070.01 General Requirements Flashcards
1
Q
An FDR is required in aeroplanes over (5700/7000/20000) kg.
A
An FDR is required in aeroplanes over (5700) kg.
2
Q
An interphone system is necessary on board of an aeroplane with a crew >(1/2/3) and a MCTOM of >(5.7/15/27)000 kg or MOPSC >(…).
A
An interphone system is necessary on board of an aeroplane with a crew >(1) and a MCTOM of >(15)000 kg or MOPSC >(19).
3
Q
An operator shall not appoint a person to the post of senior cabin crew member unless that person has at least (6/9/12/24) months experience as an operating cabin crew member and has completed an appropriate course.
A
An operator shall not appoint a person to the post of senior cabin crew member unless that person has at least (12) months experience as an operating cabin crew member and has completed an appropriate course.
4
Q
The period of validity of an operator proficiency check is (6/12/18/24) months.
A
The period of validity of an operator proficiency check is (6) months.
5
Q
A turbojet engine aeroplane should have a final reserve fuel for (…).
A
A turbojet engine aeroplane should have a final reserve fuel for (30 minutes of flight at holding speed at 1500 ft AAL in standard conditions).
6
Q
The basic maximum daily FDP can further be extended by a maximum of (…) hour(s).
A
The basic maximum daily FDP can further be extended by a maximum of (1) hour(s).
7
Q
The standby power supply powering the standby artificial horizon must be operable on board any aircraft of more than 5700 kg or more than 9 passengers during at least (15/30/60/120) minutes.
A
The standby power supply powering the standby artificial horizon must be operable on board any aircraft of more than 5700 kg or more than 9 passengers during at least (30) minutes.
8
Q
The total flight time of the sectors on which an individual crew member is assigned as an operating crew member shall not exceed:
(1) (…) hours of flight time in any 28 consecutive days;
(2) (…) hours of flight time in any calendar year; and
(3) (…) hours of flight time in any 12 consecutive calendar months.
A
The total flight time of the sectors on which an individual crew member is assigned as an operating crew member shall not exceed:
(1) (100) hours of flight time in any 28 consecutive days;
(2) (900) hours of flight time in any calendar year; and
(3) (1000) hours of flight time in any 12 consecutive calendar months.
9
Q
200 ft is the lowest DH/MDH for (…).
A
200 ft is the lowest DH/MDH for (ILS, MLS, SBAS).
10
Q
100% of the passengers in a non-pressurized aircraft must be supplied with supplemental oxygen for the entire flight time at pressure altitudes greater than (…) ft.
A
100% of the passengers in a non-pressurized aircraft must be supplied with supplemental oxygen for the entire flight time at pressure altitudes greater than (13000) ft.
11
Q
An airplane with a MOPSC of 0 - 100 required a minimum of (…) first-aid kit.
A
An airplane with a MOPSC of 0 - 100 required a minimum of (1) first-aid kit(s).
12
Q
In accordance with EASA AIR OPS, 10 % of the passengers in a pressurised aircraft shall be supplied with supplemental oxygen for the entire flight time after 30 minutes at pressure altitudes greater than 10 000 ft but not exceeding (13/14/15)000 ft.
A
In accordance with EASA AIR OPS, 10 % of the passengers in a pressurised aircraft shall be supplied with supplemental oxygen for the entire flight time after 30 minutes at pressure altitudes greater than 10 000 ft but not exceeding (14)000 ft.
13
Q
Planning minima for a destination alternate with a circling approach available is (…).
A
Planning minima for a destination alternate with a circling approach available is (circling).
14
Q
In Commission Regulation (EU) No 965/2012, Annex III corresponds to Part-(…) and Annex IV to Part-(…).
A
In Commission Regulation (EU) No 965/2012, Annex III corresponds to Part-(ORO) and Annex IV to Part-(CAT).
15
Q
Considering a wet lease-in, the competent authority of the (lessor/lessee) should approve aircraft entering the EU from third countries.
A
Considering a wet lease-in, the competent authority of the (lessee) should approve aircraft entering the EU from third countries.
16
Q
An aircraft with a MOPSC of 31 - 60 must be equipped with at least (…) hand fire extinguisher(s) conveniently located in the passenger compartment.
A
An aircraft with a MOPSC of 31 - 60 must be equipped with at least (2) hand fire extinguisher(s) conveniently located in the passenger compartment.
17
Q
An airplane with a MOPSC of 201 - 300 required a minimum of (…) first-aid kit(s).
A
An airplane with a MOPSC of 201 - 300 required a minimum of (3) first-aid kit(s).
18
Q
For a CAT IIIb precision approach, the DH cannot be lower than (…) ft with an RVR not less than (…) m for FAIL OP and (…) m for FAIL PASS.
A
For a CAT IIIb precision approach, the DH cannot be lower than (nil or >50) ft with an RVR not less than (75 (ICAO SARPS: 50) ) m for FAIL OP and (125) m for FAIL PASS.
19
Q
The minimum RVR value for take-off under the following circumstances is (150/200/250/300) m.
- CAT A aeroplane
- AD equipped with runway edge lighting and centre line lighting and multiple RVR information
- An accaptable alternate aerodrome is available
A
The minimum RVR value for take-off under the following circumstances is (150) m.
- CAT A aeroplane
- AD equipped with runway edge lighting and centre line lighting and multiple RVR information
- An accaptable alternate aerodrome is available
20
Q
Following an accident involved with dangerous goods, an operator must report this to the competent authority within (12/24/48/72) hours.
A
Following an accident involved with dangerous goods, an operator must report this to the competent authority within (72) hours.
21
Q
Without ETOPS Approval, an operator shall not operate a two-engined Class A aeroplane with a MOPSC of 19 or less over a route which contains a point further from an adequate aerodrome, at a distance flown in (…) minutes at the OEI cruise speed.
A
Without ETOPS Approval, an operator shall not operate a two-engined Class A aeroplane with a MOPSC of 19 or less over a route which contains a point further from an adequate aerodrome, at a distance flown in (120) minutes at the OEI cruise speed.
