03.01 - Hematopoiesis Flashcards

1
Q

When a cell divides to give rise to similar cell types, it is said to exhibit ________________.

A

Symmetric division

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Embryonic stem cells can develop into the three germ layers. This is an example of:

a. Totipotency
b. Pluripotency
c. Oligopotency
d. Unipotency

A

b. Pluripotency

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

The ability to form specific cell types from the three germ layers describes what type of potency?

a. Totipotency
b. Pluripotency
c. Oligopotency
d. Unipotency

A

c. Oligopotency

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Cardiac cells cannot give rise to nerve cells. This is because cardiac cells are:

a. Totipotent
b. Pluripotent
c. Oligopotent
d. Unipotent

A

d. Unipotent

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Hematopoietic stem cells:

a. Are pluripotent
b. Give rise to RBC, WBC and platelets
c. Are unipotent
d. A and B

A

b. Give rise to RBC, WBC and platelets

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

The common myeloid progenitor (CMP) gives rise to all of the following except:

a. Platelets
b. Neutrophils
c. Lymphocytes
d. Dendritic Cells

A

c. Lymphocytes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Differentiation of hematopoietic stem cells happen in which part of the body?

a. Blood
b. Thymus
c. Bone marrow
d. Liver

A

c. Bone marrow

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is the physiological consequence of the biconcave shape of erythrocytes?

a. Increased affinity for oxygen
b. Increased unloading of oxygen
c. Increased surface area
d. None of the above

A

c. Increased surface area

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Which of the following does not describe an RBC?

a. Biconcave and with central pallor
b. Anucleated
c. Transports carbon dioxide
d. Appears pale blue under the microscope

A

d. Appears pale blue under the microscope

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

These are a nucleated granules that form clots in times of tissue injury.

A

Platelets/thrombocytes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Enumerate the three granular leukocytes.

A

Neutrophils
Eosinophils
Basophils

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

While observing a peripheral blood smear under a microscope, you see a cell with pale pink granules and segmented, multi-lobed nucleus. This cell is most likely:

a. Involved in adaptive immune responses
b. Mediates systemic allergic responses
c. Responds to parasitic infections
d. Phagocytoses bacteria

A

d. Phagocytoses bacteria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Which of the following does not pertain to an eosinophil?

a. Large red to purple granules
b. Responds to viral infections
c. Counteracts local allergic responses
d. Bilobed nucleus

A

b. Responds to viral infections

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Basophils:

a. Have a bilobed nucleus
b. Are characterised by large blue granules in the cytoplasm
c. Are present in very large amounts
d. Releases histamine

A

c. Are present in very large amounts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Which of the following does not describe monocytes?

a. Precursor to macrophages
b. Indented or kidney-shaped nucleus
c. Can be found only in the lungs and liver
d. Non-granular

A

c. Can be found only in the lungs and liver

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

All of the following describes natural killer (NK) cells except:

a. Are part of innate immunity
b. Use target-oriented granules to kill target cells
c. Originate from a myeloid progenitor
d. Can attack tumor cells

A

c. Originate from a myeloid progenitor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Dendritic cells:

a. Are antigen-presenting cells
b. Possess antibodies on its surface
c. Can come from both myeloid and lymphoid progenitor
d. A and C

A

d. A and C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What hormone signals hematopoietic stem cells in the bone marrow to make more RBCs?

A

Erythropoietin (Epo)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Epo:

a. Is made in the liver
b. Increases when there is hypoxia
c. Increases WBC count
d. A and B

A

b. Increases when there is hypoxia (It is made in the kidneys.)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What growth factors are responsible for stimulating the differentiation of hematopoietic stem cells into CMP?

A

SCF and Tpo

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What growth factors stimulates the production of megakaryote and erythroid progenitors from CMP?

A

SCF, Tpo, and IL-3

22
Q

It is the earliest recognisable committed cell that ultimately gives rise to erythrocytes.

