01 Air Law Review the Basics Flashcards

Question

Closed markings: • Large white cross (X) on the runway and yellow crosses at each end of the taxiway indicates it is unserviceable • At night they will be red • Unserviceable movement areas, other than runways and taxiways may be indicated by: ◦ Marker boards ◦ cones or red flags ◦ flag or marker near the centre of the area ◦ red flags are used when portion is small enough for it to be bypassed by aircraft without affecting safety • Wind socks must be removed for permanent closures

Answer 1

Closed markings: • Large white cross (X) on the runway and yellow crosses at each end of the taxiway indicates it is unserviceable • At night they will be red • Unserviceable movement areas, other than runways and taxiways may be indicated by: ◦ Marker boards ◦ cones or red flags ◦ flag or marker near the centre of the area ◦ red flags are used when portion is small enough for it to be bypassed by aircraft without affecting safety • Wind socks must be removed for permanent closures

Answer 2

Windsock • Will fly horizontal at 15 kt or more • 10 kt will hang 5 degrees below horizontal • 6 kt will hand 30 degrees below horizontal • Runway greater than 4000 ft requires a windsock at each end • where the win direction can be determined by other means, its not required (Radio, smoke, air, etc)

Answer 3

Aerodrome lighting: • Night operation runways are indictaed by 2 parrallel rows of white lights or retroflective markers visible at least 2 miles in all directions • Each line of lights is not less than 1377 ft in length and contains no fewer than 8 lights or markers • Lights above must be spaced at the same distance and not more than 60m • Runway threshold is green from the front but red from the back • Taixways are blue • ARCAL: key the mic and remain on 15 minutes ◦ You can restart the sequence by keying the mic ◦ Type J: 5 times within 5 seconds ◦ Type K: 7 times initially turn all ights to max intensity ▪ It can be adjusted by keing the mic 7-5-3 times within 5 seconds

Answer 4

Standard Circuit: • 1000 feet AGL left turns • CFS will say if otherwise

Answer 5

Overflying an aerodrome: • Unless otherwise authorized by the ATC or for taking off or landing, an aircraft SHALL NOT be flown over an aerodrome at less than 2000 ft AGL • If it is necessary for an aircraft to cross the aerodrome before joining the circuit to check the winds and traffic it is recommended to crossover at at least 500 ft above the circuit altitude

Answer 6

Best practices: • If you tow or park an aircraft on an active area at night, make sure there is lighting on wingtip, tail and anti collision lights or lantern

Answer 7

Fire Prevention: • No smoke or flame: ◦ on an apron ◦ aircraft loading bridge ◦ Gallery or balcony that is contiguous or overhangs an apron ◦ in a place where it could cause danger to person or property

Answer 8

Runway Surface condition (RSC) found in NOTAMs (if available, usually at controlled airports) • Frost, snow, slush or ice on a runway • Snow banks, drifts or windrows on or adjacent to a runway • Sand, aggregate material, anti-icing or de-icing chemicals are applied to the runway • Cleared runway width falls below the published width • Runway lights are obscured or partially obscured by contaminants • Significant change in runway surface conditions including a return to bare and dry conditions • Required minimum frequency

Answer 9

Canadian Runway Friction Index (CRFI): If available, it will be published with the RSC • Reported when ◦ Ice or frost on the runway ◦ Wet ice on the runway ◦ Slush over ice on the runway ◦ Sand, aggregate material, anti-icing or de-icing chemicals are applied to the runway ◦ Chemical solution on the ice on the runway ◦ compacted snow on the runway ◦ dry snow not exceeding 2.5 cm on the runway

Answer 10

Flight crew permit/license/rating • You must produce the appropriate license, permit or rating to exercise them • valid medical certificate of the appropriate category must be carried

Answer 11

Recency Requirements: • no person should exercise the privileges of license, rating or permit unless they acted as PIC or Co-Pilot in the previous 5 years ◦ Otherwise within 12 months preceding a flight the pilot must complete a flight review with a flight instructor and have passed the PSTAR exam again • Wihtin 24 months preceding the flight you must complete a recurrent training program • any of the following: ◦ Flight review with an instructor ◦ attend a safety seminar conducted by TC ◦ Participate in a TC approved recurrent training program ◦ Complete the self paced study program ◦ Complete a traiing program or PPC ◦ Complete the requirements for the issuance or renewal of a license permit or rating ◦ Complete the written exam for a license permiet or rating