22
Q
Astronomic precession causes the gyro axis to spin to the (left/right) in the Northern Hemisphere.
A
Astronomic precession causes the gyro axis to spin to the (right) in the Northern Hemisphere.
23
Q
The abbreviation in ‘Part-FCL’ stand for (…).
A
The abbreviation in ‘Part-FCL’ stand for (Flight Crew License).
24
Q
For a pressurized aeroplane, certificated to fly at altitudes more than 25000 ft, all occupants of the flight deck seats on flight deck duty shall be supplied with supplemental oxygen during a period of in no case less than (…).
A
For a pressurized aeroplane, certificated to fly at altitudes more than 25000 ft, all occupants of the flight deck seats on flight deck duty shall be supplied with supplemental oxygen during a period of in no case less than (2 hours).
25
The minimum required recent experience for a pilot engaged in a single-pilot operation under IFR shall be **(3/5)** IFR flights, including **(3 instrument approaches / 3 take-offs and 3 landings)**, carried out during the preceding **(...)** days on the type or class of aeroplane in the single-pilot role.
The minimum required recent experience for a pilot engaged in a _single-pilot operation under IFR_ shall be **(5)** IFR flights, including **(3 instrument approaches)**, carried out during the preceding **(90)** days on the type or class of aeroplane in the single-pilot role.
26
The abbreviation in 'Part-SPO' stand for **(...)**.
The abbreviation in 'Part-SPO' stand for **(Specialised Operations)**.
27
'ORO' in 'Part-ORO' stands for **(...)**.
'ORO' in 'Part-ORO' stands for **(Organisation Requirements of Air Operations)**.
28
When having to deviate 10 NM or more from your OTS track due to bad weather, you have to **(climb/descent)** **(...)** ft when deviating to the north and **(climb/descent) (...)** ft when deviating to the south.
When having to deviate 10 NM or more from your OTS track due to bad weather, you have to **(descent)** **(300)** ft when deviating to the north and **(climb)** **(300)** ft when deviating to the south.
29
In accordance with EASA AIR OPS, an airplane must be equipped with equipment or systems at each emergency exit that allow to reach the ground safely in the case of an emergency when the sill height of the passenger emergency exit is higher than 1.**(80/83/86/89)** m.
In accordance with EASA AIR OPS, an airplane must be equipped with equipment or systems at each emergency exit that allow to reach the ground safely in the case of an emergency when the sill height of the passenger emergency exit is higher than 1.**(83)** m.
30
Without ETOPS Approval, an operator shall not operate a two-engined Class A aeroplane with a MOPSC of _20 or more_ over a route which contains a point further from an adequate aerodrome, at a distance flown in **(...)** minutes at the OEI cruise speed.
Without ETOPS Approval, an operator shall not operate a two-engined Class A aeroplane with a MOPSC of _20 or more_ over a route which contains a point further from an adequate aerodrome, at a distance flown in **(60)** minutes at the OEI cruise speed.
31
The **(controller/commander/operator/competent authority)** is responsible for ensuring operations are conducted on appropriate routes and in appropriate airspace.
The **(operator)** is responsible for ensuring operations are conducted on appropriate routes and in appropriate airspace.
32
For aircraft certified before 31 March 2000, some emergency exits must be equipped with devices so as to help the occupants to get out and reach the ground if their threshold is at a height above the ground greater than **(6/8)** ft, aeroplane on the ground, **(landing gear extended/one or more legs of the landing gear collapsed)**.
For aircraft certified _before_ _31 March 2000_, some emergency exits must be equipped with devices so as to help the occupants to get out and reach the ground if their threshold is at a height above the ground greater than **(6)** ft, aeroplane on the ground, **(landing gear extended)**.
33
In unforseen circumstances, one cabin crew member for every **(...)** passenger seats **(installed/occupied)** on the same deck is required.
In unforseen circumstances, one cabin crew member for every **(50)** passenger seats **(occupied)** on the same deck is required.
34
Aircraft may operate in MNPS airspace along a number of special routes, if the aircraft is equipped with at least **(one/two) (Initial Navigation System/Long Range Navigation System)**.
Aircraft may operate in MNPS airspace along a number of _special_ routes, if the aircraft is equipped with at least **(one) (Long Range Navigation System)**.
35
The abbreviation in 'Part-NCO' stand for **(...)**.
The abbreviation in 'Part-NCO' stand for **(Non-Commercial Air Operations with Other-Than Complex Motor-Powered Aircraft****)**.
36
An aircraft with a MOPSC of 401 - 500 must be equipped with at least **(...)** hand fire extinguisher(s) conveniently located in the passenger compartment.
An aircraft with a MOPSC of 401 - 500 must be equipped with at least **(6)** hand fire extinguisher(s) conveniently located in the passenger compartment.
37
The emergency lighting system must be able to function and supply a certain level of lighting after the main electric power system has been cut off for at least **(5/10/30)** minutes.
The emergency lighting system must be able to function and supply a certain level of lighting after the main electric power system has been cut off for at least **(10)** minutes.
38
An operator shall ensure that a copy of the operational flight plan is stored in an acceptable form for at least **(3/12/24/36)** months.
An operator shall ensure that a copy of the operational flight plan is stored in an acceptable form for at least **(3)** months.
39
The validity period of a day-time **(eastbound/westbound)** organised track system in MNPS airspace is normally at 30°W, between **(...)** UTC and **(...)** UTC.
The validity period of a day-time **(westbound)** organised track system in MNPS airspace is normally at 30°W, between **(1130)** UTC and **(1900)** UTC.
40
* Aeroplanes with an MCTOM of more than **(5700/20000)** kg or with an MOPSC of more than **(9/19)** shall be equipped with at least one crash axe or crowbar located in the flight crew compartment.
* In the case of aeroplanes with an MOPSC of more than **(...)**, an additional crash axe or crowbar shall be installed in or near the rearmost galley area.
* Aeroplanes with an MCTOM of more than **(5700)** kg or with an MOPSC of more than **(9)** shall be equipped with at least one crash axe or crowbar located in the flight crew compartment.
