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Hematology and Immunology > 03.01 - Hematopoiesis > Flashcards

03.01 - Hematopoiesis Flashcards

1
Q

When a cell divides to give rise to similar cell types, it is said to exhibit ________________.

A

Symmetric division

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2
Q

Embryonic stem cells can develop into the three germ layers. This is an example of:

a. Totipotency
b. Pluripotency
c. Oligopotency
d. Unipotency

A

b. Pluripotency

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3
Q

The ability to form specific cell types from the three germ layers describes what type of potency?

a. Totipotency
b. Pluripotency
c. Oligopotency
d. Unipotency

A

c. Oligopotency

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4
Q

Cardiac cells cannot give rise to nerve cells. This is because cardiac cells are:

a. Totipotent
b. Pluripotent
c. Oligopotent
d. Unipotent

A

d. Unipotent

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5
Q

Hematopoietic stem cells:

a. Are pluripotent
b. Give rise to RBC, WBC and platelets
c. Are unipotent
d. A and B

A

b. Give rise to RBC, WBC and platelets

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6
Q

The common myeloid progenitor (CMP) gives rise to all of the following except:

a. Platelets
b. Neutrophils
c. Lymphocytes
d. Dendritic Cells

A

c. Lymphocytes

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7
Q

Differentiation of hematopoietic stem cells happen in which part of the body?

a. Blood
b. Thymus
c. Bone marrow
d. Liver

A

c. Bone marrow

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8
Q

What is the physiological consequence of the biconcave shape of erythrocytes?

a. Increased affinity for oxygen
b. Increased unloading of oxygen
c. Increased surface area
d. None of the above

A

c. Increased surface area

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9
Q

Which of the following does not describe an RBC?

a. Biconcave and with central pallor
b. Anucleated
c. Transports carbon dioxide
d. Appears pale blue under the microscope

A

d. Appears pale blue under the microscope

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10
Q

These are a nucleated granules that form clots in times of tissue injury.

A

Platelets/thrombocytes

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11
Q

Enumerate the three granular leukocytes.

A

Neutrophils
Eosinophils
Basophils

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12
Q

While observing a peripheral blood smear under a microscope, you see a cell with pale pink granules and segmented, multi-lobed nucleus. This cell is most likely:

a. Involved in adaptive immune responses
b. Mediates systemic allergic responses
c. Responds to parasitic infections
d. Phagocytoses bacteria

A

d. Phagocytoses bacteria

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13
Q

Which of the following does not pertain to an eosinophil?

a. Large red to purple granules
b. Responds to viral infections
c. Counteracts local allergic responses
d. Bilobed nucleus

A

b. Responds to viral infections

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14
Q

Basophils:

a. Have a bilobed nucleus
b. Are characterised by large blue granules in the cytoplasm
c. Are present in very large amounts
d. Releases histamine

A

c. Are present in very large amounts

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15
Q

Which of the following does not describe monocytes?

a. Precursor to macrophages
b. Indented or kidney-shaped nucleus
c. Can be found only in the lungs and liver
d. Non-granular

A

c. Can be found only in the lungs and liver

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16
Q

All of the following describes natural killer (NK) cells except:

a. Are part of innate immunity
b. Use target-oriented granules to kill target cells
c. Originate from a myeloid progenitor
d. Can attack tumor cells

A

c. Originate from a myeloid progenitor

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17
Q

Dendritic cells:

a. Are antigen-presenting cells
b. Possess antibodies on its surface
c. Can come from both myeloid and lymphoid progenitor
d. A and C

A

d. A and C

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18
Q

What hormone signals hematopoietic stem cells in the bone marrow to make more RBCs?

A

Erythropoietin (Epo)

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19
Q

Epo:

a. Is made in the liver
b. Increases when there is hypoxia
c. Increases WBC count
d. A and B

A

b. Increases when there is hypoxia (It is made in the kidneys.)

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20
Q

What growth factors are responsible for stimulating the differentiation of hematopoietic stem cells into CMP?

A

SCF and Tpo

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21
Q

What growth factors stimulates the production of megakaryote and erythroid progenitors from CMP?

A

SCF, Tpo, and IL-3

22
Q

It is the earliest recognisable committed cell that ultimately gives rise to erythrocytes.

A

Proerythroblast

23
Q

This developmental stage of erythropoiesis is characterised by active synthesis of ribosomes, which is responsible for basophilic stippling.