Answer 12

• To carry passengers during the day or night 5 takeoffs and landing during the last 6 months (for the day, the take off and landings can be done at night)

Answer 13

• To carry passengers during commercial operations during the day 3 takeoffs and landings during the day or at night within the last 90 days. (for the day, the take off and landings can be done at night)

Answer 14

• In order to exercise the privileges of an instrument rating, you must complete an instrument flight test, or an instrument proficiency check in an aircraft or aproved flight training device within the previous 24 month

Answer 15

• (6-6-6 rule) After the first 12 months, the pilot must complete 6 hours of instrument time including 6 approaches to minimums in the past 6 months, to be able to use the privileges of an instrument rating.

Answer 16

``` Personal log: • You have to mainain a log • Must include ◦ Date of flight ◦ AC type and registrations ◦ Flight crew position ◦ Flight conditions (VFR, IFR, Day, Night) ◦ Point of departure and arrival ◦ Flight time ```

Answer 17

Co pilot flight time The minister will credit the flight time acquired by a copilot toward the issuance of a higher license to 100% of the ATPL requirements

Answer 18

CPL/ATPL privileges – aeroplane • CPL holder may exercise privileges of PPL and VFR OTT, PIC of single pilot aeroplane and SIC of an aeroplane that requires 2 pilots • Holder of an ATPL may exercise the privileges of a PPL and CPL • Holder of a ATPL and group 1 IFR may act as PIC or co-pilot of an aeroplane that requires 2 pilots • ATPL whose IFR lapses may exercise CPL privileges

Answer 19

2 Officer rating The minister will endorse a CPL or ATPL with a second officer rating if the applicant meets the requirements in the CARs 2 Officer privileges: • A person with a 2O rating may act as a second officer in any aircraft that the rating applies to • They may also act as 2O for the purpose of their own training or competency checks • 2O may also act as a flight engineer • 2O that supervises other 2O may conduct training and competency checks

Answer 20

Medical Requirements: • You must hold a valid medical • The applicant shall be tested on a pure tone audiometer at the initial exam for Cat1 medical and at the first medical exam after age 55 unless done within preceding 60 months

Answer 21

Medical Issue/Validity/Renewal • A medical certificate can be issued or renewed if the person meets the medical requirements for that MC • The start of the validity period commences on the first day of the following month of the exam date or the date the medical declaration was signed by the applicant • For a cat1 medical, an ECG is required at the initial exam when under 30, within 24 months preceding the exam age 30-40, within 12 months preceding the exam when over 40

Answer 22

Medical: PPL: 60 months under 40 24 months 40 or older CPL/ATPL: 12 months under 40 12 months over 40* *The validity period of a medical certificate (12 months) for a CPL and ATPL is reduced to 6 months if the holder of the license is: • 40 years of age or older and is engaged in a single pilot air transport service carrying passengers • 60 years of age or older This means that flying commercially 2 crew with or without passengers and single crew with NO passengers the piltos medical for 40 and older is 12 months Single crew the medical is 6 months with passengers (higher standard for safety of passengers)

Answer 23

Prohibition of privileges • Cant exercise license permit or rating if you are suffering from illness, injury or disability unless authorized in writing by the Minister • Cant exercise privileges if you take drugs, have received medical treatment, have entered the 30th week of pregnancy or prior to 6 weeks after giving birth authorized in writing by the Minister

Answer 24

Class A: • High level airspace • IFR Only • Clearance req • 3 Class A in Canada ◦ Southern Control Area (SCA) in the SDA 18 000 feet to FL600 ◦ NCA in northern domestic airspace FL230 to FL600 ◦ Arctic Control Area (ACA) in the NDA from FL270 to FL600 • Pilot must be IFR Rated and the Aircraft must be IFR certified • Functioning mode C transponder and a pressure sensitive altimeter are also required

Answer 25

Class B: • Designated where an operational need exists to provide ATC service to IFR and to control VFR aircraft • All low level controlled airspace above 12500 feet ASL or at and above MEA, whichever is higher, up to but not including 18000 ft ASL • Required for IFR/CVFR (CVFR is similar to flight following) ◦ ATC clearance ◦ VHF radio ◦ appropriate navigation equipment ◦ MODE C transponder • Class B is indicated by a hatched pattern on the LO chart and dark blue line on a VFR Navigation Chart (VNC)

Answer 26