* In the case of aeroplanes with an MOPSC of more than **(200)**, an additional crash axe or crowbar shall be installed in or near the _rearmost_ galley area.
41
Planning minima for a destination alternate with a CAT I approach available is **(...)**.
Planning minima for a destination alternate with a CAT I approach available is **(NPA RVR/Vis, Ceiling shall be at or above MDH)**.
42
For a Category B aircraft circling, the MDH is **(...)** ft and the minimum meteorological visibility **(...)** m.
For a Category B aircraft circling, the MDH is **(500)** ft and the minimum meteorological visibility **(1600)** m.
43
Life rafts equipped with a survivor locator light sufficient to carry all persons on board and at least to survival ELTs shall be carried on aeroplanes operated over water at a distance away from land suitable for making an emergency landing, greater than that corresponding to:
(1) **(...)** minutes at cruising speed or **(...)** NM, whichever is the **(greater/lesser)**, in the case of aeroplanes capable of continuing the flight to an aerodrome with the critical engine(s) becoming inoperative at any point along the route or planned diversions; or
(2) for all other aeroplanes, **(...)** minutes at cruising speed or **(...)** NM, whichever is the **(greater/lesser)**.
Life rafts equipped with a survivor locator light sufficient to carry all persons _plus one spare_ on board and at least to survival ELTs shall be carried on aeroplanes operated over water at a distance away from land suitable for making an emergency landing, greater than that corresponding to:
(1) **(120)** minutes at cruising speed or **(400)** NM, whichever is the **(lesser)**, in the case of aeroplanes capable of continuing the flight to an aerodrome with the critical engine(s) becoming inoperative at any point along the route or planned diversions; or
(2) for all other aeroplanes, **(30)** minutes at cruising speed or **(100)** NM, whichever is the **(lesser)**.
44
The maximum extension of the flight duty period in unforseen circumstances in flight ops, commander's discretion, augmented flight crew is **(...)** hour(s).
The maximum extension of the flight duty period in _unforseen_ circumstances in flight ops, commander's discretion, augmented flight crew is **(3)** hour(s).
45
An aircraft with a MOPSC of 7 - 30 must be equipped with at least **(...)** hand fire extinguisher(s) conveniently located in the passenger compartment.
An aircraft with a MOPSC of 7 - 30 must be equipped with at least **(1)** hand fire extinguisher(s) conveniently located in the passenger compartment.
46
It is recommended that pilots should request their Oceanic Clearance at least **(...)** minutes prior to the Oceanic entry point ETA.
It is recommended that pilots should request their Oceanic Clearance at least **(40)** minutes prior to the Oceanic entry point ETA.
47
Each flight crew member shall complete a recurrent flight and ground training relevant to the type or variant of aircraft on which he/she operates, including training on the location and use of all emergency and safety equipment carried. Such training has to be performed every **(6/12/18/24)** months.
Each flight crew member shall complete a recurrent flight and ground training relevant to the type or variant of aircraft on which he/she operates, including training on the location and use of all emergency and safety equipment carried. Such training has to be performed every **(12)** months.
48
The abbreviation HMU means **(...)**.
The abbreviation HMU means **(Height Monitoring Unit)**.
49
For a CAT IIIc precision approach, the DH cannot be lower than **(...)** ft with an RVR not less than **(...)** m.
For a CAT IIIc precision approach, the DH cannot be lower than **(nil)** ft with an RVR not less than **(nil)** m.
50
An aircraft with a MOPSC of 601 or more must be equipped with at least **(...)** hand fire extinguisher(s) conveniently located in the passenger compartment.
An aircraft with a MOPSC of 601 or more must be equipped with at least **(8)** hand fire extinguisher(s) conveniently located in the passenger compartment.
51
PART-**(25/66/145)** prescribes requirements for approved maintenance organisations.
PART-**(145)** prescribes requirements for approved maintenance organisations.
52
The term 'night duty' means a duty period encroaching any portion of the period between **(...)** and **(...)** in the time zone to which the crew **(is acclimatised/has arrived)**.
The term 'night duty' means a duty period encroaching any portion of the period between **(02:00)** and **(04:59)** in the time zone to which the crew **(is acclimatised)**.
53
Planning minima for ETOPS en route alternate aerodrome for an NPA or circling approach is DA/H + **(...)** ft, RMR/VIS + **(...)** ft.
Planning minima for ETOPS en route alternate aerodrome for an NPA or circling approach is DA/H + **(400)** ft, RMR/VIS + **(1500)** ft.
54
For turbo-propeller aircraft, the landing distance at the scheduled destination aerodrome shall be less than the available landing distance multiplied by a factor of **(...)**.
For turbo-propeller aircraft, the landing distance at the scheduled destination aerodrome shall be less than the available landing distance multiplied by a factor of **(0.7)**.
55
On an IFR flight, before dispatch the expected weather conditions at the destination and/or required alternate aerodrome(s) are to be at or above the **(aerodrome/planning)** minima **(at the ETA/during a period from 1h before to 1h after the ETA)**.
On an IFR flight, before dispatch the expected weather conditions at the destination and/or required alternate aerodrome(s) are to be at or above the **(planning)** minima **(during a period from 1h before to 1h after the ETA)**.
56
For two-engined aeroplanes not approved for ETOPS, the take-off alternate, if required, shall be located (in still air conditions) within **(1/2)** hour flight time at **(OEI/all-engines)** cruising speed.
For two-engined aeroplanes _not approved for ETOPS_, the take-off alternate, if required, shall be located (in still air conditions) within **(1)** hour flight time at **(OEI)** cruising speed.
57
350 ft is the lowest DH/MDH for **(...)**.
350 ft is the lowest DH/MDH for **(SRA 2, NDB, VDF (50 ft less if they have DME) )**.
58
The abbreviation in 'Part-NCC' stand for **(...)**.
The abbreviation in 'Part-NCC' stand for **(Non-Commercial Air Operations with Complex Motor-Powered Aircraft)**.
59
The pilot must turn on the navigation lights **(...)**.
