is embodied in one or more of the DOR’s performance rating categories.
9 critical tasks
The key principle guiding the program’s evaluation system and termination procedures is the requirement that __________ be based on ___________.
all evaluations and employment decisions, quantifiable job-related criteria
It is the responsibility of the __________________ to initiate the rejection during probation process for those trainees who do not meet the program’s minimal performance standards.
Area Commander
Each Field Area assigned one trainee shall provide an Area Coordinator. When a Field Area is assigned ______ trainee(s) the area will also provide an Alternate Area Coordinator.
more than two
Area Coordinators and their alternates are ________ who administer Area Training operations as collateral duties.
sergeants
*Note - They should not be probationary.
The program’s training curriculum consists of a progressive sequence of job-related __________ that all STOs must possess in order to effectively and safely carry out their duties.
knowledge, skills and abilities (KSA)
The program’s training periods and duration consist of _________ each of which emphasize a particular set of structured __________.
four phases, KSAs and tasks
A crucial aspect of Phase I (Introductory Phase) is molding the Trainee’s ____ towards the program as an ______, rather than “something they have to get through.”
attitude, opportunity
During Phase II the FTO must acknowledge the Trainee’s growing assertiveness and be constantly aware of the ________, guarding against ____________.
workload, under loading or overloading
The __________ of Phase I and the ________ each of Phases II and III are referred to as “Limbo” periods during which the CHP 115As and DORs are not completed for trainees.
first six days, first day
Normal training duration is 55 training days. However, trainees still experiencing significant problems may be given a ______ extension to overcome those problems.
ten-day
Typically, only one extension is allowed. However, when special or unusual circumstances exist the _______, with _____ concurrence, may approve a second ten-day extension period.
Area Commander, Division’s
The decision to extend is optional and is to be made by the Area Commander based upon the recommendations made by the _______ and _______.
Area Coordinator, FTO
The trainee cannot miss more than _____ of the program’s scheduled training days during a phase without that training phase being increased for the same number of days, beyond the _____, that the trainee missed.
two, two
The decision to extend a trainee will be made _______ the trainee’s phase IV (test evaluation) begins.
before
The decision to extend a trainee must be based on whether or not the problem area is _______.
able to be remediated or corrected
The CHP 115, Trainee Checklist, is divided into ______ to correspond to the ________.
three parts, first three training phases
Final evaluation is a five-day __________ period that will occur during Phase IV. If the trainee is extended beyond Phase III, the final evaluation occurs _______.
evaluation only, after sucessful completion of the ten-day extension
The trainee (should/shall) be assigned to a different FTO for each training phase.
shall
The trainee and FTO are initially assigned to a _______ shift during Phase I.
one-officer
During final evaluation, the trainee assumes the role of ________.
lead officer
If program training does not take place on a scheduled training day, a DOR is ____ submitted with the __________ box marked followed by a brief reason.
still, “no program training”
T or F. When the FTO determines that a trainee is not responding to training in any performance category, then the “NRT” entry, under the DOR’s “not responding to training” column, is marked for that category.
True
The CHP 115A, DOR, captures trainee ratings on ____ performance categories.
38
An “NRT” (should/shall) be given when a trainee, after having been instructed in a task enough times that improvement or accomplishment is expected, fails to improve.
shall
Whenever an “NRT” entry is marked, this _____ be explained on the reverse side of the DOR in the ________ section.
shall, “General”
A rating of _____ is the lowest acceptable performance rating for any category.
four
When remedial training exceeds ______ for any category, then the total number of minutes spent on remediation shall also be entered with and “R” under the “time” column.
