-1 Flashcards
What kind of engine do we have?
PT6A-68 free-turbine turboprop engine
What SHP is the engine rated for?
1100 SHP
Reverse-flow design, 2 independent sections: what are the 2 sections?
Gas generator and power turbine sections
Gas generator (aft) - 4 stage axial flow compressor, single stage turbine
Power section (fwd) - 2 stage axial flow power turbine, exhaust case, and reduction gearbox
Oil system capacity?
18.5 quarts
Oil system provides a constant supply of filtered oil to: what 4 things?
This is done throughout normal/aerobatic flight
Engine bearings
Reduction gears
Accessory drives
Propeller
4 components of the oil system
Pressure
Scavenge
Cooling
Breather systems
When to service the oil after shutdown?
What can you use to check the oil level?
Must be serviced within 30 minutes of shutdown, reliably check 15-20 minutes after.
Sight glass not for checking oil, only dipstick.
Red OIL PX if:
> 40 above idle
/= 15 at idle
15-40 at idle, more than 5 seconds
Amber OIL PX if:
15-40 at idle (more than 5, red and amber)
40-90 10 sec above idle
Oil system 2 pickup elements are:
One normally submerged in oil
Other picks up at top of tank for inverted flight
How many pumps does the oil scavenging system have?
Scavenging system has 2 dual element gear pumps inside and outside of gearbox.
How is oil cooling accomplished?
accomplished by oil cooler
With the engine shutdown, what oil PSI may the display read?
Engine may display up to 4 psi with engine shut down
If the oil filter becomes clogged what happens?
Bypass valve allows for oil flow if filter becomes clogged
The ____ processes engine oil pressure data to the ___ for logic on the CWS panel.
EDM processes engine oil pressure data to SCU for logic on CWS panel.
What does the reduction gearbox do (RGB)? And where is it?
2 stage planetary reduction drive to reduce power turbine output shaft speed (30,000 rpm) to propeller operating speed (2,000 rpm)
Mounted on the front of the engine
Where is the chip detector mounted and what does it do?
Chip detector mounted in RGB to detect metal in oil (CHIP light)
What other 3 things are mounted to the Reduction gearbox?
PIU, torque probe, PMA mounted to RGB
What turns the propeller?
Turned by power turbine through RGB
Discuss the prop dimensions, how many, and its characteristics (speed/pitch/etc)
97 inches, 4 blade, constant-speed, variable-pitch, non-reversing, feathering propeller
What is max NP and RPMs for the propellor for most flight conditions?
100% NP (2,000 RPM) during most flight conditions
What controls the propellor pitch and Np?
PMU and PIU control pitch and Np
What does “flat rated” engine mean (think critical altitude) up to what altitude?
“Flat rated” engine means 100% torque available until 12,000-16,000 feet
At 100% TQ, how many ft/lbs of torque?
How much thrust at sea level?
At 100% torque, approximately 2900 ft/lbs of torque at prop shaft
Approximately 2750 pounds of thrust at sea level, 0 knots
What are the 3 basic conditions of the prop?
3 basic conditions:
Feathered = aligned with the wind, lowest drag
Low pitch (flat or fine) ~15 degrees, low power settings
High pitch (coarse), high power settings
What are the 2 ways to feather the prop?
- If the engine is shutdown with the PCL and the PMU is in NORM (sends a signal to prop servo valve to drain prop oil px)
- Placing the PCL to cutoff also activates micro switches that power the feather dump solenoid valve; which dumps the oil px as well.
How is the propellor governed?
Governed by the PIU and PMU.
Mechanical overspeed governor modulates oil pressure to keep Np below 106%
How does the PMU vary blade angle?
PMU varies blade angle with oil px through PIU
Electric governing maintains what NP?
If the PMU is lost/deactivated, what is the mechanical governor for NP?
Electric governing maintains 100% Np
PMU lost/deactivated, mechanical governs 100+/-2%
Start and ignition system
Starter switch auto engages starter and energizes ignition system
PMU energizes/de-energizes igniters
What does the Engine Data Manager (EDM) monitor?
Monitors engine operating parameters and illuminates annunciators
What non engine related functions does the EDM control?
Controls additional non-engine functions:
Fuel balancing
Fuel quantity indications
Determination for display of DC volts/amps
Displays hydraulic pressure, cockpit altitude/px
If the EDM fails what will you see? On what display?
If failed, electronic instrument displays will display EDM fail
How many electronic instrument displays and what are they?
PEDD, AEDD, ESD
What does the PEDD display and what processes it?
PEDD (all processed by PMU):
Torque
Np
IOAT
N1
ITT
What does the AEDD display?
AEDD:
Alt torque
Alt N1
Cockpit PX alt
Cockpit delta Fuel flow
Fuel quantity in each wing
Raw ITT (RITT)
Except torque, non processed by PMU
What does the ESD display?
ESD:
Oil temp
Oil px
DC volts/amps
Hydraulic px
Traffic alerts
What powers the PMU? Where is it mounted?
Powered by PMA mounted on RGB
PMA volts, AC/DC?
Supplies 32 VAC, PMU converts to DC
When does it auto switch from the PMA to the battery?
Auto switches to 28 VDC battery when prop RPM drops below 40-50% Np or when PMA fails
PMU operation, minimum N1 on the ground? N1 in flight?
Ground mode = 60-61% N1
Flight mode = 67% N1 (minimum)
Why are spins prohibited below 10,000 feet? What does the PMU do?
Above 10,000 feet pressure altitude, PMU raises N1 to maintain Np above 80% to prevent stress during spins
What does the PMU provide for starts?
Provides autostart capability during ground starts
Monitors engine parameters during start
When would PMU auto terminate a ground start?
Autostart will auto termiinate ground start sequence if no lightoff within 10 seconds of auto/reset
PMU GK
Will auto terminate to prevent impending hung or hot start if:
ITT exceeds 940C for 19 seconds
ITT exceeds 870 for 4 seconds
ITT exceeds 840 for 19 seconds
Will abort if N1 acceleration rate to idle is less than 50% of normal
Auto shutdown feature disabled during flight mode
PMU defaults to 121 if IOAT greater than 96C and heat soaked
If above 121 IOAT, PMU goes offline. Amber dashes in IOAT and ITT
Where are the Fire Warning System sensors located and what do they do?
Dual sensor tubes and responder assemblies
Sensors mounted exterior surface of engine, signal responder assembly when high temp detected
Fire warning system GK
Sensor tubes contain helium gas and hydrogen charged core material
Helium gas responds to over temp
Hydrogen charged core responds to heat caused by flames or escaping bleed air. Releasing hydrogen gas with increases helium pressure.