The pilot _must_ turn on the navigation lights **(only at night)**.
60
**(Differences/Familiarisation)** training requires the acquisition of additional knowledge.
**(Familiarisation)** training requires the acquisition of additional knowledge.
61
An aircraft with a MOPSC of 501 - 600 must be equipped with at least **(...)** hand fire extinguisher(s) conveniently located in the passenger compartment.
An aircraft with a MOPSC of 501 - 600 must be equipped with at least **(7)** hand fire extinguisher(s) conveniently located in the passenger compartment.
62
During the flight of two aircraft in MNPS airspace with both aircraft flying the same speed, the longitudinal separation must nog be below **(...)** minutes.
During the flight of two aircraft in MNPS airspace with _both aircraft flying the same speed_, the longitudinal separation must nog be below **(10)** minutes.
63
RVSM _In-flight_ procedure - cross-checks of the primary altimeters shall be made at intervals of approximately one hour. These primary altimeters shall agree within **(50/100/150/200)** ft.
RVSM _In-flight_ procedure - cross-checks of the primary altimeters shall be made at intervals of approximately one hour. These primary altimeters shall agree within **(200)** ft.
64
An airplane with a MOPSC of 301 - 400 required a minimum of **(...)** first-aid kit(s).
An airplane with a MOPSC of 301 - 400 required a minimum of **(4)** first-aid kit(s).
65
An operator has to keep records about flight-duty, duty and rest-periods for **(12/15/18/24)** months.
An operator has to keep records about flight-duty, duty and rest-periods for **(24)** months.
66
The abbreviation MASPS stands for **(...)**.
The abbreviation MASPS stands for **(Minimum Aviation System Performance Standards)**.
67
The MNPS airspace extends from **(27/30)°** North to **(70/90)**° North.
The MNPS airspace extends from **(27)°** North to **(90)**° North.
68
A flight with 42 passengers is required to carry sufficient first aid oxygen for **(one/two)** passenger(s) calculated for the entire flight time which, following de-pressurisation, the aircraft cabin altitude would be greater than **(...)** ft.
A flight with 42 passengers is required to carry sufficient first aid oxygen for **(one)** passenger calculated for the entire flight time which, following de-pressurisation, the _aircraft cabin altitude_ would be greater than **(8000)** ft.
69
In NAT region, a revised estimate should be transmitted to the ATS when the estimated time for the next position has changed by **(...)** minutes or more.
In NAT region, a revised estimate should be transmitted to the ATS when the estimated time for the next position has changed by **(3)** minutes or more. *(boundary window)*
70
For two-engined aeroplanes in Performance class B or C without an ETOPS approval, the maximum distance from an adequate aerodrome is the distance flown in **(60/120)** minutes at the one-engine-inoperative cruise speed, or **(200/300)** nautical miles, whichever is less.
For two-engined aeroplanes in Performance class B or C without an ETOPS approval, the maximum distance from an adequate aerodrome is the distance flown in **(120)** minutes at the one-engine-inoperative cruise speed, or **(300)** nautical miles, whichever is less.
71
A single deck aeroplane, with a MOPSC of 100 or more carrying at least one passenger shall be equipped with at least **(...)** megaphone(s).
A single deck aeroplane, with a MOPSC of 100 or more carrying at least one passenger shall be equipped with at least **(2)** megaphone(s).
72
For a CAT II precision approach, the DH cannot be lower than **(...)** ft with an RVR not less than **(...)** m.
For a CAT II precision approach, the DH cannot be lower than **(100)** ft with an RVR not less than **(300)** m.
73
The **(operator/commander/authority/controller)** is responsible for ensuring operations are conducted on appropriate routes and in appropriate airspace.
The **(operator)** is responsible for ensuring operations are conducted on appropriate routes and in appropriate airspace.
74
RVSM Pre-Flight procedure - the flight crew shall verify the altimeter accuracy by setting the QNH or QFE. The reading should then agree with the altitude of the apron or the zero height indication within **(25/30/75/150)** ft.
RVSM _Pre-Flight_ procedure - the flight crew shall verify the altimeter accuracy by setting the QNH or QFE. The reading should then agree with the altitude of the apron or the zero height indication within **(75)** ft.
75
The abbreviation in 'Part-ARA' stand for **(...)**.
The abbreviation in 'Part-ARA' stand for **(Authority Requirements for Air crew)**.
76
Consider a flight within an airspace with reduced vertical separation minima (RVSM). The upper limit of the threshold for altitude deviation alerting equipment is +/-**(...)** ft.
Consider a flight within an airspace with reduced vertical separation minima (RVSM). The upper limit of the threshold for altitude deviation alerting equipment is +/-**(300)** ft.
77
The total duty periods to which a crew member may be assigned shall not exceed:
(1) **(...)** duty hours in any 7 consecutive days;
(2) **(...)** duty hours in any 14 consecutive days; and
(3) **(...)** duty hours in any 28 consecutive days, spread as evenly as practicable throughout that period.
The total duty periods to which a crew member may be assigned shall not exceed:
(1) **(60)** duty hours in any 7 consecutive days;
(2) **(110)** duty hours in any 14 consecutive days; and
(3) **(190)** duty hours in any 28 consecutive days, spread as evenly as practicable throughout that period.
78
250 ft is the lowest DH/MDH for **(...)**.
250 ft is the lowest DH/MDH for **(SRA 1/2, RNAV, LOC)**.
79
For turbojet aircraft, the landing distance at the scheduled destination aerodrome shall be less than the available landing distance multiplied by a factor of **(...)**.
For turbojet aircraft, the landing distance at the scheduled destination aerodrome shall be less than the available landing distance multiplied by a factor of **(0.6)**.
80
In accordance with EASA AIR OPS, the operator must ensure that the mass and balance documentation of a flight is stored for a minimum period of **(1/3/6/12)** months.
In accordance with EASA AIR OPS, the operator must ensure that the mass and balance documentation of a flight is stored for a minimum period of **(3)** months.
81
The period of validity of a line check is **(6/12/18/24)** months.
