032.04 + .05 CS-25/APPLICABLE OPERATIONAL REQUIREMENTS PERFORMANCE CLASS A

Question 1

The initial airborne phase (take-off climb) is devided into 4 segments, each with a specified aircraft configuration and speed. The critical engine is assumed to have failed at the (V₁/V₂/V_EF/V_MCG) speed.

Answer 1

The initial airborne phase (take-off climb) is devided into 4 segments, each with a specified aircraft configuration and speed. The critical engine is assumed to have failed at the (V_EF) speed.

Question 2

V₁ may not be (less/more) than V_MCG and not (less/more) than V_R.

Answer 2

V₁ may not be (less) than V_MCG and not (more) than V_R.

Question 3

Aircraft Classification Number (ACN) should usually be (lower/higher) than the Pavement Classification Number (PCN).

Answer 3

Aircraft Classification Number (ACN) should usually be (lower) than the Pavement Classification Number (PCN).

Question 4

V_R may not be less than V₁ or (…) V_MC.

Answer 4

V_R may not be less than V₁ or (1.05) V_MC.

Question 5

Performance class A screen height of the take-off distance for a dry runway is (…) ft.

Answer 5

Performance class A screen height of the take-off distance for a dry runway is (35) ft.

Question 6

Performance class A screen height of the take-off distance for a wet runway is (…) ft.

Answer 6

Performance class A screen height of the take-off distance for a wet runway is (15) ft.

Question 7

Take-Off Distance is the (lesser/greater) of the following:

• Distance to t/o and climb to 35 ft over runway with all engines operating + (…)%
• Distance to t/o and climb to 35 ft over runway with critical engine inop.

Answer 7

Take-Off Distance is the (greater) of the following:

• Distance to t/o and climb to 35 ft over runway with all engines operating + (15)%
• Distance to t/o and climb to 35 ft over runway with critical engine inop.

Question 8

V_MU is the (…) speed.

Answer 8

V_MU is the (minimum unstick) speed.

Question 9

A (low/high) runway elevation and a (headwind/tailwind) would most likely lead to a tire speed limited take-off.

Answer 9

A (high) runway elevation and a (tailwind) would most likely lead to a tire speed limited take-off.

- require higher TAS for lift-off -

Question 10

In the event that take-off mass is obstacle limited and the take-off flight path includes a turn, the bank angle should not exceed (…)° up to a height of 400 ft.

Answer 10

In the event that take-off mass is obstacle limited and the take-off flight path includes a turn, the bank angle should not exceed (15)° up to a height of 400 ft.

Question 11

V_{Max Tyre} can limit the V_LOF. (IAS/CAS/TAS/GS) can be directly used to determine this limitation.

Answer 11

V_{Max Tyre} can limit the V_LOF. (GS) can be directly used to determine this limitation.

Question 12

For rigid (R) pavements, occasional movements by aircraft with ACN not exceeding (…)% above the reported PCN should not adversely affect the pavement.

Answer 12

For rigid (R) pavements, occasional movements by aircraft with ACN not exceeding (5)% above the reported PCN should not adversely affect the pavement.

Question 13

For flexible (F) pavements, occasional movements by aircraft with ACN not exceeding (…)% above the reported PCN should not adversely affect the pavement.

Answer 13

For flexible (F) pavements, occasional movements by aircraft with ACN not exceeding (10)% above the reported PCN should not adversely affect the pavement.

Question 14

The first segment of the take-off flight path ends at (…).

Answer 14

The first segment of the take-off flight path ends at (completion of gear retraction).

Question 15

V_{2 MIN} may not be less than:

• (…) V_SR for turbojets and 2 and 3 engined turpoprops
• (…) V_SR for turbojects with provisionf for obtaining a significant reduction in the OEI power-on stall speed and 4 engined turboprops
• (…) V_MCA

Answer 15

V_{2 MIN} may not be less than:

• (1.13) V_SR for turbojets and 2 and 3 engined turpoprops
• (1.08) V_SR for turbojects with provisionf for obtaining a significant reduction in the OEI power-on stall speed and 4 engined turboprops
• (1.1) V_MCA

Question 16

• ‘Contaminated runway’* means a runway of which more than (25/50/75/100)% of the runway surface area within the required length and width being used is covered by the following:
  (a) surface water more than (…) mm deep, or by the equivalent slush, or loose snow;
  (b) compacted snow; or
  (c) ice, including wet ice.