Expanding helium gas pressurizes diaphragm inside responder and triggers red FIR annunicator and master warning horn
Fire system, what BUS is the Fire #1 and Fire #2 on respectively?
1 fire on battery bus (SLUF for aux bat)
#2 fire on gen bus
What does the firewall shutoff handle do/what 3 things does it cutoff?
Can it be reset?
Mechanically operates cables to close firewall valves
Cuts off fuel, hydraulic fluid to engine
Cuts off bleed air from engine
Valve may be reset by pushing handle down
Fuel system: how much total fuel for SPR? OTW refueling?
~1,100 lbs of usable fuel through single point refueling system
~100 lbs additional fuel available if over-wing feeling
How many fuel tanks?
3 integral tanks built into single-piece wing provide fuel storage
Fuel auto balance system: when does the FUEL BAL annunciator come on?
Auto balance system to maintain within 20lbs of each other
20 lbs or more for 30 seconds - FUEL BAL annunicator and auto balance system shuts off
Resetting provides 2 minutes of balancing before popping annunciator again
Red FUEL PX
FUEL PX activated by low pressure switch >10 psi in motive flow/return flow supply line
Green BOOST PUMP
BOOST PUMP with switch on, automatically by low pressure switch, or whenever starter is activated
Amber L FUEL LO / R FUEL LO
L FUEL LO / R FUEL LO activated by optical sensors below 110 lbs in respective wing tank
Amber FUEL BAL
FUEL BAL when >30 pound imbalance for 2 minutes or a probe fails
Do not try to manually balance if FP FAIL
How many fuel probes/where are they?
7 fuel probes
3 each wing
1 collector tank
Probe for highest amount of fuel used (most outer probe) until fuel level drops below probe
What are the readings for each fuel probe?
Outer = 445 +/- 50 lbs
Middle = 308 +/- 50 lbs
Inner = until 20 lbs
Collector has only one probe and splits between left/right tank readings
What AMBER annunciators for a FP FAIL?
Probe fails = FUEL BAL and FP FAIL annuncators
How does the fuel system operate?
Fuel gravity drains outboard to inbound wing cavities
How does the fuel pick up valve operate for normal and inverted flight?
Fuel pickup valve in collector tank supplies fuel to engine
Inverted flight fuel provided by inverted pickup for minimum of 60 seconds and prevents air ingestion
Electrical system:
Starter/Generator volts and amps
28 VDC, 300 amp starter/generator
Primary battery and auxiliary battery Volts and Amps
Primary battery is 24VDC/42 AMPS
Auxiliary battery is 24VDC/5 AMPS
How is the electrical system power distributed?
Through BAT and GEN buses
What is the primary aircraft power?
What is the minimum volts for the generator to charge the battery?
Starter/Generator
Minimum 25 VDC from generator to charge battery
Red GEN annunciator
Means GEN has failed and A/C automatically shed
Can both GEN switches be on in the cockpits?
Gen switch in each cockpit, one ON at any given time, other OFF
Battery Volts, AMPS, and usage?
What is the battery capable of powering?
Can both switches be on in both cockpits?
24 VDC, 42-amp hour battery
Power for engine starts
Capable of powering all electrical systems except air conditioning
Batt switches magnetically held on and interlocked, either cockpit controls it. Only one on at a time like gen switch
Auxiliary battery volts and amps?
What does the AUX BAT power?
24 VDC, 5-amp hour battery
SLUF for 30 minutes minimum
Standby instruments
Lighting for aux instruments
UHF Backup control
Fire 1 warning system
What does the Bus tie switch do?
Ties/isolates battery and generator buses
Bat bus or gen bus fails and bus tie open or failed, failed bus will not be powered
How is the brake system actuated and operated?
Are brakes associated with the A/Cs hydraulic system?
Brakes are mechanically actuated and hydraulically operated
INDEPENDENT of Aircraft hydraulic system
How are the front/rear brake pedals connected? Which cockpit takes priority for braking?
Front/rear cockpit pedals interconnected
Most pressure between cockpits determines brake force
How many master cylinders are associated with the brake system?
2 master cylinders provide independent braking from left/right rudder pedals
Hydraulic system engine driven pump capacity?
5 QT capacity
What is normal pressurization of the hydraulic system?
3,000 +/-120 PSI
What is the minimum PSI of the hydraulic system, and what does it power at that PSI?
At 1,800 psi, landing gear, main gear doors, flaps, speed brake, and NWS can be powered
HYDR FL LO means?
HYDR FL LO illuminates if reservoir is below 1 qt
What happens to the main HYD system when you pull the EMER extension handle?
Pulling emergency extension handle isolates main hydraulic system at the power pack and releases emergency accumulator pressure through independent emergency lines to extend gear and flaps
Amber EHYD PX LO
EHYD PX LO illuminates when emergency accumulator drops below 2400+/-150 psi - only indicator of E PSI
Initial actions when you see EHYD PX LO?
Slow leak can drain emergency system, but once EHYD PX LO lights up you can still deploy gear/flaps
What kind of landing gear system do we have? How is it actuated?
Retractable tricycle system actuated by hydraulics
What 3 situations will you hear the gear position warning sound?
Handle not down, below 120 KIAS and flaps up/TO
All gear not indicating down and locked with flaps LDG
Weight on wheels active with gear handle not down
What are the two ways we can maintain control using the brakes to taxi?
Differential steering through rudder/brakes or NWS (Free castors 150 degrees, 75 each way)
How are the wing flaps operated? How are they controlled? What kind of flaps do we have?
Hydraulically operated, electrically controlled, four-segment split flaps
What does normal pressure allow you to do with the flaps? What about emergency pressure?
Normal pressure used for extension/retraction
Emergency accumulator pressure for extension only
How is emergency flap extension done? Can you raise them?
Enabled by emergency gear extension handle is pulled
Cannot be retracted after extension
What deflection in degrees does flaps T/O, LDG, Speed brake give you?
23 degrees
50 degrees
70 degrees
How is the speed brake held or retracted?
Pressure in the actuator
What are the primary flight controls?
Ailerons, Elevator, Rudder
Aileron controls/description and deflection up/down
Ailerons, control sticks, push-pull rods, bellcranks
Interconnect tube between cockpits
20 degrees up, 11 degrees down
Statically mass-balanced with weights
Elevator controls/description and deflection up/down?
Elevator, control sticks, push-pull rods, downsprings, cables, bellcranks, bobweight
18 degrees up, 16 degrees down
Rudder controls/description and deflection left/right?
Rudder, rudder pedals, cables, pulleys, bellcrank, one push-pull rod and centering springs
24 degrees left / right
What are the secondary flight controls?