A

Early erythroblast/basophilic erythroblast

24
Q

In erythropoiesis, in what stage does mitosis last occur?

A

Late erythroblast/polychromatophilic erythroblast

25
Q

Accumulation of haemoglobin is a defining characteristic of what development stage of erythropoiesis?

A

Late erythroblast/polychromatophilic erythroblast

26
Q

This is the first development stage in erythropoiesis that does not undergo mitosis.

A

Normoblast/orthochromatophilic erythroblast

27
Q

In what developmental stage of erythropoiesis does ejection of the nucleus happen?

A

Normoblast/orthochromatophilic erythroblast

28
Q

Increased reticulocyte count may be indicative of:

a. Decreased production of RBCs
b. Possible hemolytic anemia
c. High oxygen concentrations
d. None of the above

A

b. Possible hemolytic anemia (Increased reticulocyte count corresponds to the compensatory production of RBCs due to the erythrocyte destruction in hemolytic anemia.)

29
Q

What growth factor is responsible for the differentiation of megakaryocyte progenitor cells into megakaryocytes?

A

Thrombopoietin (Tpo)

30
Q

Common myeloid progenitor (CMP) cells differentiate into granulocyte and macrophage progenitors (GMP) in the presence of which growth factor?

A

GM-CSF (granulocyte-macrophage colony-stimulating factor)

31
Q

Granulocyte progenitor develops from GMP in the presence of _______________.

A

G-CSF (granulocyte colony-stimulating factor)

32
Q

What growth factors are responsible for development of neutrophils, eosinophils, and basophils?

A

G-CSF, SCF, IL-3, IL-5

33
Q

It is the earliest recognisable stage in granulopoiesis.

A

Myeloblast

34
Q

In granulopoiesis, this is the last stage where mitosis occurs.

A

Myelocyte

35
Q

This is the first stage in granulopoiesis where mitosis does not occur.

A

Metamyelocyte

36
Q

Which of the following may explain an increase in the number of band cells?

a. Hypoxia
b. Severe bacterial infection
c. Blood loss
d. Auto-immune disease

A

b. Severe bacterial infection

37
Q

What growth factor is responsible for the development of macrophage progenitor (MP) from GMP in monopoiesis?

A

M-CSF (macrophage colony-stimulating factor)

38
Q

MP differentiates into macrophages, monocytes, and dendritic cells when __________ is present.

A

M-CSF (macrophage colony-stimulating factor)

39
Q

Macrophages:

a. Are involved in both innate and adaptive immune response
b. Produces cytokines
c. Phagocytose foreign material and present antigens to lymphocytes
d. All of the above

A

d. All of the above

40
Q

What is the direct precursor of macrophages and dendritic cells from the myeloid cell line?

A

Monocytes

41
Q

What growth factor is responsible for the differentiation of common lymphoid progenitor (CLP) from hematopoietic stem cells?

A

IL-7

42
Q

When IL-7 and IL-2 are both present, CLP differentiates into:

A

TCP (T-cell progenitor)

43
Q

When only IL-7 is present, CLP differentiates into:

A

BCP (B-cell progenitor)

44
Q

BCP is stimulated to become mature B-cells by:

A

IL-4

45
Q

Further stimulation of TCP by IL-7 and IL-2 will yield:

A

Mature T-cells (helper and cytotoxic T cells)

46
Q

What growth factor is responsible for the maturation of NKP into natural killer cells?

A

IL-5

47
Q

Which of the following does not describe T-cells?

a. Produced in the bone marrow
b. Differentiate in the thymus
c. Undergoes positive and negative selection
d. None of the above

A

d. None of the above

48
Q

B-cells:

a. May either become plasma or memory cells
b. Differentiates in the spleen and other lymph nodes
c. Produced in the bone marrow
d. All of the above.

A

d. All of the above.

49
Q

Which of the following is incorrectly matched?

a. yolk sac - 1st few weeks
b. liver - 6th week
c. spleen - 10th week
d. bone marrow - 5 years

A

d. bone marrow - 5 years

50
Q

These are the main post-natal sites of hematopoiesis during childhood.

A

Tibia and femur (long bones)

51
Q

In adulthood, hematopoiesis occurs in:

A

Short bones (e.g. ribs, sternum, vertebrae, pelvis)

Hematology and Immunology (3 decks)

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