A

Proerythroblast

23
Q

This developmental stage of erythropoiesis is characterised by active synthesis of ribosomes, which is responsible for basophilic stippling.

A

Early erythroblast/basophilic erythroblast

24
Q

In erythropoiesis, in what stage does mitosis last occur?

A

Late erythroblast/polychromatophilic erythroblast

25
Accumulation of haemoglobin is a defining characteristic of what development stage of erythropoiesis?
Late erythroblast/polychromatophilic erythroblast
26
This is the first development stage in erythropoiesis that does not undergo mitosis.
Normoblast/orthochromatophilic erythroblast
27
In what developmental stage of erythropoiesis does ejection of the nucleus happen?
Normoblast/orthochromatophilic erythroblast
28
Increased reticulocyte count may be indicative of: a. Decreased production of RBCs b. Possible hemolytic anemia c. High oxygen concentrations d. None of the above
b. Possible hemolytic anemia (Increased reticulocyte count corresponds to the compensatory production of RBCs due to the erythrocyte destruction in hemolytic anemia.)
29
What growth factor is responsible for the differentiation of megakaryocyte progenitor cells into megakaryocytes?
Thrombopoietin (Tpo)
30
Common myeloid progenitor (CMP) cells differentiate into granulocyte and macrophage progenitors (GMP) in the presence of which growth factor?
GM-CSF (granulocyte-macrophage colony-stimulating factor)
31
Granulocyte progenitor develops from GMP in the presence of _______________.
G-CSF (granulocyte colony-stimulating factor)
32
What growth factors are responsible for development of neutrophils, eosinophils, and basophils?
G-CSF, SCF, IL-3, IL-5
33
It is the earliest recognisable stage in granulopoiesis.
Myeloblast
34
In granulopoiesis, this is the last stage where mitosis occurs.
Myelocyte
35
This is the first stage in granulopoiesis where mitosis does not occur.
Metamyelocyte
36
Which of the following may explain an increase in the number of band cells? a. Hypoxia b. Severe bacterial infection c. Blood loss d. Auto-immune disease
b. Severe bacterial infection
37
What growth factor is responsible for the development of macrophage progenitor (MP) from GMP in monopoiesis?
M-CSF (macrophage colony-stimulating factor)
38
MP differentiates into macrophages, monocytes, and dendritic cells when __________ is present.
M-CSF (macrophage colony-stimulating factor)
39
Macrophages: a. Are involved in both innate and adaptive immune response b. Produces cytokines c. Phagocytose foreign material and present antigens to lymphocytes d. All of the above
d. All of the above
40
What is the direct precursor of macrophages and dendritic cells from the myeloid cell line?
Monocytes
41
What growth factor is responsible for the differentiation of common lymphoid progenitor (CLP) from hematopoietic stem cells?
IL-7
42
When IL-7 and IL-2 are both present, CLP differentiates into:
TCP (T-cell progenitor)
43
When only IL-7 is present, CLP differentiates into:
BCP (B-cell progenitor)
44
BCP is stimulated to become mature B-cells by:
IL-4
45
Further stimulation of TCP by IL-7 and IL-2 will yield:
Mature T-cells (helper and cytotoxic T cells)
46
What growth factor is responsible for the maturation of NKP into natural killer cells?
IL-5
47
Which of the following does not describe T-cells? a. Produced in the bone marrow b. Differentiate in the thymus c. Undergoes positive and negative selection d. None of the above
d. None of the above
48
B-cells: a. May either become plasma or memory cells b. Differentiates in the spleen and other lymph nodes c. Produced in the bone marrow d. All of the above.
d. All of the above.
49
Which of the following is incorrectly matched? a. yolk sac - 1st few weeks b. liver - 6th week c. spleen - 10th week d. bone marrow - 5 years
d. bone marrow - 5 years
50
These are the main post-natal sites of hematopoiesis during childhood.
Tibia and femur (long bones)
51
In adulthood, hematopoiesis occurs in:
Short bones (e.g. ribs, sternum, vertebrae, pelvis)