Rudder trim aid device (TAD)
Trim interrupt
Trim disconnect
What four inputs does the rudder trim tab position use?
Torque
Altitude
Airspeed
Pitch rate
When does the TAD continue inputs after takeoff?
Greater than 80 KIAS and NO weight on wheels
What does the trim interrupt button on the stick do?
Trim Interrupt Button on stick
Interrupts power to all trim actuators
Disengages TAD/switch - TAD OFF
What does the trim disconnect switch do ?
Trim Disconnect switch
Remove power from trim system
TRIM OFF / TAD OFF annunciators
How any pitot static systems are there and what does they provide?
2 independent systems to provide mach/airspeed, altitude, vertical speed indications
What does the secondary pitot system give pressure to?
EDM, STBY altimeter, STBY airspeed,
What does the air data computer (ADC) do? How is it powered?
Receives pitot/static inputs and develops airspeed, altitude, climb rate parameters for nav/flight instrument systems
Powered by avionics master switch ON
The Air Data Computer (ADC) provides air data outputs for what instruments/systems?
(not corrected for temp, position, instrument error)
ASI
Altimeter
VSI
TA/VSI
EFIS
ATC transponder
Overspeed warning system
TAD
TAS
PMU
GPS
AHRS
What are the 3 parts of the AOA system?
AOA vane, AOA computer, AOA gauges
What is MAX RANGE? Description, AOA, and symbol?
White triangle 4.9 (MAX RANGE)
Flying at max range yields the greatest flying DISTANCE per pound of fuel.
What is MAX ENDURANCE? Description, AOA, and symbol?
White diamond 8.8 (MAX ENDURANCE)
Flying at max endurance yields the greatest amount of TIME per pound of fuel
When do we STALL on the AOA gage? The RED range
18 units
Green arc range on the AOA gage?
10-11 AOA
What turns on the AOA indexer?
AOA indexer is on when landing gear is down and locked
What is the ejection seat rated for? (In FEET and KNOTS)
0/0 seat up to 35,000 feet up to approximately 370 KIAS
What are the ISS settings and what do they mean?
Solo (Commands own seat only)
No delay
Both (Either seat commands both)
0.37 second delay, rear before front
Regardless of front seat pin position
CMD FWD
Rear seat commands rear
Front commands both
When is the manual override (MOR) system used?
Manual override (MOR) system available to separate pilot/seat in case of failure or if desired above 8000 feet MSL
Normal separation between 14,000 - 16,000
When you eject, the CFS activates, what is the backup to this to shatter the canopy?
Ejection activates CFS, backed up with canopy breaker on seat to shatter canopy
When is the Emergency Oxygen system that is connected to the CRU-60 activated?
Automatically activated during ejection or during emergency ground egress
Emergency oxygen system PSI and how long in minutes?
How do you activate it?
1800-2500 psi charged cylinder supplies oxygen for approximately 10 minutes
Flows automatically during ejection or when green ring is pulled up
What provides heating and pressure for the environmental control system?
Engine Bleed Air
When can you use FRESH AIR ventilation? (Ram air flow)
Fresh air ventilation available during ground and non-pressurized flight
DUCT TEMP light
Greater than 300 F in ECS
What is on the BLEED AIR supply?
- Canopy Pressurization seal
- Anti-G
- Cockpit heating/defog
- Pressurization
- OBOGS
COPAD
What is the LEFT P3 bleed air port for?
OBOGS
Heat exchanger is used for:
OBOGS, anti-G and canopy seal
Approaching what altitude will the pressurization control valve close to maintain pressure?
8000 feet pressure altitude
How long is the 8000 ft cockpit altitude maintained until?
8000 foot cockpit altitude maintained until differential pressure of 3.6+/-0.2 psi reached at 18,069 feet
At 31,000 feet, what is the cockpit ALT?
At 31,000 feet, cockpit alt is 16,600
Amber CKPT ALT
Above 19,00 feet cockpit altitude
Red CKPT PX
If differential pressure exceeds 3.9-4.0 psi CKPT PX
Pressurization switch in NORM does what?
Pressurization is automatic
Pressurization switch in DUMP does what?
Removes power from dump solenoid, opens control valve
Bleed air inflow continues
Pressurization switch in RAM/DUMP does what?
Opens control valve
Opens fresh air valve
Closes defog
Bleed air inflow continues
Must select BLEED AIR INFLOW off
TAS settings: NORMAL, BELOW, ABOVE (the altitude ranges above/below)
Normal
2700 feet above/below
Below
2700 above, 8700 below
Above
8700 above, 2700 below
On-Board Oxygen Generating System (OBOGS):
Automatically regulated oxygen supply with slight positive pressure and no duration limitations
OBOGS TEMP annunciator
OBOGS TEMP if >200F
When in AUTO, what should the PMU terminate the start for?
In auto, PMU should terminate for hot/hung projected or no start detected
5 situations to MANUALLY abort a start
NO, HUNG, HOT, ST READY, BAT BUS
HOT START
ITT likely to exceed 1000C (hot)
ITT likely to remain 871-1000C more than 5 sec (hot)
HUNG START
Normal N1 increase halted (hung)
NO START
No rise of ITT within 10 seconds of fuel flow (no start)
2 conditions that are not hot/hung/no starts that you would abort the start
BAT BUS illuminates during start
PCL moved or ST READY annunciator extinguises during start sequence
2 ways to abort an engine start
PCL OFF or STARTER SWITCH AUTO/RESET
If you abort a start with external power can you restart?
If start accomplished with external power, do not reattempt start
Why would the PMU abort a start using the battery?
Battery starts may be aborted by PMU due to weak battery, high OAT, high pre-start ITT, high density altitude, tailwind
If you abort a battery start, can you try a subsequent restart?
If battery start aborted, connect external power and perform motoring run procedure
Land as soon as possible
Emergency shall be declared and landing accomplished at nearest suitable landing area
Land as soon as practical
Emergency conditions are less urgent and mission should be discontinued, degree of emergency is not serious enough that immediate landing is necessary
Land as soon as practical
Emergency conditions are less urgent and mission should be discontinued, degree of emergency is not serious enough that immediate landing is necessary
Suitable landing area
Hard surface runway, taxiway, or under/overrun. Landing on unprepared surface or ditching is not recommended
BAT BUS FAIL
What will you lose, what considerations must you account for?
- Plan to use landing gear emergency extension system (LDG GR control/indications inop)
Most notable failures will be EADI, GPS, AEDD, PRESSURIZATION
OIL PX, HYD FL LO annunciators
GEN BUS FAIL
What will you lose?
