03/06 mutations Flashcards

1
Q

what is ROS

A

oxidative radicals that can lead to oxidative damage when in overaccumulation

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2
Q

are ROS induced or spontaneous exclusively?

A

they occur naturally and spontaneously, but when under a certain mutagen, they can be induced into overaccumulation

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3
Q

how does ROS cause mutations

A

it changes the nucleotides which changes the base pairing and hydrogen bonding

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4
Q

if a mutation occurs by ROS and is not repaired before replication, would this affect gene expression

A

yes, it did not get repaired and is passed down

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5
Q

how does the body prevent overaccumulation of ROS

A

enzymes like superoxide dismutase and catalase

as well as antioxidants

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6
Q

if there is an increase in reactive oxygen species due to an environmental variable (high amounts of physiological stress or ingesting a toxin), then this would be considered an induced mutation

A

true

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7
Q

what is a trinucleotide repeat expansion (TRNE)

A

it is a sequence of 3 nucleotides that is increased from one generation to the next

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8
Q

what are some diseases affected by TNREs

A

huntingtons disease and fragile X syndrome

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9
Q

are TNREs spontaneous or induced

A

spontaneous

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10
Q
A
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11
Q

for a person with a TNRE disorder, the length of a trinucleotide repeat has:

A

increased above the critical size

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12
Q

if a TNRE occurs in a coding sequence, what type of expansion will occur

A

repeats of CAG

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12
Q

where can TNREs occur

A

within the coding sequence of a gene or in noncoding regions of genes

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13
Q

for a TNRE that occurs near a coding sequence, what typically occurs

A

a production of CpG islands

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14
Q

what is a CpG island

A

it results from a TNRE expansion that leads to the production of methylated cytosines and can lead to silencing and a reduction in gene expansion

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15
Q

the expansion of methylated cytosines near the promoter leads to?

A

silencing of the gene

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16
Q

what do TNRE sequences often result in

A

hairpins that form due to the complementarity of the repeat

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17
Q

if the TNRE hairpin forms before the DNA polymerase hits the sequence, what is the result

A

the DNA pol will slip over the hairpin and create a template that is too short

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18
Q
A
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19
Q

if the DNA polymerase slips off the template strand of a TNRE sequence and a hair pin forms, what is the result

A

an elongated sequence of the repeat

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20
Q

if the DNA polymerase slipped off the template at a TNRA sequence, what is the result of the repair enzymes

A

a expanded repeat or a repair back to its normal length

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21
Q

are TNRE repeat expansions always detrimental

A

no, they can have no affect depending on where they occur

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22
Q
A
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23
Q

what is a mutagen

A

it is a chemical or physical agent that alters DNA structure and induces mutation, it can be avoided

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24
Q

what are the three types of chemical mutagens

A

Base modifiers, intercalating agents, Base analogues

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25
Q

what are base modifiers? what type of mutagen are they

A

they are chemical mutagens

they are modifiers that covalently modify structures of nucleotides

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26
Q

what does the modification of bases by a mutagen do to the DNA

A

it alters the pairing in the daughter strand during DNA replication which results in mutation

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27
Q

mutagen modifications made to the template strand of DNA will result in:

A

inaccurate base pairing and mutations in the newly replicated strand

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28
Q

what are intercalating agents

A

intercalating agents contain flat planar structures that intercalate into the double helix

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29
Q

what is the effect of intercalating agents

A

distortion of helical structure

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30
Q

when DNA polymerase encounters intercalating agents in the template strand, what is the result

A

single nucleotide additions or deletions that result in frameshifts

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31
Q

which mutagens cause insertions and deletions

A

intercalating agents

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32
Q
A
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33
Q

if an intercalating agent such as ethidium bromide gets into a DNA strand, then it is likely to cause base substitutions

A

false, it causes insertions and deletions

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34
Q

what is a base analogue

A

it is a chemical mutagen that mimics bases and becomes incorporated into DNA

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35
Q

what is 5-bromouracil the analogue to?

A

thymine

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36
Q

in it’s normal, keto form, how will 5-bromouracil base pair? will this have any affect?

