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CBR Neurosurgery > 1 - 60 > Flashcards

1 - 60 Flashcards

1
Q
  1. Surgical procedures utilized in the treatment of spasmodic torticollis include
    I. upper cervical ventral rhizotomies and spinal accessory neurectomy
  2. stereotactic thalamotomy
  3. microvascular decompression of the spinal accessory nerve
    IV. myotomy
    A. I, 11,111
    B. I, 111
    C. 11, IV
    D. IV
    E. all of the above
A

E. all of the above
I. upper cervical ventral rhizotomies and spinal accessory neurectomy
11. stereotactic thalamotomy
111. microvascular decompression of the spinal accessory nerve
IV. myotomy

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2
Q 
11. Which surgical approach for thoracic disk herniations is associated with the
highest rate of neurologic injury?
A. costotransversectomy
B. lateral extracavitary
C. midline laminectomy
D. transpedicular
E. transthoraci
A

C. midline laminectomy

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3
Q 
12. Most patients with intrinsic brainstem gliomas initially present with
A. cranial neuropathies
B. headache
C. hydrocephalus
D. nausea and vomiting
E. papilledem
A

A. cranial neuropathies

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4
Q
  1. Each of the following is characteristic of complex regional pain syndrome I1
    (causalgia) except
    A. atrophic changes in the limb
    B. hypesthesia
    C. increased sweating
    D. lack of major motor deficit
    E. good relief with sympathetic block
A

B. hypesthesia

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5
Q 
14. bacterial meningitis
A. dermoid cyst
B. epidermoid cyst
C. both
D. neither
A

A. dermoid cyst

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6
Q
  1. aseptic meningitis
A

B. epidermoid cyst

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7
Q
  1. associated congenital malformations
A

A. dermoid cyst

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8
Q
  1. most often midline
A

A. dermoid cyst

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9
Q
  1. responsive to radiation therapy
A

D. neither

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10
Q
  1. Ventricular enlargement from choroid plexus papillomas can be secondary to
    I. entrapment of cerebrospinal fluid (CSF)
  2. decreased absorption of CSF from hemorrhage-induced arachnoiditis
  3. tumor growth
    IV. excessive production of CSF
    A. I, 11, 111
    B. I, 111
    C. 11, IV
    D. IV
    E. all of the above
A

E. all of the above

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11
Q 
20. Which approach is favored for a patient with an 8 mm acoustic neuroma in
which hearing preservation is a goal?
A. middle fossa
B. suboccipital
C. translabyrinthine
A

A. middle fossa

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12
Q 
21. Uncinate seizures typically produce
A. auditory hallucinations
B. gustatory hallucinations
C. olfactory hallucinations
D. vertiginous sensations
E. visual seizures
A

C. olfactory hallucinations

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13
Q 
22. separates the PI and P2A segments of the posterior cerebral artery
A. calcarine sulcus
B. lateral mesencephalic sulcus
C. posterior communicating artery
D. tectal plate
A

C. posterior communicating artery

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14
Q 
23. separates the P2A and P2P segments of the posterior cerebral artery
A. calcarine sulcus
B. lateral mesencephalic sulcus
C. posterior communicating artery
D. tectal plate
A

B. lateral mesencephalic sulcus

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15
Q 
24. separates the P2P and P3 segments of the posterior cerebral artery
A. calcarine sulcus
B. lateral mesencephalic sulcus
C. posterior communicating artery
D. tectal plate
A

D. tectal plate

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16
Q 
25. separates the P3 and P4 segments of the posterior cerebral artery
A. calcarine sulcus
B. lateral mesencephalic sulcus
C. posterior communicating artery
D. tectal plate
A

A. calcarine sulcus

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17
Q 
26. The radial nerve or one of its branches innervates each of the following except the
A. abductor pollicis longus
B. adductor pollicis
C. brachioradialis
D. extensor pollicis brevis
E. supinator
A

B. adductor pollicis

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18
Q
  1. Each of the following is true of intraventricular hemorrhage (IVH) in the
    newborn except
    A. Periventricular hemorrhagic infarction is one sequela.
    B. Posthemorrhagic hydrocephalus can result in persistent bradycardia and
    apneic spells.
    C The capillary bed of the germinal matrix is composed of large irregular
    vessels.
    D. The germinal matrix is the most common site of IVH in the full-term
    neonate.
    E. The risk of IVH is greater in the preterm than in the term infant.
A