EHSI, Altimiter, ASI/TAS/VSI, RMU, Air conditioning, NWS, speed brake, etc
Hydraulic fail considerations:
What is not available?
At what PSI?
Normal operation of landing gear, flaps, speed brake and NWS unavail when HYDR FL LO illuminated, PX below 1800 psi, or rapidly decreasing to 0
How do you identify an AOA computer fail?
Failure indicated by AOA indexers not functioning with gear down
What do you do if stick shaker activates unexpectedly?
If stick shaker activates unexpectedly, crosscheck AOA and fly known pitch/power settings and airspeeds to recover
AOA computer fail: stick shaker
Stick shaker malfunctions do not always mean AOA indicator problem
General EP knowledge Ch 3
Maintain aircraft control, analyze the situation, take proper action and land as soon as conditions permit
Engine oil quantity limits
- Serviced within how long? And most accurate time to check?
Must be serviced within 30 minutes of engine shutdown
Most accurate, check 15-20 minutes after shutdown
Normal level for OIL
Between ADD and MAX HOT
If below ADD, then fill to MAX HOT
What do you use to check the oil level? And what can you not use to check oil?
Sight glass not for checking oil level, only dipstick
At what volts should you NOT do a battery start
Don’t attempt start if battery voltage below 23.5 VDC
What is the starter duty cycle? How many are we limited to and what are the cooling durations?
Starter duty cycle is limited to four 20-second cycles
First = motor 20, 30 second cooling
Second = motor 20 seconds then 2 minutes cooling
Third = motor 20 seconds, then 5 minutes cooling
Fourth = motor 20 seconds, then 30 minutes cooling
TORQUE operating limits
- Idle
- Takeoff/Max
- Transient
IDLE 1-10%
TAKEOFF/MAX 100%
TRANSIENT 101-107% 5 SECONDS
ITT operating limits
- Start
- Idle
- Takeoff/Max
- Transient
- START 871-1000 (5 SEC)
- IDLE 750 MAX
- TAKEOFF/MAX 820 MAX
- TRANSIENT 821-870 (20 SEC)
N1 % operating limits
- Idle (ground/flight)
- Takeoff/max
- Transient
- IDLE (GROUND) 60-61%
- IDLE (FLIGHT) 67%
- TAKEOFF/MAX 104% MAX
- TRANSIENT 104% MAX
NP % operating limits
- Idle
- Takeoff/max
- Transient
IDLE (GROUND) 46-50%
TAKEOFF/MAX 100%
TRANSIENT 110 (2 SECONDS)
OIL PX PSI operating limits
- Start
- Idle
- Takeoff/Max
- Transient (normal and spins/aero)
- START 200 MAX
- IDLE 90 MIN
- TAKEOFF/MAX 90-120
- TRANSIENT 40-130 (Spins/aerbatics),, 15-40 idle
OIL TEMP operating limits
- Start
- Idle
- Takeoff/max
- Transient
- START -40 MIN
- IDLE -40-105 (GROUND) 10-105 (FLIGHT)
- TAKEOFF/MAX 10-105
- TRANSIENT 106-110 (10 MINUTES)
Propellor limits: NP
- Idle
- Takeoff
- Transient
Np 46-50 (Idle),
100 (Takeoff),
110 transient (2 seconds)
Vmo
Vmo - maximum operation speed (316knots @ 18,769’, 244knots @ 31,000’)
MMO
Mmo - maximum mach number (0.67m)
Veg
Vg - Turbulent air penetration speed 195 KIAS, 180 recommended
Vo
Vo - 227 KIAS (maneuvering speed)
The speed above which full or abrupt control movements in one axis can result in structural damage
(Except rudder, above 150 KIAS exceeds limits)
0 g limit (how long?)
- What is the acceptable range for 0 g’s
5 seconds maximum
Over 5 seconds can cause engine damage and possible failure, regardless of oil px
0G may indicate +0.25G to -0.25G
Negative G limit; how long?
How long in between additional negative G’s?
Negative G’s limited to 60 seconds
Negative G maneuvers within 60 seconds followed by 60 seconds upright positive G before additional negative G maneuvers
How long can you be at -2.5 G’s?
Do not exceed -2.5G for more than 30 seconds
Prohibited maneuvers
Inverted stalls
Inverted spins
Aggravated spins past 2 turns
Spins with the PCL above idle
Spins with the landing gear, flaps, or speed brake extended
Spins with the PMU off
Spins below 10,000 feet pressure altitude
Spins above 22,000 feet pressure altitude
Abrupt cross-controlled (snap) maneuvers
Aerobatic maneuvers, spins, or stalls witha fuel imbalance greater than 50 pounds between wings
Tail slides
Acceleration limits (G limits)
-3.5 to 7.0 symmetric clean
0.0 to 2.5 symmetric configured
-1.0 to 4.7 asymmetric clean
0.0 to 2.0 asymmetric configured
Uncoordinated rolling maneuvers at -1g limited to
180-degree bank angle change
Max ramp weight
6550
Max takeoff weight
6500
Max landing weight
6500
Max zero fuel weight
5500
Max baggage weight
80 lbs
Max weight on glareshield
8.5 lbs
What MUST be off for takeoff/landing
Nose wheel steering
Canopy Defog
Max rate of descent at touchdown (Tires serviced to normal vs max pressure)
600 fpm (3.7G) @ 185+/-5 psi
780 fpm (5.1G) @ 225+/-5 psi
Max Crosswind limits (Dry/Wet/Icy/Tailwind)
Dry: 25 knots
Wet: 10 knots
Icy: 5 knots
Tailwind for takeoff: 10 knots
Barrier limits:
- Can you taxi over an arresting cable with main gear doors open?
- Takeoff/landing with arresting cables
No.
- Takeoff and land beyond arresting cables
Barrier limits:
Raised web barrier, what should you do?
Steer around the barrier or eject prior to engagement
Barrier limits:
- Taxi capability over raised arresting cables
Aircraft has a limited capability to taxi over raised arresting cables. Be as slow as possible.
AVOID main/nose gear contact with arresting cables support donuts (structural damage)
Enroute limits: ICING
Where is icing found? What should be ON?
Areas of visible moisture, make sure probes anti-ice switch is ON
What is our icing limitation ops limit?
Transit through 5,000 feet of light rime (Sustained operations are prohibited in icing)
What should you do at the first indication of icing?
Make sure probes is ON
First indication of icing, crew shall ascend or descend from the icing layer to sublimate or melt the ice accumulation from the aircraft
Aerobatics restriction after icing:
Aerobatics after icing encounter are prohibited until ice accumulations on the aircraft are melted/sublimated
Normal maneuvers with icing restrictions:
Maneuvers with ice restricted to 30 degrees bank, 0-2Gs normal acceleration, up to stall warning system activation
Ice accumulation for approach speed:
With ice accumulation, approach speed increases by 10 knots
Fuel limits:
Aerobatics are prohibited with what fuel amounts per side?