The period of validity of a line check is **(12)** months.
82
For a Category D aircraft circling, the MDH is **(...)** ft and the minimum meteorological visibility **(...)** m.
For a Category D aircraft circling, the MDH is **(700)** ft and the minimum meteorological visibility **(3600)** m.
83
Planning minima for a destination alternate with an NPA approach available is **(...)**.
Planning minima for a destination alternate with an NPA approach available is **(NPA RVR/Vis + 1000 m, Ceiling shall be at or above MDH + 200 ft)**.
84
For three- or four-engined aeroplanes not approved for ETOPS, the take-off alternate, if required, shall be located (in still air conditions) within **(1/2)** hour flight time at **(OEI/all-engines)** cruising speed.
For three- or four-engined aeroplanes _not approved for ETOPS_, the take-off alternate, if required, shall be located (in still air conditions) within **(2)** hour flight time at **(OEI)** cruising speed.
85
The minimum rest period before a flight duty which starts away from the cremember's home base shall be **(...)** hours.
The minimum rest period before a flight duty which starts away from the cremember's home base shall be **(10)** hours.
86
The operator shall establish and maintain a flight data monitoring programme for aeroplanes with a maximum certificated take-off mass of more than **(5700/10000/27000)** kg.
The operator shall establish and maintain a flight data monitoring programme for aeroplanes with a maximum certificated take-off mass of more than **(27000)** kg.
87
An operator shall not operate an aeroplane certificated to EASA CS-25, across an area in which search and rescue would be especially difficult, without survival equipment if it flies away from an area suitable for making an emergency landing at a distance greater than **(30/60/90/120****)** minutes at cruising speed.
An operator shall not operate an aeroplane certificated to EASA CS-25, across an area in which search and rescue would be especially difficult, _without survival equipment_ if it flies away from an area suitable for making an emergency landing at a distance greater than **(90****)** minutes at cruising speed.
88
Seats should be allocated for each person on board who is ages **(6/12/24)** months or more.
Seats should be allocated for each person on board who is ages **(24)** months or more.
89
According to North Atlantic MNPS Operations Manual, transponder code **(...)** should be set 30 minutes after entry into NAT airspace.
According to North Atlantic MNPS Operations Manual, transponder code **(2000)** should be set 30 minutes after entry into NAT airspace.
90
RVSM In-Flight procedure - when changing levels, the aircraft shall not overshoot or undershoot the cleared flight level by more than **(50/100/150/200)** ft.
RVSM In-Flight procedure - when changing levels, the aircraft shall not overshoot or undershoot the cleared flight level by more than **(150)** ft.
91
A low visibility take-off is a take-off on a runway where the RVR is less than **(...)** m.
A low visibility take-off is a take-off on a runway where the RVR is less than **(400)** m.
92
When conducting a Special VFR flight, the follwoing conditions shall apply:
* **(...)**
* **(...)**
* **(...)**
When conducting a Special VFR flight, the follwoing conditions shall apply:
* **(clear of cloud and with surface in sight)**
* **(visibility not less than 1500 m)**
* **(speed of 140 kt or less)**
93
The abbreviation in 'Part-MED' stand for **(...)**.
The abbreviation in 'Part-MED' stand for **(Medical)**.
94
An operator has to keep records about flight-duty, duty and rest-periods for at least **(12/15/18/24)** months.
An operator has to keep records about flight-duty, duty and rest-periods for at least **(24)** months.
95
On an IFR flight, a commander shall not commence take-off unless the expected weather conditions at the destination and/or required alternate aerodrome(s) are at or above the **(aerodrome/planning)** minima **(at the ETA/during a period from 1h before to 1h after the ETA)**.
On an IFR flight, a commander shall not commence take-off unless the expected weather conditions at the destination and/or required alternate aerodrome(s) are at or above the **(planning)** minima **(at the ETA)**.
96
An airplane with a MOPSC of 501 or more required a minimum of **(...)** first-aid kit(s).
An airplane with a MOPSC of 501 or more required a minimum of **(6)** first-aid kit(s).
97
The battery in a portable emergency locater transmitter (ELT) which is usedafter an emergency landing or ditching should last for **(12/24/48/72)** hours.
The battery in a portable emergency locater transmitter (ELT) which is usedafter an emergency landing or ditching should last for **(48)** hours.
98
For aircraft certified after 31 March 2000, some emergency exits must be equipped with devices so as to help the occupants to get out and reach the ground if their threshold is at a height above the ground greater than **(6/8)** ft, aeroplane on the ground, **(landing gear extended/one or more legs of the landing gear collapsed)**.
For aircraft certified _after 31 March 2000_, some emergency exits must be equipped with devices so as to help the occupants to get out and reach the ground if their threshold is at a height above the ground greater than **(6)** ft, aeroplane on the ground, **(one or more legs of the landing gear collapsed)**.
99
During a conventional approach, the Minimum Descent Height (MDH) is referred to the runway threshold elevation and not to the aerodrome elevation if the runway threshold is at more than **(2 m (7 ft) / 4 m (14 ft) ) (above/below)** the aerodrome elevation.
During a conventional approach, the Minimum Descent Height (MDH) is referred to the runway threshold elevation and not to the aerodrome elevation if the runway threshold is at more than **(2 m (7 ft) ) (below)** the aerodrome elevation.
100
For a Category A aircraft circling, the MDH is **(...)** ft and the minimum meteorological visibility **(...)** m.
For a Category A aircraft circling, the MDH is **(400)** ft and the minimum meteorological visibility **(1500)** m.
101
The minimum flight crew for operations under IFR or at night is 2 pilots for all turbo-prop aeroplanes with a MOPSC of more than **(...)** and for all turbo-jet aeroplanes.
The minimum flight crew _for operations under IFR or at night_ is 2 pilots for all turbo-prop aeroplanes with a MOPSC of more than **(9)** and for all turbo-jet aeroplanes.