A

it will base pair with adenine, this will have no affect as it is acting normally

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37
Q

when 5-bromouracil tautomerizes, how will it base pair? will this have any affect on the DNA

A

it will mismatch and pair with G
this will cause mutation in DNA replication

38
Q

what is a base analogue susceptible to?

A

it is VERY susceptible to tautomeric shifts

39
Q

what are the two types of physical mutagens

A

ionizing radiation and nonionizing radiation

40
Q

what is ionizing radiation

A

it is a very high energy form of radiation that is usually in the form of X Rays or Gamma Rays

41
Q

what is the effect of ionizing radiation

A

it can deeply damage biological molecules and create free radicals

42
Q

what is nonionizing radiation? how is it different from ionizing

A

it is lower forms of radiation usually in the form of UV, it does not include gamma rays and can be more easily blocked so it cannot penetrate deeply

43
Q

what is a pyrimidine dimer

A

a pyrimidine dimer is a mutation caused by nonionzing radiation that causes a cross link between two pyrimidines on the same strand (next to eachother)

44
Q

what is the impact of thymine dimers

A

they cause mutations when the DNA strand is replicated

45
Q

what is the purpose of the Ames Test

A

test whether a suspected mutagen is in fact a mutagen

46
Q

in the ames test, what mutation did the Salmonella already contain?

A

they were Hist negative, meaning that they cannot produce their own histidine

47
Q

what is the difference between hist positive and hist negative for the Ames test

A

Hist positive refers to the wild type of salmonella, they can synthesize their own histidine

hist negative refers to the forward mutation that makes salmonella unable to synthesize their own histidine

48
Q

in the ames test, what were they looking to measure

A

the rate of mutation for secondary (reversion) mutations that make the salmonella able to make histidine by themselves again

49
Q

what was the control in the ames test?

A

Salmonella with a hist negative mutation and water.

These bacteria were placed on plates that did not have histidine on them

50
Q

in the control, what was the purpose of the plates for the ames test?

A

the plates did NOT have histidine, so all bacteria that did not contain the reversion mutation would die

51
Q

what type of bacteria can grow on the plates in the ames test?

A

only bacteria that underwent the secondary mutation to form histidine positive can grow on these plates

52
Q

why did the plates in the control for the ames test show some bacteria when they should have had none?

A

spontaneous background mutations will always occur and some will result in the reversion mutation that brings the Hist negative back to positive

53
Q

describe the experimental group set up of the Ames test

A

the hist negative salmonella were exposed to some suspected mutagen and plated on the same histidine absent plates as the control

54
Q

if the suspected mutagen was actually a mutagen, what would the plates show in the Ames test?

A

They would show multiple colonies of growth above the control levels.

55
Q

if the suspected mutagen was not a mutagen, what would the plates show in the Ames test

A

they would show a few bacteria on the plates that matched the control levels

56
Q

what does it mean if multiple colonies above control levels grow on the histidine absent plates in the Ames test?

A

it means the suspected mutagen was actually mutacious and caused the secondary reversion mutation to histidine positive bacteria

57
Q

what is the purpose of the Rat Liver Extract

A

detoxifying purposes

the rat extract makes the experiment more applicable to human conditions as it contains enzymes that can combat the mutagen

58
Q

why were they looking at the rate of the mutation in the ames test

A

they wanted to see if the rate of mutation was increased above spontaneous levels when a mutagen was present

59
Q

is the rat liver extract meant to cause more mutations?

A

no, it is meant to make the mutagen affects more similar to the human condition AND we are not interested in what the extract does to the DNA

We want to know what the extract does to the MUTAGEN itself

60
Q

in the ames test, what is the initial state of the salmonella? what are we looking for with an introduction of a mutagen

A

the initial state is a forward mutation

we are looking for a reversion

61
Q

what is the general process of DNA repair

A

1) surveillance proteins detect irregularity
2) repair enzymes remove abnormal DNA
3) normal DNA synthesized by DNA polymerases

62
Q

what are the 6 types of repair mechanisms

A

direct repair
base excision
nucleotide excision
mismatch repair
homologous recombination
nonhomologous end joining

63
Q

what is direct repair

A

a repair mechanism where a repair enzyme (not DNA pol) recognizes an error in DNA and converts it to the correct structure

64
Q

which repair mechanism does not involve DNA polymerase

A

direct repair

65
Q

what is the role of photolase in plants?

