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Family Nurse Practitioner (FNP) flashcards
1
Q

What does the McMurray test assess for?

A

Meniscal tear

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2
Q

What does the Talar tilt assess for?

A

Ankle instability

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3
Q

What does the Tinel’s sign assess for?

A

Carpal tunnel syndrome

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4
Q

What does the Lachman test assess for?

A

ACL tear

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5
Q

What does the straight leg test assess for?

A

Lumbar nerve root compression

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6
Q

What does the Spurling test assess for?

A

Cervical nerve root compression

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7
Q

What does the drop arm test assess for?

A

Rotator cuff evaluation

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8
Q

What does the Finkelstein’s test assess for?

A

DeQuervain’s tenosynovitis

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9
Q

How do you treat complicated gc (Fitz-Hugh-Curtis)?

A

Ceftriaxone 500mg IM
Doxycycline 100mg BID x14 days
& Metronidazole 500mg BID x 14 days

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10
Q

What do you treat a pregnant patient with confirmed gonorrheal and chlamydial?

A

Ceftriaxone 500mg IM x1
Azithromycin 1g PO x1

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11
Q

What do you treat an 18yo F with papules and pustules on forehead and chin with no improvement with medicated soap or OTC abx gels?

A

Tetracycline

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12
Q

Which organisms can cause CAP?

A

H. Influenzae
Mycoplasma pneumoniae
Streptococcus pneumoniae

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13
Q

What would you treat a 9yo with impetigo?

A

Mupirocin (preferred)
Amoxicillin
Dicloxacillin

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14
Q

Which antibiotic drug class puts patients at risk for Achilles tendon rupture?

A

Quinolones

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15
Q

Which SSRI is most likely to cause ED?

A

Paroxetine (Paxil)

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16
Q

Treatment for HSV

A

Acyclovir

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17
Q

Bacterial pneumonia is most commonly caused by:

A

Streptococcus pneumonia

Others include: H flu
Chlamydia pneumoniae
Mycoplasma pneumoniae
Legionella pneumophila

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18
Q

What’s the difference between anti-HBc and anti-HBs?

A

+ anti-HBc: immune from having Hep B
+ anti-HBs: immune from vaccine
- anti-HBc: not immune, never had it
- anti-HBs: never received immunity from vaccine

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19
Q

A loud blowing, high pitch murmur heard at the apex of the heart radiating to the axilla?

A

Mitral regurgitation

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20
Q

A harsh, noisy murmur heard best at the right side of the sternum?

A

Aortic stenosis

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21
Q

A low pitched diastolic rumbling murmur

A

Mitral stenosis

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22
Q

A blowing high pitched murmur heard at the right side of the sternum

A

Aortic regurgitation

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23
Q

Deep palpitation of lower left quadrant is called _________

A

Roving’s sign

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24
Q

Raise heels and drop them suddenly

A

Markle test

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25
Q

Positive when pt experiences abdominal pain while flexing the hip and knee.

A

Psoas test

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26
Q

A positive Homan’s sign (calf pain when foot of affected limb is dorsiflexed)

A

DVT

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27
Q

What is the first line treatment for polymyalgia rheumatica (PMR)?

A

Oral prednisone

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28
Q

Which antibiotic should be given for an infected cat or dog bite?

A

Amoxicillin-clavulanate

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29
Q

If a patient is bitten by an animal how long since their last tetanus shot should they receive another one?

A

If it’s been >5years

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30
Q

In a patient with kidney disease which lab should be monitored when starting on an ACE inhibitor?

A

Potassium

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31
Q

Contraindications for hormonal contraception include:

A

Smoking, migraines, obesity >35yo
Thromboembolic, HTN, or vascular disease >35yo
Lupus, nephritis, CAD, stroke, CHF, hypertriglyceridemia

Breastfeeding (can use progestin only)

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32
Q

Treatment for uncomplicated chlamydia:

A

1 dose Azithromycin 1g PO observed or Doxycycline

33
Q

How do you treat cluster headaches?

A

12L oxygen 100%
And intranasal lidocaine 4%

34
Q

How to treat tension headaches

A

Acetaminophen or NSAIDs

35
Q

How to treat migraine headaches

A

Ice pack to forehead and placed in a dark room

36
Q

What is the classic triad of preeclampsia?

A

HTN
Proteinuria
Edema (weight gain)

37
Q

An infant with a long narrow face, prominent forehead and chin and large ears describes which genetic disorder?

A

Fragile X

38
Q

Which vaccine is contradicted in individuals with HIV or AIDS?

A

Varicella

39
Q

An elderly patient with complicated UTI should be treated with:

A

5-7 days of Levofloxacin 750mg QD

40
Q

What are Heberdens nodes?

A

Nontender nodes located on the distal interphalangeal joints caused by Osteoarthritis

41
Q

What are Bouchard’s nodes?

A

Enlargement of the middle joint of the fingers

42
Q

First line treatment for an infant with pertussis?