D. The germinal matrix is the most common site of IVH in the full-term
neonate.

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19
Q
  1. The ossification centers of the odontoid consist of
    A. one primary and two secondary centers
    B. one secondary and three primary centers
    C. three secondary and one primary center
    D. two primary Centers
    E. two primary and one secondary center
A

E. two primary and one secondary center

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20
Q 
29. The most common single-suture synostosis is
A. coronal
B. lambdoid
C. metopic
D. sagittal
E. sphenozygomatic
A

D. sagittal

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21
Q
  1. The most sensitive method for detecting carpal tunnel syndrome is
    A. needle examination of the abductor pollicis brevis
    B. needle examination of the first and second lumbricals
    C motor amplitude of the median nerve
    D. motor distal latency of the median nerve
    E. palmar sensory conduction time of the median nerve
A

E. palmar sensory conduction time of the median nerve

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22
Q 
31. Coup contusions most commonly occur at the
A. cerebral convexities
B. frontal and temporal poles
C. orbital surface of the frontal lobes
D. posterior fossa
E. ventral surface of the temporal lobe
A

A. cerebral convexities

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23
Q
  1. pupil-involving third nerve palsy
    A. anterior communicating artery aneurysm
    B. intracavernous carotid aneurysm
    C. middle cerebral artery aneurysm
    D. ophthalmic artery aneurysm
    E. posterior communicating artery aneurysm
A

E. posterior communicating artery aneurysm

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24
Q
  1. seizures
    A. anterior communicating artery aneurysm
    B. intracavernous carotid aneurysm
    C. middle cerebral artery aneurysm
    D. ophthalmic artery aneurysm
    E. posterior communicating artery aneurysm
A

C. middle cerebral artery aneurysm

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25
Q
  1. diabetes insipidus
    A. anterior communicating artery aneurysm
    B. intracavernous carotid aneurysm
    C. middle cerebral artery aneurysm
    D. ophthalmic artery aneurysm
    E. posterior communicating artery aneurysm
A

A. anterior communicating artery aneurysm

26
Q
  1. inferior nasal quadrantanopia
    A. anterior communicating artery aneurysm
    B. intracavernous carotid aneurysm
    C. middle cerebral artery aneurysm
    D. ophthalmic artery aneurysm
    E. posterior communicating artery aneurysm
A

D. ophthalmic artery aneurysm

27
Q
  1. exophthalmos
    A. anterior communicating artery aneurysm
    B. intracavernous carotid aneurysm
    C. middle cerebral artery aneurysm
    D. ophthalmic artery aneurysm
    E. posterior communicating artery aneurysm
A

B. intracavernous carotid aneurysm

28
Q
  1. The essential difference between a syringomyelic and a hydromyelic cavity is
    that the cavity in
    A. hydromyelia is lined with ependymal cells, and in syringomyelia is not
    B. hydromyelia is lined with choroid plexus, and in syringomyelia is not
    C. syringomyelia contains CSF, and in hydromyelia contains serum
    D. syringomyelia is focal, and in hydromyelia is more extensive
    E. syringomyelia is an enlargement of the central canal,
    and in hydromyelia is an enlargement of the anterior median septum
A

A. hydromyelia is lined with ependymal cells, and in syringomyelia is not

29
Q
  1. Each of the following is true of basilar impression except
    A. Cerebellar and vestibular complaints typically overshadow motor and
    sensory complaints.
    B. McGregor’s line is helpful in routine screening.
    C. McRae’s line is helpful in clinical assessment.
    D. Short necks and torticollis are common.
    E. Vertebral artery anomalies are common.
A

A. Cerebellar and vestibular complaints typically overshadow motor and
sensory complaints.

30
Q
  1. Which of the following fractures has the poorest prognosis for healing without
    surgical intervention?
    A. hangman’s
    B. Jefferson’s fracture with 4 mm displacement of lateral masses
    C. type l odontoid
    D. type 11 odontoid
    E. type I11 odontoid
A

D. type 11 odontoid

31
Q
  1. Sprengel’s deformity refers to a(n)
    A. congenital elevation of the scapula
    B. congenital fusion of the upper cervical vertebrae
    C. intravertebral disk herniation
    D. postlaminectomy kyphosis
    E. scoliosis resulting from tethering of the spinal cord
A

A. congenital elevation of the scapula

32
Q 
56. Lateral recess stenosis in spondylosis is most commonly caused by
A. disk herniation
B. hypertrophied pedicles
C. inferior articular facet hypertrophy
D. ligamentum flavum hypertrophy
E. superior articular facet hypertrophy
A