Aerobatics prohibited with indicated fuel quantities below 150 pounds per side
What is the max lateral fuel imbalance?
50 pounds
Engine operation with ONLY engine driven px fuel pump is how long?
Engine operation with only engine-driven pressure fuel pump without both electric boost pump and low pressure fuel pump is 10 hours
What is max fuel flow?
799 pounds per hour
What temperature range on the ground is operations limited to?
Ground operation limited to -23 to 43 C
Equipment cooling (cockpit sun shields) in direct sunlight 35C and above
> 15 minutes - close/not installed - open canopy 1 hr prior to eng start
15 minutes - closed/installed - open canopy for 15 minutes prior eng start
No limit - on prop strut/not installed - open canopy for 15 minutes prior eng start
No limit - on prop strut/installed - no limit
No limit - fully open/not installed - no limit
Cockpit pressurization schedule limit
Schedule limit 3.6 +/- 0.2 psi
Red CKPT PX
CKPT PX annunciator illuminates at 3.9-4.0 psi
When does the DeltaP turn red and when does the overpressurization valve open?
Cockpit deltaP display changes to red and overpressurization safety valve opens at 4.0 psi
What kind of runway surface are we limited to? What should we avoid?
Cleared to operate on hard surfaced runways (concrete, tarmac, or similar)
Avoid ditching in water or landing on unprepared surfaces if able
Opening the canopy wind limitations
Canopy shall not be opened on the ground when surface wind >40 knots
Ejection weight limitations WITHOUT gear
103-231 lbs
Ejection weight limitations WITH gear
131.8 - 279.4 pounds
When to use MOR handle, and what does the MOR handle do?
Ejecting over 8000 feet MSL, should use MOR to separate seat and deploy parachute
What does positively stable mean for the T-6?
Positive stability in all configurations throughout the flight envelope; this means that the aircraft will NATURALLY tend to return to its original flight attitude without pilot input
Reversible flight control system meaning
Reversible flight control means the aerodynamic forces are fed back to the pilot from the controls through push rods/cables/pulleys
As airspeed increases, the aircraft is more sensitive.
What 4 things impact your best GLIDE performance?
Airspeed
Configuration (LDG GR/FLAPS/Speed brake)
Angle of Bank
Coordinated vs uncoordinated flight
How can you optimize performance in your glide?
FEATHERED propeller and level wings in balanced/coordinated flight
Best glide Speed/VSI clean configuration
125 KIAS and 1350 Feet per minute
Best glide Speed/VSI with only landing gear down, flaps/speed brake retracted
105 KIAS and 1500 Feet per minute
How can you mimic a feather prop in a PEL? (Mimicking zero thrust power setting)
4-6% torque at glide speed
How many knots prior to stall does the artificial stick shaker activate? (What is the range?)
Minimum of 5 knots
5-10 knots prior to stall when in accelerated, power off conditions. (Margin increases with power on)
When does the natural stall warning occur?
And what are the characteristics of this natural stall warning?
3 knots prior to stall
Light aerodynamic buffet (power off stalls)
What is the earliest indication of an inadvertent stall?
Stick shaker
What are the characteristics of an upright, wings-level stall
Roll-off or wing-drop with buffet
What happens to flight controls during the approach to stall?
How is stall speed affected with power ON?
All flight controls remain effective in the normal sense throughout the approach to stall and stall.
Stall speed decreases with power on
Power off stall, lateral roll off during a wings level stall is typically in which direction?
And what control input does it happen near?
Power off, lateral roll-off during a wings-level stall is typically to the right, and occurs near aft full stick
What is the roll off tendency with greater than 60% TQ?
Above 60% torque, full right rudder and full right aileron may not prevent left roll-off at stall
What configuration has the greatest effect on stalls?
Extending FLAPS aggravates the roll off tendency at stall
These configurations/conditions has minimal effect on stall characteristics:
Landing gear position has little effect on stall characteristics
Speed brake extension or fuel imbalance (up to 50 lbs) have negligible effect on stall characteristics
Define Out Of Control Flight (OCF)
OCF = situation where aircraft does not respond immediately and in a normal sense to application of flight controls.
Seemingly random motion about one or more axes usually from a stall
Define Out Of Control Flight (OCF)
OCF = situation where aircraft does not respond immediately and in a normal sense to application of flight controls.
Seemingly random motion about one or more axes usuall
What are the three categories of OCF
Poststall gyrations, Incipient spins, Steady-State spins
Define Poststall Gyrations
motion of the aircraft about one or more axes immediately following a stall
Define Poststall Gyrations
motion of the aircraft about one or more axes immediately following stall
Define Incipient Spins
spin-like motion that occurs between poststall gyration and fully developed spin
Define Steady State Spins
control input does not have an immediate effect in that axis in the normal sense of the control.
FOR EXAMPLE: Right aileron input in a left spin will not arrest the roll rotation
4500 ft altitude loss for 6-turn spin
How can you identify a spiral?
Rolling or yawing motion of the aircraft often mistaken for spin, not steady-state in that airspeed is increasing through 160 KIAS and motions are oscillatory
How can a spiral occur? How do you recover?
Can occur from misapplication of pro-spin controls
Neutralize controls and PCL to idle
Reason for no spins below 10,000’ MSL
Prohibited due to high stresses on the propeller which occur during the spin maneuver with the propeller RPM below 80%
What does the PMU do to protect the propeller above 10,000 feet pressure altitude?
PMU artificially maintains propeller RPM at 80% with the PCL at idle when the aircraft is above 10,000 feet pressure altitude
Erect spin AOA, airspeed, time, alt loss per turn and altitude loss during an erect spin recovery
- 18+ AOA
- Stabilizes 120-135 KIAS
- 2-3 sec
- 400-500 ft per turn
500 feet for every turn of spin with additional 1500-2000 feet for a normal dive recovery
60 NL
Define an erect spin
Characterized by roll and yaw in the direction yaw is applied, resulting in a barrel roll maneuver to a near level attitude after completing the first turn
What is critical altitude? What altitude is this at in the T-6?
Altitude at which 100% torque is no longer available with the PCL MAX; approximately 16,000 Ft MSL on a standard day
What is RCR? (Runway condition reading)
is measure of the braking friction coefficient, RCR is given as a whole number
Values vary from 26 (max) to 2 (minimum brake friction coefficient)
RCR for
Dry
Wet
Icy
Dry - Good - 23
Wet - Medium - 12
Icy - Poor - 5
How does RCR affect TOLD?
