1 Flashcards

1
Q

example of inherent risk an auditor should consider

A

technological developments that may render inventory obsolete.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

inherent risk definition

A

RMM before consideration of any related controls. External circumstances that influence business risks may also affect inherent risks such as technological developments.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

safeguarding inventory

A

periodic reconciliation of detailed inventory records w/ actual inventory on hand by taking a physical count.
This will make shortages obvious. Also, employees aware that a count will be conducted may reduce the occurrence of fraud relating to inventory.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Examples of entity level controls for an issuer

A

controls over the period-end financial reporting process
the company’s risk assessment process
controls over mgmt override

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Review engagement (SSARS’s)

A

A review provides an accountant w/ a basis for expressing limited assurance on the f/s
An accountant will perform some analytical procedures and inquiries.
An accountant is not required to understand IC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

An auditor would most likely be concerned w/IC structure policies and procedures that provide reasonable assurance about the

A

Entity’s ability to process and summarize financial data.

An auditor is primarily concerned w/IC that provide reasonable assurance as tan an entity’s ability to prepare f/s. Because of that, they want to make sure then entity is able to process and summarize financial data.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Integrated data check

A

Most likely refers to the type of test performed using an integrated test facility. This test involves the insertion of fictitious records into a fictitious division, branch, supplier, etc into the master files. Testing can be performed w/o the knowledge of the company employees, as dummy and actual records are processed concurrently. The test is performed, however, at specific points in time. It does not enable continous monitoring and testing of the client’s computerized information system.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Test Data generator

A

Creates test data based on program specifications. The test data can then be used to test the client’s program. Test data would typically include valid and invalid data. Test data enables testing of the client’s program at specific points in time. They do not enable continuous monitoring and testing of the client’s computerized info systems.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Embedded audit module

A

is a program inserted into the clients system to capture designated transactions, such as large or unusual transactions, for later review by the auditor. It enables the auditor to continuously test the client’s computerized information systems.

Embedded - it is embedded into the client system.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Snapshot application

A

takes pictures of the client’s master file record before and after processing. It reviews the way transactions are processed. It does not enable continuous monitoring and testing of the client’s computerized info systems.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

small business has AR clerk that approves credit memos and has access to cash. What is the most effective control to offset this weakenss?

A

The owner reviews credit memos after they are recorded.

By the owner checking the credit memos it keeps the AR clerk honest, by not keeping the cash when rec’d and fraudulently issuing a credit memo to cover the theft of cash. When reviewing the credit memo the owner would expect to see a receiving report for sales returns for items the customer presumably returned.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

An auditor assessed CR too low and decreased substantive testing. This assessment occurred bc the true deviation rate (error rate) in the population was

A

More than the deviation rate in the auditor’s sample.

When the true deviation rate in the population exceeds that in the sample the auditor may assess CR too low.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Financial expert in an audit committee has these acquired attributes

A

experience as a principal financial or acctg officer, controller, public acct, or auditor.

actively supervising a principal financial officer or principal acctg officer

assessing the performance of public accts w/ respect to preparation, auditing, or evaluation of f/s

must be independent

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

An auditor would be led to believe that material misstmts may exist in an entity’s f/s because

A

AR confirmations requests yield significantly fewer responses than expected.

It may indicate fictitious accounts and cause for an auditor to believe that material misstmts may exist in the f/s

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

when updating a PR system from time cards to a computerized system

A

part of the audit trail is altered.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Compiling f/s (SSARS’s)

A

THE SSARS’s do not require that compilation report be printed on the accountant’s letterhead or that the report be manually signed by the accountant

17
Q

likelihood of loss and the potential amount involved w/ a material weakness

A

the likelihood of loss is reasonably possible when the potential amount involved is material.

The professional stds indicate that a material weakness has more than a reasonable possibility of resulting in a material weakness

18
Q

sufficient evidence

A

refers to the qty of evidence required
It is directly related to the risk of misstatement (the greater the risk, the more evidence is needed), and inversely related to the quality, the less evidence is needed.

19
Q

appropriate evidence

A

refers to the relevance and reliability of evidence.

  1. the most reliable evidence is obtained directly from the auditor. .
  2. 2nd most reliable is evidence obtained from independent outside sources.
20
Q

Stated Control Objective (PCAOB)

A

In the context of an engagement to report on whether a material weakness continues to exist is the specific control objective identified by management that if achieved, would result in the material weakness no longer existing.

21
Q

Statistical sample for attributes example

A

sample dev rate = 6%
tolerable rate = 7%
Pop dev rate = 5%
allowance for sampling risk = 2%

Modify the planned assessed level of control bc the sample deviation rate plus the allowance for sampling risk exceeds the tolerable rate.
6 + 2 = 8 > 7

22
Q

A change in accounting principle that materially affects the comparability of the comparative f/s presented and the auditor CONCURS w/the change:

A

The only requirement that must be met is to refer to the change in an emphasis of matter paragraph following an otherwise unmodified opinion.

23
Q

Sequential sampling

A

results in the selection of a sample in several steps, w/each step conditional on the result of the previous steps. Therefore, sample size will vary depending on the number of stages that prove necessary.

24
Q

First step in a Review under SSARS’s

A

Obtain a general understanding of the entity’s organizations, its operating characteristics, and its products or services.