070.02 Special Operational Procedures and Hazards (General Aspects)

Question 1

The maximum validity of a SNOWTAM is (…)​ hours.

Answer 1

The maximum validity of a SNOWTAM is (8) hours.

- 24 hours if 8 not mentioned in anwers -

Question 2

A Class A fire concerns (…)​. State which of the following can be used to extinguish it:

Water Fire Extinguishers

Foam -

Dry powder -

CO2/Halon -

Wet chemical -

Answer 2

A Class A fire concerns (solids). State which of the following can be used to extinguish it:

Water Fire Extinguishers

Foam -

Dry powder -

CO2/Halon - (limited)

Wet chemical -

Question 3

A Class D fire concerns (…)​. State which of the following can be used to extinguish it:

Water Fire Extinguishers

Foam -

Dry powder -

CO2/Halon -

Wet chemical -

Answer 3

A Class D fire concerns (metals). State which of the following can be used to extinguish it:

Water Fire Extinguishers

Foam -

Dry powder -

CO2/Halon -

Wet chemical -

Question 4

The minimum time for wake turbulence separation for a LIGHT aircraft landing behind a MEDIUM is (…)​ minutes.

Answer 4

The minimum time for wake turbulence separation for a LIGHT aircraft landing behind a MEDIUM is (3) minutes.

Question 5

Information related to the use of MEL and CDL can be found in Part (A/B/C/D)​ of the OPS manual.

Answer 5

Information related to the use of MEL and CDL can be found in Part (A) of the OPS manual.

- The MEL and CDL itself in B -

Question 6

A Class F fire concerns (…)​. State which of the following can be used to extinguish it:

• Water Fire Extinguishers
• Foam -
• Dry powder -
• CO₂/Halon -
• Wet chemical -

Answer 6

A Class F fire concerns (cooing oil & fat).

State which of the following can be used to extinguish it:

• Water Fire Extinguishers
• Foam -
• Dry powder -
• CO₂/Halon -
• Wet chemical -

Question 7

State the formula to calculate hydroplaning speed for landing (dynamic)

Answer 7

Hydroplaning speed [kts] = 7.7 • sqrt (pressure [psi] )

Question 8

Concerning the transport of dangerous goods, at least (1/2/3/4) pieces of the dangerous goods transport document, including copies, must be retained in the aircraft and on the ground.

Answer 8

Concerning the transport of dangerous goods, at least (2) pieces of the dangerous goods transport document, including copies, must be retained in the aircraft and on the ground.

Question 9

In a SNOWTAM the uncleared part of a contaminated runway is reported (by a four figure group added to item D, which gives the length in meters / in plain language at item T (the final paragraph) ).

Answer 9

In a SNOWTAM the uncleared part of a contaminated runway is reported (in plain language at item T (the final paragraph) ).

Question 10

An acceptable timescale for submitting the amended MEL to the competent authority is (15/30/60/90) ​days from the effective date specified in the approved change to the MMEL.

Answer 10

An acceptable timescale for submitting the amended MEL to the competent authority is (90) days from the effective date specified in the approved change to the MMEL.

Question 11

State what you can find in the following parts of the Operations manual

• Part A
• Part B
• Part C
• Part D

Answer 11

State what you can find in the following parts of the Operations manual

• Part A → General/Basic, non-type related, TCAS, fuel policy
• Part B → Aircraft operating matters, type-related, flight planning
• Part C → CAT operations, routes, aerodrome instructions
• Part D → Training instructions

Question 12

Noise abatement procedures for aeroplanes can be found in AIP section AD (1/2/3)​.

Answer 12

Noise abatement procedures for aeroplanes can be found in AIP section AD (2).

Question 13

In a SNOWTAM, the type of deposit coded 6 reported under F) is (…)​.

Answer 13

In a SNOWTAM, the type of deposit coded 6 reported under F) is (slush).

Question 14

If the EPR probe becomes covered with ice, EPR indications will be (greater/less)​ than the actual.

Answer 14

If the EPR probe becomes covered with ice, EPR indications will be (greater) than the actual.

Question 15

Compliance with published noise abatement approach procedures should not be required in adverse operating conditions such as:

a) if the runway is not clear and dry;
b) in conditions when the ceiling is lower that (…) ft above aerodrome elevation, or when the horizontal visibility is less than (…) NM;
c) […]
d) […]
e) […]

Answer 15

Compliance with published noise abatement approach procedures should not be required in adverse operating conditions such as:

a) if the runway is not clear and dry;
b) in conditions when the ceiling is lower that (500) ft above aerodrome elevation, or when the horizontal visibility is less than (1) NM;
c) […]
d) […]
e) […]

Question 16

The MMEL is drawn up by the (…)​.

