02 hypertension Flashcards

1
Q

what are the values for systolic and diastolic that define hypertension?

A

sys above 139 and/or

dia above 89

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2
Q

what are the four types of antihypertensive agents that are most commonly used?

A

1st: diuretics (if patient has no complications)
- Renin/AgLL (ACEI, ARBs) for diabetic
- Calcium-antagonists
- Beta-antagonists

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3
Q

what is an adverse effect of thiazide use?

A

HYPOkalemia, this happens bc an increase in Na in the collecting tubule causes a larger exchange of Na for K and K is excreted

  • also increase in uric acid retention which can lead to gout
  • they can cause hyperglycemia/glucose intolerance
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4
Q

examples of thiazides:

A

Hydrochlorothiazide, Metolazone

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5
Q

what do thiazides do, and where?

A

they inhibit sodium and chloride cotransporter (thus inhibit Na reabsorption) in the distal convoluted tubule

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6
Q

what other antihypertensive agents are often combined with thiazides?

A

beta-blockers or vasodilators

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7
Q

spironolactone

A

Potassium sparing diuretic

  • used for hypertension and HF
  • act on collecting tube, no K+ loss, blocks Aldosteron (antagonist), block Na channel
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8
Q

potassium sparing duretics

A

ex: spironolactone

- no usually used alone, but in combination with something else like the thiazides

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9
Q

when might thiazides be contra-indicated?

A

for a diabetic bc they can cause hyperglycemia/glucose intolerance

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10
Q

Loop diuretics

A
  • not used as antihypertensive agents
  • commonly used in heart failure
  • usually used to decrease edema
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11
Q

examples of loop diuretics:

A

-Furosemide, bumetanide, Torsemide, Ethacrynic acid “F-BUT”

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12
Q

if the drug ends in “pril” what kind of drug is it?

A

ACE inhibitor

ex: lisinopril, captopril, enalapril,

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13
Q

adverse side effects of ACE Inhibitors:

A

Dry cough, due to increased levels of bradykinin

  • could use an ARB (angiotensin receptor blocker) instead
  • hypotension in hypovolemic patiets
  • angioedem, hyperkalemia
  • glossitis, oral ulceration, rash
  • altered sense of taste (loss of zinc, 10-20%)
  • contraindicated in pregnancy (tetrogenic)
  • contraindicated in renal artery stenosis
  • drug interaction with K-sparing diuretics
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14
Q

Actions of ACE Inhibitors:

A
  • decrease angiotensin II production
  • decrease TPR, O unchanged, HR unchanged
  • no reflex increase in HR
  • decrease aldosterone production leads to a decrease in Na/water retention
  • increase in bradykinin level can=dry cough
  • imporves intrarenal hymodynamics
  • less effective in elderly and afro-Americans
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15
Q

when are ACE inhibitors contraindicated?

A
in pregnancy (tetrogenic)
and in renal artery stenosis
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16
Q

Angiotensin II type I receptor blockers (ARBs)

A

ex: Losartan, Valsartan, Irbesartan {-sartan}
- competitive antagonist of angiotensin II type I receptors
- type I receptors mediate: increase in aldosterone, Increase ADH, Increase TPR, inc SNS
- Type II receptors mediate: vasodilation (decr TPR), incr NO
- actions similar to ACEI but no dry cough
- less angioedema, glossitis, etc
- also contraindicated in pregnancy and renal a. stenosis

17
Q

what drug is contraindicated during pregnancy?

A

ACE inhibitors and ARBs

18
Q

Aliskiren

A
  • Renin Inhibitor=decr angiotensin I
  • actions similar to ACEI, but no cough
  • less angioedema, glossitis, etc
  • used if cannot tolerate ACEIs or ARBs
19
Q

what drug should be used if a patient cannot tolerate ACEI or ARBs?

A

Aliskiren, (Renin Inhibitor)

20
Q

Calcium channel blockers:

A
  • bind to L-type calcium channels in cardiac and vascular smooth muscle
  • inhibition of calcium influx into cardiac and s. muscle
  • dilate arterioles–> decr in TPR–>decr BP
  • negative inotropic action on heart
21
Q

what are the two classes of calcium channel blockers and examples from each class

A

1) Non-dihydropyridines (non-DHPs): Verapamil, Diltiazem

2) Dihydropyridines (DHPs): [-dipine]: Nifedipine, Amlodipine

22
Q

Nifedipine

A
  • calcium channel blocker
  • Dihydropyridine
  • mainly arteriole vasodilation, little cardiac effect
  • reflex tachycardia, flushing, peripheral edema
23
Q

Verapamil

A
  • calcium channel blocker
  • Non-DHP
  • significant cardiac depression, decrease HR,
  • constipation
  • caution in digitalized patients (increase digoxin levels)
24
Q

Diltiazem

A
  • calcium channel blocker
  • Non-DHP
  • similar to Verapamil/Nifedipine (less)
  • actions on cardiac and vascular beds
25
Q

calcium channel-blockers: adverse effects

A
  • constipation (more likely with Non-DHP like verapamil)
  • non-DHPs: cardiac depression, brady cardia, AV block
  • *non-DHPs are contraindicated with beta-blockers
  • mostly-DHPs: hypotension, reflex tachycardia, flushing, headache, edema
  • hypotension (more likely with DHPs ie nifedipine)
  • gingival hyperplasia (nifedipine, 10%)
  • CHF non-DHps contraindicated, DHPs not recommended
26
Q

what drugs can cause gingival hyperplasia?

A
  • calcium channel blockers-esp nifedipine (10%)
  • Phenytoid (dilantin)-for seizures (40%)
  • cyclosporine-immunosuppressant (30%)
27
Q

what is the beta drug that is the DOC for HTN?

A

Propranolol

28
Q

Propranolol

A
  • DOC hypertension, angina, arrhythmias, tremor, migraine, hyperthyroidism, panic stress, and MI
  • beta non-selective
  • contraindications: HF (unstable, depression, bradycardia, bronchospasm), asthma, diabetes, insomnia, cardiac depression, raynaud’s Dx
  • LA action
  • lipid solubility, so can cross into CNS
29
Q

what is the rule for beta-agonists?

A

if it ends in “olol” its a beta agonist

-if it’s A-M, it is beta 1 selective

30
Q

what is the DOC for hypertensive crisis?

A
  • Labetalol and (but mostly labetalol)
  • Carvedilol
  • they are both beta and alpha blockers
  • side effect postural hypotension
31
Q

Labetalol

A
  • hypertensive crisis and chronic hypertension
  • competitive antagonist at both alpha and beta
  • beta1=beta2 activity>alpha activity (3:1)
  • HR and CO unchanged; decr TPR–>decr BP
32
Q

carvedilol

A
  • newest agent

- chronic hypertension, CHF