15 minutes
On each DOR, the FTO shall provide narrative descriptions and explanations for the performance categories on that shift where __________ and ___________ performance occurred.
the single most acceptable, the single least acceptable
At the end of _______ the Area will ship the original CHP 115As, DORs, to the ______.
each training cycle, Statewide Program Coordinator
The CHP 115C, End of Phase Report, _____ completed after _______ and any _______.
shall be, each training phase, extended training
Retention periods for program files are _____ and for field folders are _____.
five years (Academy), one year (Area)
The purpose of Management Interviews is to insure that Field Training is conducted in an environment that is free of __________________.
sexual harassment or other forms of discrimination
While Area Coordinators are encouraged to accompany trainees on ride-alongs during each training phase, they, or the alternate Area Coordinator, _____ participate in at least one _____ ride-along.
shall, Phase III
The Area will arrange for all trainees to be interviewed by either the Area Commander, or an Area management Level designee at the end of the ____ and ____ phases of training.
first, third
FTOs must always be aware that they are primary ___________.
role models
FTOs who have not been active in the program for the past ______ must successfully complete the ______ hour POST FTO Update Course prior to training new officers.
36 months / 24
The five main functions of the FTO are:
Role Model, teacher, evaluator, leader, and counselor.
The three routes to termination of an employee under this program are:
Adverse Action, Rejection during Probation, and resignation.
The Department’s Equal Employment Opportunity (EEO) Program addresses any identified statistically-significant underutilization of which groups?
Women
Minorities
Persons with disabilities
*Note - In addition, the department’s EEO Program addresses: Upward mobility and procedures for handling counseling and investigating discrimination complaints.
With regard to the departments EEO Program, it is a major goal of this Department to achieve and maintain what?
a work force representative of the relevant labor force and the community it serves for all occupation and at all levels.
The authority for coordinating, monitoring, evaluating, and reporting on EEO activities has been assigned to whom?
To the Department’s Office of Equal Employment Opportunity (OEEO) Commander.
It is the responsibility of all managers and supervisors to continue to support, implement, and carry out the Department’s EEO policy to assure that what four criteria is conducted consistent with the policy?
(1) hiring
(2) promotion
(3) assignment
(4) training of personnel
What is the Department-wide, long-range goal with regard to the EEO Program?
To achieve a workforce that is representative of the state’s relevant labor force in all occupations and at all levels.
A workforce analysis is conducted __________ in order to provide direction for the Department’s EEO Program.
annually
Commanders will adhere to ________________ when implementing the Department’s EEO Program by widely advertising vacant positions and hiring qualified persons for those positions.
merit principles
All managers and supervisors are responsible and accountable to the appropriate Division Chief for personnel practices consistent with the Department’s EEO Program. Managers and supervisors (should/shall) assure the dissemination of EEO Program information to all current and new employees within their jurisdiction.
shall
The Upward Mobility Program is designed to provide equitable access and Departmental assistance to permanent full-time employees with a demonstrated interest and ability to advance to ______________________.
higher paying jobs
Upward mobility is defined as movement from low paying classifications with minimal career opportunities into higher paying classifications within the Department that have broader career opportunities. For the purposes of administering upward mobility training programs, low-paying occupations are classifications and groups of classifications identified in the _____________.
California State Civil Service Pay Scales
The upward mobility program is designed to assist employees in meeting the minimum qualifications (MQs) for ________________.
entrance into an examination
True/False - Upward mobility programs provide in part for movement between classifications in the same occupational series.
False, not when minimum qualifications can be met through experience in that classification (i.e., Office Assistant to Office Technician).
Supervisors should review the participating employee’s upward mobility plan as part of the _______ performance evaluation to ensure compliance with program eligibility and continuation.
annual
Training and Development assignments are utilized to ____________ by acquiring skills which cannot be learned in the present assignment. Training and Development assignments may be certified as qualifying experience for meeting qualifications for an examination.
broaden employee experience
(T/F) - Lateral transfers facilitate upward mobility by allowing employees to transfer from one classification to another without meeting the MQ for the new classification.
True
True/False - A Training and Development assignment is utilized to broaden employee experience by acquiring skills which cannot be learned in the current assignment.
True
True/False - The Department’s Upward Mobility Program is designed to support the employee’s efforts to compete for better paying jobs in State government.
False, it is designed to support the employee’s efforts to compete for better paying jobs in the Department.
The request to conduct an annual language survey and hire bilingual persons is contained in the California Bilingual Services Act as incorporated into the __________________.