E. superior articular facet hypertrophy

33
Q 
57. In the treatment of chronic pain, the undesirable effect(s) that islare more
common in stimulation of the periaqueductal gray than the periventricular gray
region islare
I. diplopia
11. oscillopsia
111. reduction of upgaze *
IV. sense of impending doom
A. I, 11, Ill
B. I, I11
C. 11, IV
D. IV
E. all of the above
A

E. all of the above

34
Q 
58. ''Trilateral retinoblastoma" describes bilateral ocular retinoblastomas and a(n)
A. astrocytoma
B. medulloblastoma
C. neurofibroma
D. optic nerve sheath tumor
E. pineoblastoma
A

E. pineoblastoma

35
Q
  1. Carotid artery ligation is absolutely contraindicated in patients with (a)
    A. bilateral intracavernous carotid aneurysms
    B. giant ophthalmic artery aneurym and evidence of vasospasm on arteriogram
    C. giant ophthalmic artery aneurysm and extracranial atherosclerotic disease
    D. intracavernous carotid artery aneurysm and sudden loss of extraocular
    motility
    E. traumatic dissecting aneurysm of the petrous carotid artery
A

B. giant ophthalmic artery aneurym and evidence of vasospasm on arteriogram

36
Q
  1. The syndrome of weakness in one upper extremity followed by lower extremity
    weakness on the same side, then contralateral lower extremity weakness, is
    most characteristic of a meningioma involving the
    A. clivus
    B. falx
    C. foramen magnum
    D. olfactory groove
    E. tuberculum sella
A

C. foramen magnum

37
Q
  1. Adherence of a posterior communicating artery aneurysm to the temporal lobe
    is most likely in a patient presenting with
    A. loss of consciousness
    B. no third nerve palsy . .
    C. projection of the aneurysm medial to the carotid on the anteroposterior (AP)
    angiogram
    D. third nerve involvement
    E. seizures
A

B. no third nerve palsy .

38
Q 
72. Weakness of the deltoid muscle is caused by injury to the
A. axillary nerve
B. dorsal scapular nerve
C. musculocutaneous nerve
D. suprascapular nerve
E. thoracodorsal nerve
A

A. axillary nerve

39
Q 
73. Subdural empyema resulting after meningitis in an infant most commonly
develops with
A. Escherichia coli
B. Haemophilus influenme
C. Listeria
D. Neisseria
E. Staphylococcus
A

A. Escherichia coli

40
Q
  1. Sudeck’s atrophy, associated with causalgia, refers to atrophic changes occur.
    ring in each of the following structures except
    A. bone
    B. joints
    C. muscle
    D. nerve
    E. skin
A

D. nerve

41
Q 
75. closure of the caudal neuropore
Postovulatory Day Number
A. 13
B. 17
C. 22
D. 24
E. 26
A

E. 26

42
Q 
76. closure of the cranial neuropore
Postovulatory Day Number
A. 13
B. 17
C. 22
D. 24
E. 26
A

D. 24

43
Q 
77. formation of the notochord
A. 13
B. 17
C. 22
D. 24
E. 26
A

B. 17

44
Q 
78. formation of the primitive streak
A. 13
B. 17
C. 22
D. 24
E. 26
A

A. 13

45
Q 
79. fusion of the neural folds to form the neural tube
A. 13
B. 17
C. 22
D. 24
E. 26
A

C. 22

46
Q
  1. Factors that predispose to the subclavian steal syndrome include
    I. occlusion of the left subclavian artery before the origin of the left
    vertebral artery
  2. occlusion of the left subclavian artery after the origin of the left
    vertebra artery
    Ill. active use of the left arm
    IV. occlusion of the left vertebral artery
    A. I, 11, 111
    B. I, 111
    C. 11, IV
    D. IV
    E. all of the above
A

B. I, I. occlusion of the left subclavian artery before the origin of the left
vertebral artery
111. active use of the left arm

47
Q 
81. The articular facet joint in the upper thoracic region is oriented
A. axially
B. coronally
C. obliquely
D. sagittally
A

B. coronally

48
Q 
82. The most common presenting symptom of a thoracic herniated disk is
A. back pain
B. leg numbness
C. leg weakness
D. thoracic numbness
E. urinary incontinence
A

A. back pain

49
Q 
83. Neurologic deficits thought to result from occlusion of the thalamostriate
vein during the subchoroidal transvelum interpositum approach to the third
ventricle include
1. drowsiness
11. hemiparesis
Ill. mutism
IV. seizures
A. I, 11, 111
B. I, Ill
C. 11, IV
D. IV
E. all of the above
A