102
A two-engine aeroplane has an ETOPS approval for 180 minutes. Those 180 minutes are based on the one engine inoperative speed. The departure aerodrome cannot be used as a take-off alternate because of meteorological conditions. There are no MEL restrictions. The maximum allowed flight time to the take-off alternate is **(60/90/120/180)** minutes.
A two-engine aeroplane has an ETOPS approval for 180 minutes. Those 180 minutes are based on the one engine inoperative speed. _The departure aerodrome cannot be used as a take-off alternate because of meteorological conditions._ There are no MEL restrictions. The maximum allowed flight time to the take-off alternate is **(120)** minutes.
103
All occupants of flight deck seats on flight deck duty in a non-pressurized aircraft must be supplied with supplemental oxygen for the entire flight time at pressure altitudes greater than **(...)** ft.
All occupants of flight deck seats on flight deck duty in a non-pressurized aircraft must be supplied with supplemental oxygen for the entire flight time at pressure altitudes greater than **(10000)** ft.
104
The maximum duration of the basic flight duty period, excluding any extensions, if a crew memeber is acclimatised to the tome zone and if a CAT operation has to be considered is **(...)** hours.
The maximum duration of the basic flight duty period, excluding any extensions, if a crew memeber is acclimatised to the tome zone and if a CAT operation has to be considered is **(13)** hours.
105
After an accident, the operator of an aircraft equipped with a flight recorder must keep the original recordings for a minimum period of **(30/45/60/90)** days.
After an accident, the operator of an aircraft equipped with a flight recorder must keep the original recordings for a minimum period of **(60)** days.
106
Planning minima for ETOPS en route alternate aerodrome for a precision approach is DA/H + **(...)** ft, RMR/VIS + **(...)** ft.
Planning minima for ETOPS en route alternate aerodrome for a precision approach is DA/H + **(200)** ft, RMR/VIS + **(800)** ft.
107
Regulations require that a supply of undiluted oxygen is carried on board pressurized aeroplanes operated at pressure altitudes above 25000 ft. This first-aid oxygen equipment shall be capable of generating a mass flow to each user of at least **(1/2/3/4)** litres STPD per minute.
Regulations require that a supply of undiluted oxygen is carried on board pressurized aeroplanes operated at pressure altitudes above 25000 ft. This first-aid oxygen equipment shall be capable of generating a mass flow to each user of at least **(4)** litres STPD per minute.
108
For a pressurized aeroplane, certificated to fly at altitudes more than 25000 ft, all occupants of flight deck seats on flight deck duty shall be supplied with supplemental oxygen during a period in no case less than **(...)**.
For a pressurized aeroplane, certificated to fly at altitudes _more than 25000 ft,_ all occupants of flight deck seats on flight deck duty shall be supplied with supplemental oxygen during a period in no case less than **(2 hours)**.
109
For twin-engined aircraft, the take-off alternate shall be located at a distance that does not exceed the equivalent of **(one/two)** hour of flight at cruising speed, with **(OEI/all engines operating)**.
For twin-engined aircraft, the take-off alternate shall be located at a distance that does not exceed the equivalent of **(one)** hour of flight at cruising speed, with **(OEI)**.
110
RVR is reported when it falls below **(...)** m.
RVR is reported when it falls below **(1500)** m.
111
A Flight Data Recorder shall be capable of retaining the data recorded during at least the preceding **(...)** hours.
A Flight Data Recorder shall be capable of retaining the data recorded during at least the preceding **(25)** hours.
112
An operator has to keep records on crew member recent experience for **(12/15/18/24)** months.
An operator has to keep records on crew member recent experience for **(15)** months.
113
An operator shall not operate an aeroplane with a maximum approved passenger seating configuration of more than **(9/19)**, and when carrying **(one/five)** or more passengers, unless at least one cabin crew is included.
An operator shall not operate an aeroplane with a maximum approved passenger seating configuration of more than **(19)**, and when carrying **(one)** or more passengers, unless at least one cabin crew is included.
114
The correct action in case an aircraft is exposed to wake turbulence from the preceding aircraft while flying in the MNPS region is to **(...)**.
The correct action in case an aircraft is exposed to wake turbulence from the preceding aircraft while flying in the MNPS region is to **(fly offset to the right)**.
115
Air traffic services may require any flight operating predominantly in an east-west direction to report its position at any of the intermediate meridians spaced at intervals of **(...)** degrees of longitude north of 70°N (between 5°W and 65°W.
Air traffic services may require any flight operating predominantly in an east-west direction to report its position at any of the intermediate meridians spaced at intervals of **(20)** degrees of longitude _north_ of 70°N (between 5°W and 65°W.
116
Personnel records about crew member recent experience shall be stored for a period of **(15/18/24/36)** months.
Personnel records about crew member recent experience shall be stored for a period of **(15)** months.
117
In the case of aeroplanes, pilots that have been issued a type rating based on a zero flight time training (ZFTT) course shall commence line flying under supervision not later than **(15/21/30/60)** days after the completion of the skill test or after appropriate training provided by the operator. The content of such training shall be described in the operations manual.
In the case of aeroplanes, pilots that have been issued a type rating based on a zero flight time training (ZFTT) course shall commence line flying under supervision not later than **(21)** days after the completion of the skill test or after appropriate training provided by the operator. The content of such training shall be described in the operations manual.
118
The abbreviation in 'Part-SPA' stand for **(...)**.
The abbreviation in 'Part-SPA' stand for **(Specific Approvals)**.
119
In normal circumstances, one cabin crew member for every **(...)** passenger seats **(installed/occupied)** on the same deck is required.
In normal circumstances, one cabin crew member for every **(50)** passenger seats **(installed)** on the same deck is required.
120
VAT is **(VSO/VS1G)** • **(...)**.
VAT is **(VSO)** • **(1.3)**.
121
During the flight of two aircraft in MNPS airspace with a leading aircraft flying at higher speed, the longitudinal separation must nog be below **(...)** minutes.
During the flight of two aircraft in MNPS airspace with _a leading aircraft flying at higher speed_, the longitudinal separation must nog be below **(5)** minutes.