Answer 16

The MMEL is drawn up by the (manufacturer/type certificate holder).

Question 17

An aircraft which experiences a headwind of 40 kts while making its way towards the centre of a microburst may expect, when crossing the microburst, to face a wind shear of (…) kts.

Answer 17

An aircraft which experiences a headwind of 40 kts while making its way towards the centre of a microburst may expect, when crossing the microburst, to face a wind shear of (80) kts.

- from -40 to +40 → wind shear of 80 -

Question 18

The ICAO procedure designed to collect and disseminate information on bird strikes to aircraft is called (…)​.

Answer 18

The ICAO procedure designed to collect and disseminate information on bird strikes to aircraft is called (IBIS). (ICAO Bird Strike Information System)

Question 19

A warning device alerts the crew in case of an excessive cabin altitude. This warning must be triggered on reaching (…)​ ft.

Answer 19

A warning device alerts the crew in case of an excessive cabin altitude. This warning must be triggered on reaching (10000) ft.

Question 20

Viscous hydroplaning occurs primarily if the runway is covered with a thin film of water and is (rough/very smooth) and (clean/dirty)​.

Answer 20

Viscous hydroplaning occurs primarily if the runway is covered with a thin film of water and is (very smooth) and (dirty).

Question 21

Item D of a SNOWTAM gives the cleared length of a runway in meters. If this is less than the published length, it is reported (by a four figure group added to item D, which gives the length in meters / in plain language at item T (the final paragraph) ).

Answer 21

Item D of a SNOWTAM gives the cleared length of a runway in meters. If this is less than the published length, it is reported (by a four figure group added to item D, which gives the length in meters).

Question 22

A measured coeficcient between 0.26 and 0.29 means braking is (…), brakes (1/2/3/4/5/9)​.

Answer 22

A measured coeficcient between 0.26 and 0.29 means braking is (medium/poor), brakes (2).

Question 23

When a LIGHT aircraft is landing behind a MEDIUM aircraft, the wake turbulence non-radar minimum time approach separation shall be (…)​ minutes.

Answer 23

When a LIGHT aircraft is landing behind a MEDIUM aircraft, the wake turbulence non-radar minimum time approach separation shall be (3) minutes.

Question 24

On a 2 step procedure, the anti-icing holdover time begins at the (start/end) of the (de/anti)-icing procedure.

Answer 24

On a 2 step procedure, the anti-icing holdover time begins at the (start) of the (anti)-icing procedure.

Question 25

The Master Minimum Equipment List (MMEL) can be (more/less) restricting than the Minimum Equipment List (MEL).

Answer 25

The Master Minimum Equipment List (MMEL) can be (less) restricting than the Minimum Equipment List (MEL).

Question 26

For the purpose of wake turbulence separation, the ICAO minimum radar separation distance and minimume time if a MEDIUM aeroplane is following directly behind a HEAVY aeroplane on the approach to the same runway is (…) NM and (…)​ minutes.

Answer 26

For the purpose of wake turbulence separation, the ICAO minimum radar separation distance and minimume time if a MEDIUM aeroplane is following directly behind a HEAVY aeroplane on the approach to the same runway is (5) NM and (2) minutes.

Question 27

In a SNOWTAM, the type of deposit coded 5 reported under F) is (…)​.

Answer 27

In a SNOWTAM, the type of deposit coded 5 reported under F) is (wet snow).

Question 28

A package with label F in the attachment contains (…)​.

Answer 28

A package with label F in the attachment contains (infectious substances).

Question 29

A package with label B in the attachment contains (…)​.

Answer 29

A package with label B in the attachment contains (flammable liquids).

Question 30

According to the noise abatement take-off and climb procedure 1 (NADP 1), as established in DOC - OPS Volume 1, part V, aircraft must climb at V₂ + 10 to 20 kts, until reaching (…)​ ft.

Answer 30

According to the noise abatement take-off and climb procedure 1 (NADP 1), as established in DOC - OPS Volume 1, part V, aircraft must climb at V₂ + 10 to 20 kts, until reaching (3000) ft AGL.