Class C: • Defined controlled airspace around designated airports described as terminal control areas and associated control zones • Controlled airspace whereby both IFR require a clearance and VFR cannot enter until they receive a clearance from the ATC prior to entry. NORDO/no TXPDR may receive clearance / permission by phone for day VFR flights only at the discretion of ATC) • ATC provides traffic separation to IFR flights while VFR receive traffic information and conflict resolution upon request • The PIC has the responsibility to avoid other aircraft, maintain terrain and obstruction clearance and remain in VFR weather. A pilot must communicate to ATC any concerns related to pilot responsibilities • Required ◦ 2 way radio comms and must maintain continuous listening watch ◦ MODE C transponder (alt) • Class C reverts to Class E status when ATC services are not operating • In case of a communications failure, squawk 7600. Otherwise, VFR traffic must use 1200 on transponder • If a control zone is class C, it will be a towered airport

Answer 27

Class D: • Controlled airspace around designated airports described as terminal control areas and associated control zones • IFR and VFR are permitted. VFR must establish 2 way comms with ATC prior to entering • IFR flights are provided with separation while traffic information is provided to VFR flights • Required: ◦ 2 way radio comms and maintain continuous watch (NORDO/No TXPDR may receive clearance/permission by phone for day VFR flights only at the discretion of ATC) ◦ May need a transponder, charts and the CFS will tell us if this is the case • If a control zone is class D, it will be a towered airport

Answer 28

Class E: • No special requirements for VFR in class E control airspace, as long as it is not a control zone. IF CONTROL ZONE, YOU MUST FOLLOW MF PROCEDURES ◦ VFR controlled airspace weather minimums apply in both the airspace and control zone • IFR needs a clearance ◦ IFR aircraft are provided separation • Love level airways, control area extensions, transition areas, or control zones established without an operating control tower may be classified as class E. They start at 2200 AGL up to class B 12500 ASL or up to but not including 18000ft. Transition area are 700 Feet AGL (usually up to 15nm) • If an aerodrome or airport has a class E control zone: ◦ VFR aircraft must follow MF procedures ◦ VFR aircraft must also get traffic advisory from the appropriate controlling FSS at least 5 minutes prior to entering • When a towered airport class C or D closes, then the airport will become class E (but still considered controlled). Follow MF procedures • If a control zone is class E, it will have a FSS

Answer 29

Class F: • IFR not permitted or cleared through by ATC unless pilot has obtained prior permission from the user agency, has ALTREV or conducting a contact or visual approach • 2 types of class F ◦ Restricted ▪ Prior permission/approval only ▪ Restricted area numbering CYR 401 ◦ Advisory ▪ VFR may fly through but must keep alert, non participating aircraft are encouraged to not enter ▪ Advisory area numbering CYA 402 ▪ Pilots intending to fly in class F advisory airspace are encouraged to monitor an appropriate frequency, to broadcast their intentions when entering and leaving the area and to communicate as necessary with other users to ensure flight safety in the airspace. ▪ Advisory airspace uncontrolled area: 126.7 would be appropriate • Unless otherwise specified the radio frequency of 126.7 should be monitored • Class F CYR may be created by NOTAM and may therefore not appear on charts • Advisory ◦ A = Aerobatic ◦ H = Hang gliders ◦ S = Soaring ◦ T = flight Training ◦ P = Parachute ◦ M = Military ◦ F = Flight test area

Answer 30

Forest fire area: • surface to 3000ft AGL within 5nm of the fire • May be modified through NOTAM

Answer 31

Class G: • Uncontrolled airspace with no restrictions for IFR or VFR • 99% of canadian airspace • no traffic separation • broadcast on 126.7 • green on LO chart • Unless controlled airspace is specified on a chart, class G uncontrolled airspace extends up to but not including 18000 ASL in the SDA • Air Routes (not airways!!) start at the surface and are designated by 2 letters and a number, for instance AR34

Answer 32

Transponder airspace • A,B,C require a transponder • D and E may require a transponder as specified in the DAH • If the transponder or Mode C fails: ◦ Proceed to the next aerodrome of intended landing ◦ If ATC provides a service in that airspace, ATC may authorize an aircraft to operate in transponder airspace without a tspder or Mode C. If approval requested in advance of entering the airspace and aviation safety is not likely to be affected ◦ can be provided to permit an aircraft to go to maintenance

Answer 33

Controlled Airspace: • Airspace with defined dimensions within which ATC service is provided and within which some or all aircraft may be subject to ATC • IFR aircraft require a clearance to enter or operate within ALL classes of controlled airspace • Types of controlled airspace are: ◦ High level: FL180 and above ◦ Low leve: B,C,D,E ◦ All low level airways, being class E, are controlled

Answer 34

Control Zone/Control Area Extension: • CZ: extends upward vertically from the surface of the earth up to and including 3000 feet AGL unless otherwise specified • 3-5-7 NM radius • CAE: ◦ Additional controlled airspace to handler IFR traffic ◦ Usually at towered airports ◦ Surrounds and overlies the core control zone ◦ IFR traffic is controlled by the Area Control Center (ACC) ◦ CAE are usually circular with a defined radius ◦ They extend upwards from 2200 AGL to but not including 18000 ASL same as an airway

Answer 35