Answer 16

• ‘Contaminated runway’* means a runway of which more than (25)% of the runway surface area within the required length and width being used is covered by the following:
  (a) surface water more than (3) mm deep, or by the equivalent slush, or loose snow;
  (b) compacted snow; or
  (c) ice, including wet ice.

Question 17

State whether a down slope will increase, decrease, or not affect the following:

• ASD
• V_R rotation speed
• Tire speed limtied take-off mass

Answer 17

State whether a down slope will increase, decrease, or not affect the following:

• ASD → decrease
• V_R rotation speed → not affected
• Tire speed limtied take-off mass → not affected

Question 18

State whether a down slope will increase, decrease, or not affect the following:

• Take-off Distance
• V₁ decision speed
• V₂ take-off safety speed
• V_MBE limited take-off mass

Answer 18

State whether a down slope will increase, decrease, or not affect the following:

• Take-off Distance → decrease
• V₁ decision speed → decrease
• V₂ take-off safety speed → not affected
• V_MBE limited take-off mass → decrease

Question 19

The take-off distance must not exceed the take-off distance available, witha clearway distance not exceeding (…)% of the take-off run available (TORA).

Answer 19

The take-off distance must not exceed the take-off distance available, witha clearway distance not exceeding (50)% of the take-off run available (TORA).

Question 20

Following an engine failure before V₁ anda llowing for a pilot reaction time of (…) second(s), a correctly loaded class A aircraft must be capable of decelerating to a stop within the (TODA/ASDA).

Answer 20

Following an engine failure before V₁ anda llowing for a pilot reaction time of (2) second(s), a correctly loaded class A aircraft must be capable of decelerating to a stop within the (ASDA).

Question 21

The one engine out take-off run is the distance between the brake release point and the (lift-off point / point where V₂ is reached / middle of segment between V_LOF point and 35 ft point / the point halfway between V₁ and V₂).

Answer 21

The one engine out take-off run is the distance between the brake release point and the (middle of segment between V_LOF point and 35 ft point).

Question 22

The obstacle clearance area for aeroplanes with a wingspan > 60 m is defined as: (30/50/60/90) m + (0.125/0.250/1.125/1.5) • distance from end of TODA.

Answer 22

The obstacle clearance area for aeroplanes with a wingspan > 60 m is defined as: (90) m + (0.125) • distance from end of TODA.

Question 23

The obstacle clearance area for aeroplanes with a wingspan < 60 m is defined as: (30/50/60/90) m + (0.25/0.5/0.75/2) • wingspan + (0.125/0.250/1.125/1.5) • distance from end of TODA.

Answer 23

The obstacle clearance area for aeroplanes with a wingspan < 60 m is defined as: (60) m + (0.5) • wingspan + (0.125) • distance from end of TODA.

Question 24

Cost Index is (cost of fuel/operating costs/distance travelled/total costs) devided by (distance travelled/cost of fuel).

Answer 24

Cost Index is (hourely operating costs) devided by (cost of fuel)​.

Question 25

The net flight path of an aircraft with OEI shall clear vertically by at least (…) ft, all terrain and obstructions along the route within 5 NM on either side of the intended track.

Answer 25

The net flight path of an aircraft with OEI shall clear vertically by at least (2000) ft, all terrain and obstructions along the route within 5 NM on either side of the intended track.

Question 26

In case of an engine failure above OEI ceiling, the best speed to descent is (V_S1g/V_MP/V_MD), for jets this is (V_X/V_Y), for propeller aircraft this is (V_X/V_Y).

Answer 26

In case of an engine failure above OEI ceiling, the best speed to descent is (V_MD), for jets this is (V_X), for propeller aircraft this is (V_Y).

Question 27

According to EASA AIR OPS, the required runway length at a destination airport is (greater than/less than/the same as)​ that required at an alternate airport.

Answer 27

According to EASA AIR OPS, the required runway length at a destination airport is (the same as) that required at an alternate airport.

- For both jets and props. -

Question 28

The maximum mass for landing could be limited by the climb requirements with (all engines operative/OEI) in the (approach/landing) configuration with gear (retracted/extended) and flaps (approach/land)​.

Answer 28

The maximum mass for landing could be limited by the climb requirements with (OEI) in the (approach) configuration with gear (retracted) and flaps (approach).

Question 29

In accordance with CS-25, V_REF (reference landing speed) has to be at least (…) • V_SR0 (stall speed in landing config.).

Answer 29

In accordance with CS-25, V_REF (reference landing speed) has to be at least (1.23) • V_SR0 (stall speed in landing config.).