Low RCR is bad runway condition so will negatively effect TOLD
How does Headwind affect told?
Headwind decreases takeoff roll and landing distance (good)
How does temperature affect told?
High temperatures will increase takeoff roll and landing distance (bad)
Cold WX is better
How does pressure altitude affect told?
Higher altitudes are LESS dense; as pressure altitude increases, the air is thinner which would require a longer takeoff roll and longer landing distance
Maximum braking speed definition and max energy absorption
Maximum speed from which the aircraft can be brought to a stop without exceeding the maximum design energy absorption capability of the brakes (3.96 million ft/lbs)
Definition and assumptions for maximum abort speed
Max abort speed is the max speed at which you can abort and stop the aircraft within the runway length
- 3 seconds reaction at abort to recognize/select idle power
- 3 seconds period to apply brakes after idle power
- Speed may increase up to 20 knots within those 6 seconds
Max range
level flight speed which yields the maximum value of nautical air miles per pound of fuel
Max endurance
minimum fuel flow in level flight
Long range cruise percent of max range
Yields 99% of maximum range
Calculations for max tq at 60 kts, max abort speed flaps t/o, takeoff distance flaps t/o, landing distance flaps up (A3-1,4,8) (A8-1)
TQ @ 60kts
Takeoff power
NP @ 100%
Max power within 3 seconds
Accurate by 60 KIAS
Landing distance assumptions
- 3-degree approach to the 50-foot obstacle height
- Idle power and threshold speed as determined by the chart at 50 feet
- 2-second delay from touchdown to braking
- Maximum braking obtained once the aircraft is firmly on the ground and continues to a full stop
- Braking friction coefficient for a dry asphalt or concrete runway corresponds to an RCR of 23
Taxi spacing restrictions
- Staggered?
- Trail?
Minimum 75 taxiing staggered and 150 feet in trail
Spacing may be reduced when holding short of or entering runway
When to use of visor, G-suit, and gloves
Visor will be down any time the canopy is closed
G-suit is anticipating more than 2-G’s in the sortie
Gloves from engine start to shutdown (recommended for walkaround)
Aircrews will wear a clear visor at night and is optional during low visibility
Reduction of risk of FOD during ground ops
- Not approach or allow others to approach operating engine
- Avoid using excessive power
- Avoid prop or jet blast from other aircraft
- Ensure loose items are secure in the cockpit before opening the canopy
- Not place objects on the canopy transparency in order to reduce the potential for damaging or scratching the canopy
Joker fuel
Joker fuel is a pre-briefed quantity above bingo at which separation, bug out, or event termination should begin and proceed with the remainder of the mission
Bingo fuel
a pre-briefed quantity that allows the aircraft to return to the base of intended landing or alternate (if required) using preplanned recovery parameters and arriving with normal recovery fuel
Normal recovery fuel
Normal recovery fuel is the fuel on initial or FAF at the base of intended landing or alternate (if required). This is the higher of what is established locally or 200 pounds
When to declare min/emer fuel
What is min fuel?
EMER fuel?
Declare min/emergency fuel to the controlling agency when it becomes apparent the fuel remaining at final touchdown will be less than the requirements stated in 3.3.1.4.1-2
Minimum fuel - 150 pounds (200 solo)
Emergency fuel - 100 pounds
When to use LDG FLAPS?
When is it discouraged?
LDG flap setting should be used for full-stop landings when the heavy weight flaps up landing distance is 80% of the actual field length or greater
LDG flaps are discouraged when crosswinds (steady state or gusts) exceed 10 knots
Low approach VS restricted low approach
Aircrew will not allow the aircraft to touch down when cleared low approach
Aircrew will not descend below 500 feet AGL when cleared restricted low approach
Min runway length normal and emergency length
4,000 feet minimum length or heavy weight flaps UP landing distance plus 500 feet, whichever is greater for normal operations (takeoff, landing, touch and go)
75 feet wide
Emergency situations, pilots should consider all factors (winds, runway condition and environment, aircraft energy state, emergency response availability) that could affect ability to recover safely to an airfield less than the above requirements
Wx requirements for maneuvering in a MOA
Clear of clouds
3 miles vis
Discernable horizon
Wx clearance during OCF
Minimum 7,000 feet above the clouds
13,500 entry altitude
Stop spin 10,000 or above
Minimum altitudes for aerobatics
Aerobatics, unusual attitudes, abnormal flight recoveries, lost wingman, extended trail, stalls, and slow flight above 6,000 feet AGL
Minimum altitudes for ENROUTE while SOLO
Except while in the traffic pattern or during departure/recovery, minimum enroute and area altitude for a solo student is 5,000 feet AGL
Minimum altitude for VFR non local point to point navigation
Min altitude for VFR non-local point-to-point navigation missions is 3,000 feet AGL
Minimum altitude to SLIP for training
300 feet AGL
Dual only maneuvers
Dual only maneuvers:
Rolling t/o
Stalls
Slow flight
Stability demonstration
Contact recoveries
Intentional spin entry
Simulated emergency procedures (ELP, no flap)
Straight-in approaches
Low-closed patterns
Uncontrolled airfield operations
GPS WX for non precision approaches
Due to KLN-900 limitations, only accomplish RNP APCH (RNAV) procedures or any RNAV sections of conventional approach in day VMC
GPS Database currency requirements
Will not use GPS as primary source of IFR navigation with an expired database
What MUST you check to use GPS as a primary source of IFR navigation?
Check Fault Detection and Exclusion (FDE) before using GPS as a primary source of IFR navigation
If you lose FDE on the GPS can you continue to use it for navigation?
Loss of FDE constitutes unacceptable degradation of system performance
Per 11-202v3, ensure FDE indicates YES before using GPS as primary source of IFR navigation within NAS
RNAV SID/STAR limitations
Aircrews will NOT fly SIDs, STARs, DPs, with RNAV in the title
Uncontrolled Airfield Operations
Max aircraft in pattern
Aircrews will not operate within an uncontrolled airfield pattern with more than four aircraft (total), military and/or civilian, present in the pattern at any time
Uncontrolled airfield operations: What can you fly at uncontrolled airfields?
Instrument approaches, overheads, rectangular patterns, and ELPs may be flown.
Uncontrolled airfield operation turn direction
LEFT turns
Can you fly overhead patterns with civilian aircraft in the pattern?