122
An operator shall not operate an aeroplane certificated to EASA CS-25, across an area in which search and rescue would be especially difficult, without survival equipment if it flies away from an area suitable for making an emergency landing at a distance greater than **(30/60/90/120)** minutes at cruising speed.
An operator shall not operate an aeroplane certificated to EASA CS-25, across an area in which search and rescue would be especially difficult, without survival equipment if it flies away from an area suitable for making an emergency landing at a distance greater than **(90)** minutes at cruising speed.
123
An aircraft with a MOPSC of 201 - 300 must be equipped with at least **(...)** hand fire extinguisher(s) conveniently located in the passenger compartment.
An aircraft with a MOPSC of 201 - 300 must be equipped with at least **(4)** hand fire extinguisher(s) conveniently located in the passenger compartment.
124
**(Differences/Familarisation)** training requires the acquisition of additional knowledge and training on an appropriate training device or the aircraft.
**(Differences)** training requires the acquisition of additional knowledge and training on an appropriate training device or the aircraft.
125
During a transoceanic and polar flight, the chart precession is a rotation in degrees, for a moving aircraft, of the Gyro North with respect to the **(True/Grid)** North for **(any/a given)** chart.
During a transoceanic and polar flight, the chart precession is a rotation in degrees, for a moving aircraft, of the Gyro North with respect to the **(Grid)** North for **(a given)** chart.
126
ICAO Annex 6 defines 'flight time' for aeroplanes as **(...)**.
ICAO Annex 6 defines 'flight time' for aeroplanes as **(block to block)**.
## Footnote
*- chocks off chocks on -*
127
The number of spare fuses available for use in flight must be at least **(5/10/20)**% of the number of fuses of each rating, or **(1/2/3)** of each rating, whichever is greater.
The number of spare fuses available for use in flight must be at least **(10)**% of the number of fuses of each rating, or **(3)** of each rating, whichever is greater.
128
In accordance with EASA AIR OPS, 10 % of the passengers in a non-pressurised aircraft shall be supplied with supplemental oxygen for the entire flight time after 30 minutes at pressure altitudes greater than 10 000 ft but not exceeding **(13/14/15)**000 ft.
In accordance with EASA AIR OPS, 10 % of the passengers in a _non-pressurised_ aircraft shall be supplied with supplemental oxygen for the entire flight time after 30 minutes at pressure altitudes greater than 10 000 ft but not exceeding **(13)**000 ft.
129
The abbreviation in 'Part-CC' stand for **(...)**.
The abbreviation in 'Part-CC' stand for **(Cabin Crew)**.
130
Dry lease means that the aircraft is operated under the AOC of the **(lessor/lessee)**.
Dry lease means that the aircraft is operated under the AOC of the **(lessee)**.
131
When approaching a cleared flight level in RVSM airspace, the vertical speed should not exceed **(350/750/1500/2000)** ft/min.
When approaching a cleared flight level in RVSM airspace, the vertical speed should not exceed **(1500)** ft/min.
132
Astronomic precession causes the gyro axis to spin to the **(left/right)** in the Southern Hemisphere.
Astronomic precession causes the gyro axis to spin to the **(left)** in the Southern Hemisphere.
133
(The) **(ICAO/EASA/operator/member state)** should conduct investigations, including ramp inspections, to prevent the continuation of infringements, for example after an aircraft has parked overnight and should be used of a flight.
The **(member state)** should conduct investigations, including _ramp inspections_, to prevent the continuation of infringements, for example after an aircraft has parked overnight and should be used of a flight.
134
The abbreviation in 'Part-ORA' stand for **(...)**.
The abbreviation in 'Part-ORA' stand for **(Organisation Requirements for Air crew)**.
135
For a pressurized aeroplane, certificated to fly at altitudes less than 25000 ft, all occupants of flight deck seats on flight deck duty shall be supplied with supplemental oxygen during a period in no case less than **(...)**.
For a pressurized aeroplane, certificated to fly at altitudes _less than 25000 ft,_ all occupants of flight deck seats on flight deck duty shall be supplied with supplemental oxygen during a period in no case less than **(30 minutes)**.
136
For a Category C aircraft circling, the MDH is **(...)** ft and the minimum meteorological visibility **(...)** m.
For a Category C aircraft circling, the MDH is **(600)** ft and the minimum meteorological visibility **(2400)** m.
137
If a flight is planned to operate along the whole length of one of the organised tracks in the MNPS airspace, the intended organised track should be defined in items of the flight plan by the abbreviation **(NAT/OTS)** followed by the code letter assigned to the track.
If a flight is planned to operate along the whole length of one of the organised tracks in the MNPS airspace, the intended organised track should be defined in items of the flight plan by the abbreviation **(NAT)** followed by the code letter assigned to the track.
138
The abbreviation OTS means **(...)**.
The abbreviation OTS means **(Organised Track System)**.
139
For a CAT I precision approach, the DH cannot be lower than **(...)** ft with either a visibility not less than **(...)** m or an RVR not less than **(...)** m, **(...)** for helicopters.
For a CAT I precision approach, the DH cannot be lower than **(200)** ft with either a visibility not less than **(800)** m or an RVR not less than **(550)** m, **(500)** for helicopters.
140
Wet lease means that the aircraft is operated under the AOC of the **(lessor/lessee)**.
Wet lease means that the aircraft is operated under the AOC of the **(lessor)**.
141
An airplane with a MOPSC of 401 - 500 required a minimum of **(...)** first-aid kit(s).
An airplane with a MOPSC of 401 - 500 required a minimum of **(5)** first-aid kit(s).
142
The standard lateral seperation minima to be maintained between aircraft flying in NAT MNPS airspace is **(...)** NM.
The standard lateral seperation minima to be maintained between aircraft flying in NAT MNPS airspace is **(60)** NM.
143
Planning minima for a destination alternate with a CAT III approach available is **(...)**.
Planning minima for a destination alternate with a CAT III approach available is **(CAT I RVR)**.
144
Aeroplanes with a MCTOM of \> **(5700/27000)** kg or a MOPSC of \> **(9/19)** are to be equipped with an ACAS.