Government Code (Sections 7292-7299)
The Department will evaluate the need for establishing bilingual positions when any operation within a command experiences a _____ percent or more contact rate with nonEnglish or limited-English speaking persons.
2.5%
The established parity for disabled persons is _________%.
16.6%, based on the 2000 census
The Departments disabilities program has two major objectives to comply with both federal and state law. First is to reach, attract, and employ qualified persons with disabilities. Second is to ensure that all qualified individuals with physical and or mental impairments have _________ to any programs, services, and/or activities under the jurisdiction of the Department for which they are eligible.
access
a person with a disability is someone who has a physical or mental impairment which ______ one or more of that person’s _________; has a record of such impairment; or is regarded as having such an impairment.
limits, major life activities
Not all physical and mental impairments qualify as disabilities under State and Federal laws. It must substantially limit a person’s ___________________.
major life activity
An experienced Office Assistant who had a prominent facial scar was passed over for promotion to a Receptionist position. The supervisor promoted a less experienced Office Assistant because s/he believed that members of the public would not want to look at this person. How was she discriminated against?
An experienced Office Assistant who had a prominent facial scar was passed over for promotion to a Receptionist position. The supervisor promoted a less experienced Office Assistant because s/he believed that members of the public would not want to look at this person. How was she discriminated against?
The Department may not discriminate against a drug addict who is _______ and has been _________.
Discrimination is illegal when actions are based on a history of drug addiction. *NOTE: The law allows employers to terminate or refuse to hire a person with a past history of illegal drug use, even if the person no longer uses drugs, in specific occupations, such as law enforcement, when that organization can show that its policy is job-related and consistent with business necessity.
*ALSO NOTE: An individual who is currently engaging in illegal use of drugs is not an “individual with a disability” when the employer acts on the basis of this illegal use.
The Department may not discriminate against a drug addict who is not currently using drugs and has been rehabilitated. Discrimination is illegal when actions are based on a history of drug addiction.
- NOTE: The law allows employers to terminate or refuse to hire a person with a past history of illegal drug use, even if the person no longer uses drugs, in specific occupations, such as law enforcement, when that organization can show that its policy is job-related and consistent with business necessity.
- ALSO NOTE: An individual who is currently engaging in illegal use of drugs is not an “individual with a disability” when the employer acts on the basis of this illegal use.
Can the Department discipline, discharge, or deny employment to an employee who is an alcoholic?
Yes, if the alcoholic’s job performance or conduct is impaired to the point that he or she is not a “qualified person with a disability”.
Logical adjustments made to job and/or the work environment which enables a qualified person with a disability to perform the essential duties of his / her position is known as ________________________.
reasonable accommodation
It is the department’s policy to ____________ any medical inquiries of job candidates or applicants prior to making a conditional offer of employment.
prohibit
Federal and state laws prohibit the Department from making inquiries into an applicant’s medical status/history prior to making a conditional offer of employment. This prohibition is necessary to assure that qualified applicants are not screened out because of their disability before their actual ability to do a job is evaluated. After making a conditional offer of employment and before an individual stats work, the department (may/may not) conduct a medical examination or ask health-related s, providing that all candidates who receive a conditional job offer in the same job category are required to take the same examination and/or respond to the same inquiries.
may
Limited Examination and Appointment Program (LEAP) candidates undergo a competitive exam where their education, experience, and personal qualifications are evaluated to determine readiness for employment. Candidates are ranked (on a scale) with an assigned one of ______ qualifying scores.
six
A Commander shall render a decision within _____________ after a CHP 163 (Reasonable Accommodation Request) is submitted.
10 days
Can an employee with a mobility impairment who finds it difficult to maneuver during peak periods on public transportation request to be allowed to start his working shift earlier or later?
Yes. This is an example of reasonable accommodation.
The Department shall operate its programs so that, when viewed in their entirety, they are ________ and usable by persons with disabilities.
readily accessible
The State “Fair Employment and Housing Act (FEHA)” prohibits discrimination in employment of individuals over the age of _______.