Will NOT fly overhead patterns with civilian aircraft in the pattern
Max airspeed at an NTA
Maintain 200 KIAS or less for pattern and approach operations within 1,500 feet AGL and 3nm of an uncontrolled field
High surface wind restriction over land (steady state surface winds)
Will not conduct flights over land within their training, or operating areas when steady state surface winds (forecast or actual) exceed 35 knots
What is the OG High Swell restriction
Requires OG/CC approval to fly over water where forecast or actual wave heights exceed 10 feet
When solo with an engine malfunction; you should
With engine malfunction (still running), solo student should fly PEL
When solo with an engine failure; you should
With an engine failure, serious consideration should be given to ejection.
Student may attempt a forced landing with a minimum landing distance available of 4,000 feet or heavy weight flaps up landing distance plus 500 feet, whichever is greater
Tire wear criteria: Any sortie can’t have
RED cord
Tire wear criteria for an out and back
Do NOT accept with more than 3 cords for out and back
Tire wear criteria for cross-country
Don’t accept aircraft with more than 2 cords for XC
Tire wear criteria for nose tire
Wear limit on nose tire is tread remaining
Ejection seat pins installed by when
After landing, pilots will insert their ejection seat pins after clearing the runway, and prior to taxiing onto the parallel runway.
Ejection seat handles will have pins fully inserted at all times the aircraft is under a covered area
Contact MOAs
Contact - 1, 2, 6, 7, 9 and 10
Instrument MOAs
Instrument - 3, 4, and 5 instrument east, 9 and 10 instrument west
Formation MOAs
Formation - 3, 4, and 5
MOA altitudes based on altimeter setting
Low 7-12k, high 15-22k
28.92-29.41 high capped at 21,000
29.42-29.91 high capped at 21,500
When can you proceed direct to lateral confines
On the PIIPE ROUTE beyond 15 DME or established on the FORDE and level at 13,000 feet, may proceed direct to the lateral limits of the assigned area
Expected recovery altitude at OTULE (High/Low)
Unless otherwise directed, be at 6,000 feet (low) or 14,000 feet (high) prior to exiting the lateral confines of the area
Pattern priorities
- Emergencies
- Min fuel
- Formation
- Radar entries
- Established in the pattern
- VFR entries
Communication priorities
- Safety of flight, deconfliction/aircraft separation, or emergency
- Clearances/cancellation or acknowledgements (takeoff, restricted low approach, cleared straight in)
- Gear calls
- Position reports
- Requests
When to turn crosswind Table
- Depature leg - NET ½ mile past DER, NLT 1 mile past DER
- Straight-through initial - NET DER, NLT DER
- Offset - NET DER, NLT ½ mile past DER
- Center Runway Departure - NET cleared, NLT Breakout point & cleared (3 DME 13, 4 DME 31)
Don’t breakout when:
Do not breakout - initiate go around and offset if necessary
Restricted Patterns
Final turn
Inside low key
Inside 2nm straight-in
Do not break when
Traffic conflict on high, closed, low closed, inside downwind
Aircraft between 5 and 2 miles straight in
Aircraft between “report high key” and low key
Aircraft orbiting high key
Don’t request closed
Traffic between 2-mile initial and the break
Between 5 and 2 miles on straight in
Between initial and halfway between high key and low key
Taxi right of way when exiting the runway and an aircraft is taxing on the taxiway Golf
Aircraft exiting the runway shall give way to aircraft taxiing on thel taxiway Golf
Who has right of way when an aircraft is returning to parking vs an aircraft taxing for departure out of the ramp
Aircraft on the parallel taxiway returning to parking shall give way to aircraft taxiing for departure out of the ramp
Aircraft on taxiway alpha limitations
No more than 6 T-38 or combination of 4 T-6/T-1 between 13R and 13C at Alpha
Aircraft taxiing to RWY 13C holding short 13R will utilize 3 parking spots painted on the outside (northern) of taxiway alpha between the parallel and rwy 13R
What to do if unable to maintain VMC in the MOA
If unable to maintain 3 SM visibility and clear of clouds, advise ATC
Standard IFR separation provided until pilot advises 3 SM visibility and clear of clouds can be maintained
Reduced Same Runway Separation:
When is 3000 feet separation allowed?
When alternate runway side procedures are used or both formation aircraft are on the cold side of the RWY
Reduced same runway separation:
if the aircraft is a formation what separation is required?
6000 feet
Reduced same runway separation:
What separation is required when alternate runway side procedures is not used?
6000 feet
What runway separation is required during night operations?
6000 feet
Who is responsible for completion of all checklists?
What must be done regardless of how the checklist is accomplished?
The pilot flying (PF)
Positively confirm completion of all checklists regardless of how they are accomplished
How do you perform a “Breakpoint straight through”?
When do you turn CW?
Continue straight through break zone at pattern altitude and 200 KIAS
Radio call: Devil xx “Breakpoint straight through”
Turn crosswind at DER
How do you perform a breakout?
Add power to MAX/as required
Raise gear/flaps, confirm UP
Level off at breakout altitude 2600/2500. Fly toward VFR entry
Clear pattern ground track then descend and maneuver to VFR entry. Enter VFR entry at pattern altitude
How do you perform a Go-Around ABOVE 500 feet?
PCL - As required
Raise gear/flaps and accelerate to 200 KIAS
Continue descent to 500ft AGL
How do you perform a Go-Around at or below 500 feet AGL?
PCL - As required
Raise gear/flaps when certain A/C will not touch down and confirm positive climb
Climb to 500 AGL
How do you perform a Go-Around in the landing phase?
PCL - MAX
Maintain landing attitude - DONT over rotate
Raise gear once climbing
Clear runway and OFFSET of necessary to avoid overflying aircraft (approx 20 degree offset)
Climb to 500 feet AGL
What is ORM-321 and when does it apply/allow you to do?
Applies to a Forced Landing (FL), actual engine out scenario
Will not descend below 2000 feet AGL unless you are:
- On profile
- Runway in sight
- Position to safely Manuever to land
- 300 feet agl final decision to continue or eject
- 200 feet agl gear down and locked
- 100 feet agl aircraft on centerline
When/how to zoom/glide?
- Above 150 KIAS, initiate a zoom climb using 2G pullup to 20 degree NH
- Zoom until 20 knots above glide speed (145) then lower the nose to maintain desired glide speed
- TCCC for any engine-related malfunction
What can you use for distance calculations?
VFR map, NAVAIDs, GPS airfield waypoints to determine distance
What is the 1/2 DME method + key mean?
Half the distance to the field, plus 3000 feet (high key) or 1500 feet (low key) to determine necessary altitude to be on profile
High Key (altitude/speed/spacing)
- If on profile at/prior HK: lower gear
- Usually 1/3 down runway; 30 AOB
- 2500-3000 ft AGL, 120 knots
Cross key (altitude/spacing/speed)
2200-2300 ft AGL, 120 knots, gr down, perpendicular to RWY
Low Key (altitude/spacing/speeds)
- 1500 ft AGL, 120 knots, gr down, flaps takeoff (as long as on profile),
- abeam your intended point of touchdown.