A. I, 11, 111
1. drowsiness
11. hemiparesis
Ill. mutism

50
Q 
89. In the suboccipital transmeatal approach to an acoustic neuroma, the location
of the facial nerve in relation to the tumor, in decreasing frequency of occurrence,
is
A anterior. posterior, inferior
B. anterior, superior, inferior
C. superior, anterior, posterior
D. posterior, superior, anterior
E. anterior, posterior, superior
A

B. anterior, superior, inferior

51
Q 
90. Each of the following features is usually minimal or absent in patients with type
2 neurofibromatosis except
A. axillary freckles
B. cafe au lait spots
C. Lisch nodules
D. multiple. typical skin neurofibromas
E. skin plaques
A

E. skin plaques

52
Q 
91. The single most important factor in the recurrence of meningiomas is
A age of the patient
B. bone invasion
C. histologic type of benign meningioma
D. postoperatiye tumor residual
E. sex of the patient
A

D. postoperatiye tumor residual

53
Q 
92. contains the anteroinferior cerebellar 
artery (AICA)
A ambient cistern
B. cerebellopontine angle cistern
C. interpeduncular cistern
D. lateral cerebellomedullary cistern
E. prepontine cistern
A

B. cerebellopontine angle cistern

54
Q 
93. contains the origin of the posteroinferior 
cerebellar artery (PICA)
A ambient cistern
B. cerebellopontine angle cistern
C. interpeduncular cistern
D. lateral cerebellomedullary cistern
E. prepontine cistern
A

D. lateral cerebellomedullary cistern

55
Q 
94. contains the superior cerebellar artery
A ambient cistern
B. cerebellopontine angle cistern
C. interpeduncular cistern
D. lateral cerebellomedullary cistern
E. prepontine cistern
A

A ambient cistern

56
Q 
95. contains cranial nerve (CN) IV
A ambient cistern
B. cerebellopontine angle cistern
C. interpeduncular cistern
D. lateral cerebellomedullary cistern
E. prepontine cistern
A

A ambient cistern

57
Q 
96. contains CN V
A ambient cistern
B. cerebellopontine angle cistern
C. interpeduncular cistern
D. lateral cerebellomedullary cistern
E. prepontine cistern
A

B. cerebellopontine angle cistern

58
Q 
97. contains the basal vein of Rosenthal
A ambient cistern
B. cerebellopontine angle cistern
C. interpeduncular cistern
D. lateral cerebellomedullary cistern
E. prepontine cistern
A

C. interpeduncular cistern

59
Q 
98. contains the choroid plexus at the foramen of Luschka
A ambient cistern
B. cerebellopontine angle cistern
C. interpeduncular cistern
D. lateral cerebellomedullary cistern
E. prepontine cistern
A

D. lateral cerebellomedullary cistern

60
Q
  1. The transverse crest separates the
    A cochlear, facial, and superior vestibular nerves from the inferior
    vestibular nerve
    B. cochlear and inferior vestibular nerve from the facial and superior
    vestibular nerve
    C. facial and cochlear nerves from the superior and inferior vestibular
    nerves
    D. facial, cochlear, and inferior vestibular nerves from the superior
    vestibular nerve
    E. facial and inferior vestibular nerves from the cochlear and superior
    vestibular nerves
A

B. cochlear and inferior vestibular nerve from the facial and superior
vestibular nerve

61
Q
  1. The transverse crest separates the
    A cochlear, facial, and superior vestibular nerves from the inferior
    vestibular nerve
    B. cochlear and inferior vestibular nerve from the facial and superior
    vestibular nerve
    C. facial and cochlear nerves from the superior and inferior vestibular
    nerves
    D. facial, cochlear, and inferior vestibular nerves from the superior
    vestibular nerve
    E. facial and inferior vestibular nerves from the cochlear and superior
    vestibular nerves
A

B. cochlear and inferior vestibular nerve from the facial and superior
vestibular nerve

62
Q
  1. Surgical procedures utilized in the treatment of spasmodic torticollis include
    I. upper cervical ventral rhizotomies and spinal accessory neurectomy
  2. stereotactic thalamotomy
  3. microvascular decompression of the spinal accessory nerve
    IV. myotomy
    A. I, 11,111
    B. I, 111
    C. 11, IV
    D. IV
    E. all of the above
A

E. all of the above

CBR Neurosurgery (3 decks)

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