Question 31

Compliance with published noise abatement approach procedures should not be required in adverse operating conditions such as:

a) […]
b) […]
c) when the crosswind component, including gusts, exceeds (…) kt;
d) when the tailwind component, including gusts, exceeds (…) kt; and
e) when wind shear has been reported or forecast or when adverse weather conditions, e.g. thunderstorms, are expected to affect the approach.

Answer 31

Compliance with published noise abatement approach procedures should not be required in adverse operating conditions such as:

a) […]
b) […]
c) when the crosswind component, including gusts, exceeds (15) kt;
d) when the tailwind component, including gusts, exceeds (5) kt; and
e) when wind shear has been reported or forecast or when adverse weather conditions, e.g. thunderstorms, are expected to affect the approach.

Question 32

A package with label C in the attachment contains (…)​.

Answer 32

A package with label C in the attachment contains (flammable solids).

Question 33

Frost is a (clear/crystalline) formation (when the OAT is/on surfaces with a temperature of) 0°C or less

Answer 33

Frost is a (crystalline) formation (on surfaces with a temperature) of 0°C or less

Question 34

A Class B fire concerns (…)​. State which of the following can be used to extinguish it:

Water Fire Extinguishers

Foam -

Dry powder -

CO2/Halon -

Wet chemical -

Answer 34

A Class B fire concerns (flammable liquids). State which of the following can be used to extinguish it:

Water Fire Extinguishers

Foam -

Dry powder -

CO2/Halon -

Wet chemical -

Question 35

Mistin the cabin, pressure and temperature drop characterize a (slow/rapid)​ depressurization.

Answer 35

Mistin the cabin, pressure and temperature drop characterize a (rapid) depressurization.

Question 36

Data available indicate that the procedure which results in the biggest noise relief during the part of the procedure close to the airport is (NADP 1/NADP 2).

Answer 36

Data available indicate that the procedure which results in the biggest noise relief during the part of the procedure close to the airport is (NADP 1).

Question 37

A package with label D in the attachment contains (…)​.

Answer 37

A package with label D in the attachment contains (oxidizing substances).

Question 38

A package with label E in the attachment contains (…)​.

Answer 38

A package with label E in the attachment contains (toxic substances).

Question 39

Fuel jettinson should not be done below (…) ft AGL.

Answer 39

Fuel jettinson should not be done below (6000) ft AGL.

Question 40

For stable clouds:

• Most faborable temperatures for icing are between 0°C and (-10/-15)°C
• Icing becomes rare atT (-18/-30)°C
• The diameter of water droplets is between (0.002 and 0.03/0.004 and 0.2) mm.

Answer 40

For stable clouds:

• Most faborable temperatures for icing are between 0°C and (-10)°C
• Icing becomes rare atT (-18)°C
• The diameter of water droplets is between (0.002 and 0.03) mm.

Question 41

To avoid wake turbulence, when departing behind a larger aircraft, the pilot should manoeuvre (above/below) and (upwind/downwind)​ from the larger aircraft.

Answer 41

To avoid wake turbulence, when departing behind a larger aircraft, the pilot should manoeuvre (above) and (upwind) from the larger aircraft.

Question 42

State the formula to calculate hydroplaning speed.

Answer 42

Hydroplaning speed [kts] = 9 • sqrt (pressure [psi] )

Question 43

You encounter an engine failure with your single engine airplane overhead a dense forest. The best configuration for an emergency landing is flaps (up/down), gear (up/down) and aim for (high/low)​ trees.

Answer 43

You encounter an engine failure with your single engine airplane overhead a dense forest. The best configuration for an emergency landing is flaps (down), gear (up) and aim for (low) trees.

Question 44

A measured coeficcient between 0.30 and 0.35 means braking is (…), brakes (1/2/3/4/5/9)​.

Answer 44

A measured coeficcient between 0.30 and 0.35 means braking is (medium), brakes (3).

Question 45

Unidentified baggage means baggage at an airport (without/with or without) a baggage tag, which is not picked up by or identified with a passenger.

Answer 45

Unidentified baggage means baggage at an airport (with or without) a baggage tag, which is not picked up by or identified with a passenger.

Question 46

An aircraft is flying through a windshear of a microburst and initially encounters a maximum headwind of 30 kts. The wind speed in the centre is (…)​ kts.

Answer 46

An aircraft is flying through a windshear of a microburst and initially encounters a maximum headwind of 30 kts. The wind speed in the centre is (0) kts.

Question 47

According to ICAO Doc 8168, a NADP is not to be initiated at less than (…) ft above aerodrome elevation.