40
The Federal Age Discrimination in Employment Act (ADEA) prohibits employers from discriminating against individuals between what ages?
40 to 70
True/False - 70 years of age is the maximum age that an employee can compete in open or promotional exams.
False, individuals age 70 or older may compete in open as well as promotional examinations. This provision does not include, law enforcement positions.
Courts have recognized two types of Sexual Harassment under Federal and State Law. These include:
(1) Quid pro quo harassment occurs when, “submission to or rejection of (unwelcome sexual) conduct by an individual is used as the basis for employment decisions affecting that individual,” per EEOC guidelines.
(2) In contrast, a “hostile work environment” claim may arise where unwelcome sexual conduct unreasonably interferes with an individual’s job performance or creates an intimidating, hostile, or offensive working environment, even if it does not lead to tangible or economic consequences.
* NOTE: Hostile work environment may also occur on the basis of other protected characteristics, such as; race, disability, national origin, etc.
Sexual Harassment is defined unsolicited and unwelcome sexual advances, requests for sexual favors, and other verbal, physical or visual conduct of a sexual nature which occurs when:
- ) Submission is made either explicitly or implicitly as a term or condition of employment. 2.) Submission to or rejection of such conduct by an individual is used as the basis for employment decisions affecting such employee; or
- ) Such conduct has the purpose of or effect of unreasonably interfering with an individual’s work performance and/or creating an intimidating, hostile or offensive working environment.
In determining whether unwelcome sexual conduct rises to the level of a “hostile environment” the central inquiry is whether the conduct unreasonably interferes with an individual’s work performance or creates and intimidating, hostile or offensive working environment. In order for conduct to be determined to have created an intimidating, hostile, or offensive work environment, what three criteria must exist?
- ) The behavior in must be of a sexual nature.
- ) The behavior must be unwelcome.
- ) The behavior must be severe and/or pervasive enough to create a hostile, intimidating, or offensive work environment.
A hostile environment sexual harassment can occur toward the direct recipient of sexual behavior or to an _______recipient. (A third party who is present and indirectly subjected to the sexual behavior, such as seeing inappropriate touching or sexual items, or hearing jokes of a sexual nature directed towards another person could lodge a complaint of sexual harassment based on hostile environment).
indirect
True/False - Sexual Harassment undermines the integrity of the employment relationship. It can have economic consequences for both employees and employers. It can result in excessive absenteeism and turnover, loss of morale, polarization of staff, and a decrease in management credibility, all resulting in a decrease in productivity.
True
Who is responsible for assuring a favorable working atmosphere for all employees free from sexual harassment or other discriminatory practices?
Managers and Supervisors
*Note - The working environment should be businesslike and assure fair, courteous treatment for employees and the public we serve. Incidents of sexual harassment when observed by or brought to the attention of supervisory personnel shall be given serious attention and appropriate action taken to remedy the situation in a timely manner.
If an employee feels threatened or has difficulty expressing disapproval, he/she is encouraged to first seek informal assistance and counseling from an EEO counselor or appropriate supervisory or management personnel. In addition, the office of EEO is available.If this does not produce effective results what may the employee do?
employees may file a discrimination complaint. They may also file a discrimination complaint with EEOC (Federal) within 300 calendar days of the last discriminatory incident or with the California Department of Fair Employment and Housing within 365 calendar days of the last discriminatory incident.
True/False - It is the policy of the Department to provide an internal process to resolve complaints that allege discrimination or retaliation in departmental employment practices covering recruitment, selection, appointments, compensation, transfer training, and other terms and conditions of employment.
True
True/False - Equal Employment Opportunity Commission (EEOC) (federal) complaints include; race, color, national origin, religion, age, disability, and or retaliation.
True.
*Note - EEOC discrimination complaints may be filed within 300 days of the last incident or notification of the alleged discriminatory act.
Department of Labor (DOL) complaints include the Family Medical Leave Act. In what time frame must discrimination complaints be filed from the last incident or notification of the alleged discriminatory acts?