A

Macrolides (Azithromycin, Clarithrimycin, Erythromycin)

43
Q

Which antibiotic is given for strep throat and otitis media?

A

Penicillins

44
Q

Cephalosporins are given for what type of bacteria?

A

Gram-positive cocci: Staphylococcus aureus is a gram-positive, catalase-positive, coagulase-positive cocci in clusters.

45
Q

Gram positive Staph Aureus causes what type of infections?

A

S. aureus can cause inflammatory diseases, including skin infections, pneumonia, endocarditis, septic arthritis, osteomyelitis, and abscesses.

46
Q

What type of infections do gram-negative bacteria cause?

A

Gram-negative bacteria cause infections including pneumonia, bloodstream infections, wound or surgical site infections, and meningitis in healthcare settings. Gram-negative bacteria are resistant to multiple drugs and are increasingly resistant to most available antibiotics.

47
Q

Complicated UTI is usually treated by what class of antibiotics?

A

Quinolones: ciprofloxacin, levofloxacin

48
Q

What is the initial treatment given for mild allergic conjunctivitis?

A

Topical antihistamines/mast stabilizers

49
Q

Steroid creams range in potency from group ___ (least potent) to group _____ (most potent).

A

7, 1

50
Q

Which test should initially be ordered when suspecting syphilis?

A

Rapid plasma reagin test

51
Q

What is a highly sensitive test for both gonorrhea and chlamydia?

A

Nucleic acid amplification test (NAAT)

52
Q

Which condition will the nurse practitioner monitor for when prescribing an elderly patient nifedipine or hydrochlorothiazide?

A

Acquired neutropenia due to bone marrow suppression and blocking the activation of neutrophils

53
Q

A patient has a history of cluster headaches. What should the nurse practitioner prescribe prophylactically?

A

Verapamil PO daily

(This is a calcium channel blocker usually prescribed for hypertension and angina. However, it is also first-line treatment for prophylaxis of migraines and cluster headaches.)

54
Q

At what age should a healthy, full-term infant be screened for anemia?

A

9-12 mos

55
Q

The nurse practitioner is assessing a 56-year-old patient and notes diffuse hyperpigmented lesions on the trunk back, abdomen, chest, and arms. What is the probable diagnosis and what will the nurse practitioner do next?

A

Pityriasis versicolor
The NP will first take skin scraping’s and do a KOH prep wet mount. If this shows short hyphae and budding cells the NP will prescribe oral fluconazole (Diflucan)

56
Q

Which test will the nurse practitioner order for symptoms of chronic prostatitis?

A

Meares-Stamey 2-glass test

57
Q

If a patient is over 40 years old and has a history of normal lipid screenings how often should they be done?

A

Every 2-3 years

58
Q

What is a normal lipid panel?

A

Cholesterol <200
LDL 60-130
HDL >60
Triglycerides <150

59
Q

First line therapy for Rocky Mountain spotted fever?

A

Doxycycline BID x 10 days

60
Q

When would you prescribe Rifampin?

A

If patient had close contact with a person diagnosed with meningococcemia

61
Q

Phalen test

A

Carpal tunnel- pushes hands back for one minute to assess burning/tingling/numbness in the median nerve

62
Q

First line treatment for CAP?

A

Doxycycline or Amoxicillin

63
Q

T/F
Floriquinolones can only be used in patients >18yo

A

True

64
Q

What treats UTI and strep throat when other meds cannot be used?

A

Levofloxacin

65
Q

What is used to tx pelvic inflammatory disease?

A

Ceftriaxone
+
Doxycycline
+
Metronidazole

66
Q

What is 1st line treatment for a 45 yo F with syphillis?

If allergic?

A

Penicillin IM

(If allergic: Doxycycline PO)

67
Q

Which genital warts tx can be used for pregnant women?

A

Trichloroacetic acid (TCA)

68
Q

Which topical tx option for external genital warts SHOULD NOT be used in pregnancy?

A

Imiquimod cream

69
Q

What is a drug that is a controller preventative therapy for migraine headaches?

A

Topiramate

70
Q

Positive anterior drawer test indicates

A

Anterior cruciate ligament is not intact

71
Q

How do you treat chlamydia?

A

A single dose of azithromycin or taking doxycycline twice daily for 7 to 14 days

72
Q

What is ptosis?

A

Drooping of the upper eyelid

73
Q

What is myosis?

A

A constricted pupil

74
Q

What characterizes a tension type headache?

A

A band squeezing the head

75
Q

What characterizes cluster headache?

A

Pain in and around one eye

76
Q

What characterizes migraine headache?

A

One sided pain, nausea, and visual changes

77
Q

How do you treat hypothyroidism?

A

Synthetic/levothyroxine

78
Q

How to treat HYPERthyroid?

A

Beta blocker (tremor/tachycardia)
Methimazole/PTU (reduced thyroxine production)
Once euthyroid, thyroid ablation via radioactive iodine

FNP Boards (9 decks)

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