Aeroplanes with a MCTOM of \> **(5700)** kg or a MOPSC of \> **(19)** are to be equipped with an ACAS.
145
ICAO's Annex 6, Part I SARPs refer to **(Helicopters/CAT - Aeroplanes/General Aviation - Aeroplanes)**.
ICAO's Annex 6, Part I SARPs refer to **(CAT - Aeroplanes)**.
146
An airplane with a MOPSC of 101 - 200 required a minimum of **(...)** first-aid kit(s).
An airplane with a MOPSC of 101 - 200 required a minimum of **(2)** first-aid kit(s).
147
On arriving overhead an isolated aerodrome, a turbojet engined aircraft should have a minimum quantity of fuel (additional reserve including final reserve) sufficient for flying during **(...)**.
On arriving overhead an isolated aerodrome, a turbojet engined aircraft should have a minimum quantity of fuel (additional reserve including final reserve) sufficient for flying during **(2 hours with normal cruise consumption)**.
148
The minimum rest period before a flight duty which starts at the crewmember's home base shall be **(...)** hours.
The minimum rest period before a flight duty which starts at the crewmember's home base shall be **(12)** hours.
149
A life jacket for each person on board shall be provided for:
(1) landplanes operated over water at a distance of more than **(...)** NM from the shore or [...]; and
(2) seaplanes operated over water.
A life jacket for each person on board shall be provided for:
(1) landplanes operated over water at a distance of more than **(50)** NM from the shore or [...]; and
(2) seaplanes operated over water.
150
The time frame when referring to the Window of Circadion Low (WOCL) is from **(...)** until **(...)**.
The time frame when referring to the Window of Circadion Low (WOCL) is from **(02:00)** until **(05:59)**.
151
A single deck aeroplane, with a MOPSC of 61 to 99 carrying at least one passenger shall be equipped with at least **(...)** megaphone(s).
A single deck aeroplane, with a MOPSC of 61 to 99 carrying at least one passenger shall be equipped with at least **(1)** megaphone(s).
152
Pilots that have been issued a type rating based on a zero flight time training (ZFTT) course shall commence line flying under supervision not later than **(15/21/30/60)** days after the completion of the skill test or after appropriate training provided by the operator.
Pilots that have been issued a type rating based on a zero flight time training (ZFTT) course shall commence line flying under supervision not later than **(21)** days after the completion of the skill test or after appropriate training provided by the operator.
153
The operator shall only conduct CAT II, OTS CAT II or CAT III operations if all height call-outs below **(200/500)** ft above the **(aerodrome/threshold)** elevation are determined by a radio altimeter.
The operator shall only conduct CAT II, OTS CAT II or CAT III operations if all height call-outs below **(200)** ft above the **(threshold)** elevation are determined by a radio altimeter.
154
The **(dispatcher/operator/commander)** shall establish minimum flight altitudes for all route segments to be flown.
The **(operator)** shall establish minimum flight altitudes for all route segments to be flown.
155
A polar track is a track part of which is included in an area where the horizontal component of the earth magnetic field is less than **(...)** micro-tesla.
A polar track is a track part of which is included in an area where the horizontal component of the earth magnetic field is less than **(6)** micro-tesla.
156
An aircraft with a MOPSC of 301 - 400 must be equipped with at least **(...)** hand fire extinguisher(s) conveniently located in the passenger compartment.
An aircraft with a MOPSC of 301 - 400 must be equipped with at least **(5)** hand fire extinguisher(s) conveniently located in the passenger compartment.
157
The operator must ensure that the information contained in the aircraft technical log is stored for a minimum period of **(****3/12/24/36)** months.
The operator must ensure that the information contained in the aircraft technical log is stored for a minimum period of **(36)** months.
158
An aircraft with a MOPSC of 61 - 200 must be equipped with at least **(...)** hand fire extinguisher(s) conveniently located in the passenger compartment.
An aircraft with a MOPSC of 61 - 200 must be equipped with at least **(3)** hand fire extinguisher(s) conveniently located in the passenger compartment.
159
During a VOR procedure, if the reported RVR/visibility is less than the applicable minima, the approach shall not be continued beyond **(...)**.
During a VOR procedure, if the reported RVR/visibility is less than the applicable minima, the approach shall not be continued beyond **(1000 ft above aerodrome on the final approach segment)**.
160
For a CAT IIIa precision approach, the DH cannot be lower than **(...)** ft with an RVR not less than **(...)** m.
For a CAT IIIa precision approach, the DH cannot be lower than **(100)** ft with an RVR not less than **(200)** m.
161
During the flight of two aircraft in MNPS airspace with both aircraft flying the same Mach number, the longitudinal separation must nog be below **(...)** minutes.
During the flight of two aircraft in MNPS airspace with _both aircraft flying the same Mach number_, the longitudinal separation must nog be below **(15)** minutes.
162
The validity period of a night-time **(eastbound/westbound)** organised track system in MNPS airspace is normally at 30°W, between **(...)** UTC and **(...)** UTC.
The validity period of a night-time **(eastbound)** organised track system in MNPS airspace is normally at 30°W, between **(0100)** UTC and **(0800)** UTC.
163
The abbreviation in 'Part-ARO' stand for **(...)**.
The abbreviation in 'Part-ARO' stand for **(Authority Requirements for Air Operators)**.
164
Planning minima for a destination alternate with a CAT II approach available is **(...)**.
Planning minima for a destination alternate with a CAT II approach available is **(CAT I RVR)**.
165
Air traffic services may require any flight operating predominantly in an east-west direction to report its position at any of the intermediate meridians spaced at intervals of **(...)** degrees of longitude south of 70°N (between 5°W and 65°W.
Air traffic services may require any flight operating predominantly in an east-west direction to report its position at any of the intermediate meridians spaced at intervals of **(10)** degrees of longitude _south_ of 70°N (between 5°W and 65°W.
166
300 ft is the lowest DH/MDH for **(...)**.
300 ft is the lowest DH/MDH for **(SRA 1, VOR (50 ft less if combined with DME) )**.