Answer 47

According to ICAO Doc 8168, a NADP is not to be initiated at less than (800) ft above aerodrome elevation.

Question 48

Due to risk of tyres explosion, after landing, when the brakes are at a very high temperature, one should approach the landing gear (sidewards/either from the front or the rear)​.

Answer 48

Due to risk of tyres explosion, after landing, when the brakes are at a very high temperature, one should approach the landing gear (either from the front or the rear).

Question 49

Information about bird migration can be found in the (GEN/ENR/AD)​ section of the AIP.

Answer 49

Information about bird migration can be found in the (ENR) section of the AIP.

Question 50

According to CS-25, if a fuel jettisoning system is required, it must be capable of jettisoning enough fuel within (…)​ minutes.

Answer 50

According to CS-25, if a fuel jettisoning system is required, it must be capable of jettisoning enough fuel within (15) minutes.

Question 51

A Class E fire concerns (…)​. State which of the following can be used to extinguish it:

Water Fire Extinguishers

Foam -

Dry powder -

CO2/Halon -

Wet chemical -

Answer 51

A Class E fire concerns (electrical apparatus). State which of the following can be used to extinguish it:

Water Fire Extinguishers

Foam -

Dry powder -

CO2/Halon -

Wet chemical -

Question 52

The oxygen drop out masks must be automatically presented before cabin altitude reaches (…) ft.

Answer 52

The oxygen drop out masks must be automatically presented before cabin altitude reaches (15000) ft.

Question 53

A measured coeficcient of 9 means braking is (…), brakes (1/2/3/4/5/9)​.

Answer 53

A measured coeficcient of 9 means braking is (unreliable), brakes (9)​.

Question 54

A package with label A in the attachment contains (…)​.

Answer 54

A package with label A in the attachment contains (explosives).

Question 55

The sign in the attachment means (…)​.

Answer 55

The sign in the attachment means (cargo aircraft only).

Question 56

The performances associated with contaminated runways are to be found in Part (A/B/C/D) of the OPS manual.

Answer 56

The performances associated with contaminated runways are to be found in Part (B) of the OPS manual.

Question 57

A Class C fire concerns (…)​. State which of the following can be used to extinguish it:

Water Fire Extinguishers

Foam -

Dry powder -

CO2/Halon -

Wet chemical -

Answer 57

A Class C fire concerns (flammable gases). State which of the following can be used to extinguish it:

Water Fire Extinguishers

Foam -

Dry powder -

CO2/Halon -

Wet chemical -

Question 58

For a given aircraft and runway contamination, increased pressure altitude will (increase/decrease/maintain) the hydroplaning speed.

Answer 58

For a given aircraft and runway contamination, increased pressure altitude will (increase) the hydroplaning speed.

Question 59

The minimum time for wake turbulence separation for a LIGHT aircraft departing after a MEDIUM is (…)​ minutes.

Answer 59

The minimum time for wake turbulence separation for a LIGHT aircraft departing after a MEDIUM is (2) minutes.

Question 60

A measured coeficcient of 0.25 and below means braking is (…), brakes (1/2/3/4/5/9)​.

Answer 60

A measured coeficcient of 0.25 and below means braking is (poor), brakes (1).

Question 61

A measured coeficcient between 0.36 and 0.39 means braking is (…), brakes (1/2/3/4/5/9)​.

Answer 61

A measured coeficcient between 0.36 and 0.39 means braking is (medium/good), brakes (4).

Question 62

According to the noise abatement take-off and climb procedure 2 (NADP 2), as established in DOC - OPS Volume 1, part V, aircraft must climb at V₂ + 10 to 20 kts, until reaching (…) ft AGL.

Answer 62

According to the noise abatement take-off and climb procedure 2 (NADP 2), as established in DOC - OPS Volume 1, part V, aircraft must climb at V₂ + 10 to 20 kts, until reaching (800) ft AGL.

Question 63

A measured coeficcient 0.40 and above means braking is (…), brakes (1/2/3/4/5/9)​.

Answer 63

A measured coeficcient 0.40 and above means braking is (good), brakes (5).

Question 64

During an aircraft de-/anti-ice procedure, the anti-icing fluid is applied (hot/without heating) and the de-icing fluid is applied (hot/without heating)​.

Answer 64

During an aircraft de-/anti-ice procedure, the anti-icing fluid is applied (without heating) and the de-icing fluid is applied (hot).