The victim must file within two years
Discrimination Complaints filed externally (bypassing the Departments Internal Discrimination Complaint process may also be filed with the Department of Fair Employment and Housing (DFEH) complaints include; race, color, ancestry, national origin, religion, age, sex, physical or mental disability, marital status, sexual orientation, medical condition (cancer), denial of family or medical care leave and/or retaliation. DFEH complaints must be filed within how many days of the last incident or notification of alleged discriminatory acts?
365 days
State Personnel Board (SPB) allows (how many days) to file a complaint? The covered basis includes: race, color, ancestry, national origin, age, sex (includes sexual harassment), physical or mental disability political affiliation/opinion, marital status, sexual orientation, medical condition, and/or retaliation.
365 days to file
The Department of Industrial Relations (DIR) is yet another entity where discrimination complaints may be externally filed. The covered basis includes protections provided to employees or applicants for employment under the Victims of Domestic Violence Leave Act of 2001. Complaints filed with DIR must be filed within ______days.
365 days
An employee (may/may not) file concurrent complaints under both the Grievance and the Discrimination Complaint process from the same set of facts.
may not
A ____________ is defined as a dispute involving interpretation, application, or enforcement of the expressed terms of respective bargaining unit agreements.
Grievance
Per the Government code, allegations of discrimination in AA’s must be submitted no later than 30 calendar days after the notice of rejection during probation, or _____ days after the effective date of rejection.
15
Per the Government code, allegations of discrimination in AA’s must be submitted to SPB not later than (how many days) after the service of the notice of Adverse Action?
30 calendar days
Per the Government code, allegations of discrimination in rejections during probation must be submitted to SPB within (how many days) of the effective date of rejection?
15 calendar days.
The ______________ is the final level of appeal in the Departments internal Discrimination Complaint process.
SPB
Any allegation of discrimination arising from an AA or rejection during probation, must be filed directly with the ________. These appeals are not handled through the discrimination complaint process, but are resolved through an evidentiary hearing process.
SPB
All employees / applicants are assured of the following (13) rights when filing internal complaints of discrimination:
1)The right to a full, impartial prompt investigation by a trained EEO Investigator when a formal written complaint is filed.
2) The right to be assisted by a representative of their own choosing at all stages of the process.
3) The right to a reasonable amount of work time (employees only)? To make an informal presentation of their complaint to an EEO Counselor.
4) The right to remain anonymous
5) The right to file directly with the Division Chief if the informal complaint is not resolved to the complainant’s satisfaction
6) The right to file an appeal of the Division Chief’s determination with the appropriate Assistant Commissioner
7) The right to appeal the Department’s (Commissioner’s) decision to SPB in addition to filing charges with other appropriate state or federal compliance agencies, or to file a civil action in the appropriate court.
8) The right to freedom from restraint, interference, coercion or reprisal.
9) The right to expect a final departmental decision within 155 working days, unless deadlines are negotiated otherwise with written confirmation
10) The right to file a discrimination complaint directly with SPB when the allegations involve executive management assigned to the Office of the Commissioner.
(11) The right to file a complaint that alleges retaliation directly with SPB, instead of filing through the internal discrimination complaint process, if the complainant does not want to file their retaliation complaint with the Department.
(12) The right to file concurrent complaints with EEOC, DFEH, SPB, or to file a civil action in the appropriate court.
NOTE: Complaints alleging violations of the Victims of Domestic Violence Leave Act of 2001 can only be filed with DIR.
(13) The right to file directly with the SPB when the Department has exceeded the 180 days time frame for completion.
A ____________ complaint is the point in the internal or external process where an investigation is conducted by an EEO investigator regarding discrimination charges and allegations.
formal
True/False - The assigned EEO investigator shall be at least one rank higher than the alleged discriminatory employee.
True
The ___________________ are responsible for selecting and maintaining a sufficient number of trained EEO investigators and counselors.
Division Chiefs
CHP 415 must be retained for a period of ____________ years. The ______________ is stored at the local field office.
3 years, current year
A fiscal plan of operation detailing proposed expenditures for a given period and the proposed means of funding them is a _______.
budget