- LDG flaps as rqrd
Base key (Altitude/spacing/speed)
Base key, 600-800 feet AGL, 120 knots, gear down, flaps LDG as required
ELP FINAL (airspeed, configuration, aim point, landing distance?)
Final, 110 knots, gear down, flaps LDG as required,
1,000 minimum final aim point (keep nose down)
Land first ⅓ of runway
How to correct if you are high on energy during an ELP
High energy:
Correct with power reduction, modify ground track, slip, add drag
How to correct if you are low on energy in an ELP
Low energy:
- Use power to correct for low-energy state as soon as it is recognized.
- After correcting back to profile, reset 4-6% torque
What is required prior to stalls or spins?
Accomplish pre-spin check (CLEF) and adhere to 11-2T-6v3 limitations (13,500 feet min, 7,000 above clouds
What should you do before TP stalls?
Check handle down, 3 green, flaps ____
“Devil xx, base gear”
When can a destination be filed to
- Weather from 1 hr prior to 1 hr after ETA forecast at or above the lowest compatible published approach minimums
- TEMPO may be below lowest compatible mins
When is an alternate required?
- No compatible instrument approach procedure available at field
- Weather forecast +/-1 hr from ETA, including tempo, below:
- Ceiling of 2,000 feet and 3 SM visibility - Forecast crosswinds outside aircraft limits
PIC consider following additional factors:
All approaches require GPS or radar
Req NAVAIDs unmonitored
Destination has no weather reporting capability
Airfield’s lowest compatible mins are greater than or equal to 1,500 foot ceiling or 3 SM visibility
What disqualifies an alternate?
- All compatible approaches require an unmonitored NAVAID
- Airfield does not report weather observations
- Alternate not authorized on all compatible approaches (ANA)
- Any other note disqualifying the airfield or the approaches, in the “A IFR Alternate Minimums” section
- Regardless of WX, if RVSM is required to reach alternate it is also disqualified
For selection of an alternate: Do not depart IFR unless the prevailing weather at the alternate is +/- 1 hour of arrival INCLUDING TEMPO (except Thunderstorms, rain/snow showers):
- A ceiling of 1000 ft, or 500 ft above the lowest compatible approach mins
- Visibility of 2 statue miles or 1 statue miles above lowest compatible approach mins
If there is NO compatible instrument approach available at the alternate; can you go there?
YES, as long as +/-1hr of arrival INCLUDING TEMPO you can maintain VFR from Enroute->Descent->Approach/Landing under basic VFR
Control and performance method:
Controlling pitch and power to achieve desired performance:
- Establish known pitch and power settings
- Trim aircraft until pressures are normalized
- Cross-check performance instruments to determine if pitch/power is correct
- Adjust pitch and power on control instruments as necessary
ILS usable range
25 NM within 10 degrees of front course centerline
17 NM within 10-35 degrees
10 NM outside 10 degrees
Localizer vs LDA
Localizer final approach track required by U.S. TERPS to be within 3 degrees of runway centerline
Localizer offset more than 3 degrees from runway centerline is considered a Localizer type Directional Aid (LDA)
NAVAID station passage: how do you know?
Station passage occurs when the range the TO-FROM indicator makes the first positive change indicating FROM
Established for an ILS/LOC
Full-scale deflection
2 dots
Established for a VOR/RNAV/ non precision approach
Half-scale deflection
1 dot
Established for a VOR/RNAV/ non precision approach
Half-scale deflection
1 dot
Aircraft is not “established on track” until what for a NDB
Within +/- 5 degrees of the required bearing for NDB
How do you calculate aircraft approach category?
Stall speed (Vso) multiplied by 1.3
What is aircraft approach category speed ranges for ABCDEH?
A > 91 knots
B 91 - 120 knots
C 121 - 140 knots
D 141 - 165 knots
E 166 knots or more
H Helicopter
Can you begin a descent if the WX at the destination is below approach minimums
NO
What visibility do you use for straight ins or sidestep approaches
Prevailing visibility or RVR (found immediately following the DA, DH, or MDA)
What WX should you use for circling approach?
Ceiling and visibility in parentheses
If the reported weather decreases below lowest approach mins after beginning a descent, or receiving vectors, or established; can you continue the approach? If so, what do you need?
Yes you may continue as long as the appropriate MAP and a landing may be accomplished if all criteria for landing are met
What is required prior to beginning your initial descent?
- Review instrument approach and weather,
- Check heading/attitude systems
- Coordinate lost comm procedures
ADRWHOS
Required NTA position reports
- Departing FAF inbound
- Established on final approach (or being released from ATC)
- Completion/termination of the approach
- Executing missed approach procedure
Use “5 miles south” INSTEAD of “Local waypoints: TONNR”
Equipment required for an approach:
What does a / mean
A slash / means that more than one type of equipment may be required to execute the final approach
What does a note required like RADAR REQUIRED indicate?
Equipment that is required to transition from the en route environment to the instrument procedure
Procedure turn methods
- 45/180
- 80/260
- Race track pattern
- Teardrop
When not to fly the Procedure Turn
- Cleared for straight-in
- The symbol “NoPT”
- Established on the inbound course and cleared for the approach
- A radar vector to the final approach course
- Conducting a final timed approach
SNERT
What is a HILPT depicted as?
BOLD black racetrack on plate
What is runway environment?
- The runway or runway markings
- Runway end identifier lights
- Runway lights
- Visual glide slope indicator
- Threshold, markings or lights
- Touchdown zone markings or lights
- Approach lighting system
What is runway environment?
- The runway or runway markings
- Runway end identifier lights
- Runway lights
- Visual glide slope indicator
- Threshold, markings or lights
- Touchdown zone markings or lights
- Approach lighting system
When can you descend below 100 ft above the TDZE using the approach lights?
When red terminating bars or red side bars are visible
What is a VDP and how do you calculate one?
Visual descent point (VDP) is a defined point on the final approach (non-precision) from which a stabilized descent from MDA to runway may be commenced
GUS wears a HAT (HAT/GS*100)
DA vs MDA
Decision altitude is an altitude on an approach at which the pilot decides whether to continue the approach or initiate an immediate missed approach (if required visual references are not met)
Minimum descent altitude is the lowest altitude in feet when a descent is authorized on final approach
A missed approach is required when:
Aircrew will NOT descend below MDA, DA, DH until sufficient visual references with the runway environment are in sight and the aircraft is in a safe position to land.