A

it is a form of direct repair that uses light to cleave dimers formed by nonionizing UV radiation

66
Q

what is base excision repair

A

enzymes recognize abnormal bases and cleave the bond between the base and sugar

DNA polymerases act to repair

67
Q

in DNA base excision repair, what is the first step?

A

N-glycosylase recognizes an abnormal base and cleaves the sugar and base bond

68
Q

after the sugar-base bond has been cleaved in base excision repair, what recognizes the missing base and what occurs

A

an endonuclease will recognize it and form a nick on the 5’ side of the missing base

69
Q

in base excision repair, what is the purpose of the nick?

A

it allows DNA polymerase’s 5’-3 exonuclease activity to remove the damaged region and fill it with new DNA

70
Q

to fuse the bond between the newly repaired DNA and the phosphate backbone in base excision repair, what enzyme is involved?

A

DNA ligase

71
Q

what is the primary difference between nucleotide excision repair and base excision repair

A

nucleotide excision removes and replaces large chunks of abnormal DNA

72
Q

what are the similarities between nucleotide excision and base excision repair

A

they both require surveillance proteins to recognize errors

DNA polymerase fills in the new DNA once the error is removed

DNA ligase fuses them together

73
Q

true or false

if we lose one of our repair mechanisms, we can still sufficiently repair mutations and be fine

A

false, you need all the repair mechanisms otherwise it can have detrimental consequences

74
Q

what do mismatch repair systems generally do?

A

they detect and repair base pair mismatches

75
Q

which strand is the mismatch system repair specific to? why?

A

it will digest the newly made strand because it is not methylated and is likely to contain the mismatch

76
Q

why is methylation important to the mismatch repair system?

A

when DNA replication occurs, the new molecule is hemi-methylated. the parent strand is methylated while the newly made strand is not.

when replication occurs, the error is more likely to be in the new strand and since the new strand is not methylated, the repair system can identify which strand to digest

77
Q

what type of proteins are involved in the identification of errors in mismatch repair

A

surveillance proteins remove the errors on the non-methylated strand

78
Q

true or false

methyl directed mutation repair only works effectively when DNA has been recently synthesized since both of the strands of DNA will not have any methylation on it as of yet

A

false, it will be hemi-methylated

this is a requirement as this is how it identifies the errors and which to strand to digest

79
Q

what are double stranded breaks

A

breakage of chromosomes into pieces

80
Q

what are the mechanisms of repair for double stranded breaks

A

homologous recombination repair and nonhomologous repair

81
Q

how does homologous recombination repair work

A

the sister chromatids are identical and can be used to repair one another by recombining and acting as a template for repair

82
Q

when does homologous recombination repair work the most efficiently

A

it works best right after DNA replication when the sister chromatids are near eachother

83
Q

what is non-homologous end joining? Between what chromosomes does this occur?

A

this occurs between chromosomes of different types

this is where two different chromosome pieces will get attached together as a last ditch means of repair

84
Q

by what mechanism is the chromosome end of one transferred to another in a double-stranded break repair

A

translocation of non-homologous chromosomes

85
Q

which DNA is repaired more efficiently? actively transcribed DNA or nontranscribed

A

actively transcribed is more susceptible to damage so it is repaired more efficiently

86
Q

what is the transcription-repair coupling factor

A

it mediates transcription coupled with DNA repair

87
Q

how does the transcription-repair coupling factor work

A

it targets actively transcribed genes with DNA damage and allows the RNA polymerase to come off the strand while the DNA is repaired before continuing transcription

88
Q

what is the SOS response

A

it is where normal replication polymerases cannot replicate over damaged regions of DNA so it swaps with translesion polymerases that can handle the aberrant regions

89
Q

what are translesion polymerases

A

they are polymerases that have flexible pockets that can accomodate aberrants structures in the template

90
Q

what is the consequence of using a translesion polymerase

A

they have low fidelity and make errors

91
Q

when 5-bromouracil undergoes a tautomeric shift, what type of base pair change will it cause

A

it will change a AT to a GC