``` VFR Weather minima Control zone VFR: 3 SM day or night 1 SM horizontal from cloud 500 feet vertical below cloud 500 feet AGL SVFR Aeroplane vis 1sm and clear of cloud Helo: 1/2 SM and clear of cloud ```

Answer 36

VFR Minima in controlled airspace (not CZ) 3SM vis day or night 1SM horizontal from cloud 500 feet vertical below clouds

Answer 37

``` VFR Minima uncontrolled airspace above 1000ft AGL Vis 1SM day or 3SM night 2000 feet horizontal from cloud 500 feet vertical below cloud Below 1000AGL Aeroplane: 2SM day or 3SM night and clear of cloud Helo: 1SM day or 3SM night and clear of cloud ```

Answer 38

Special VFR: • 2 Way Comms and pilot must request SVFR • This grants permission for VFR aircraft to proceed into a control zone when the weather is below VFR • Pilot must: ◦ remain clear of cloud ◦ maintain visual contact with the ground ◦ for aircraft other than a helicopter have a minimum visibility of 1 SM ◦ for a helicopter have a minimum visibility of 1/2 SM • ATC for the control zone must authorize SVFR ◦ Day VFR aircraft may request SVFR to arrive or depart ◦ Night VFR aeroplanes may request night SVFR only for arrival ◦ Night VFR helicopters may request night SVFR to arrive or depart

Answer 39

Air/Ground Initial Contact Uncontrolled: • Pilots shall establish comms with the air/ground facility (FSS, RCO, CARS, UNICOM) on the appropriate frequency if in direct comms with an ACC or Terminal Control Unit (TCU) when directed to do so by the ACC or TCU • Notwithstanding this, in accordance with CAR 602.104, pilots shall establish comms with the facility ont he appropriate frequency no later than 5 minutes prior to the estimated time of commencing the approach procedure. • If a pilot is instructed to remain on the ATC freq rather than being transferred to the appropriate freq for the uncontrolled aerodrome, it remains the pilots responsiblity to notify the associated destianation aerodrome ground station or to broadcast where no ground station exists, and report in accordance with RAC 9.12 • Where Remote Airport Advisory Service (RAAS) is provided via a RCO and where AWOS (or LWIS) weather info is also broadcast via a VGM, it is recommended that pilots listen to the broadcast prior to contacting the A/G facility and upon contact advise that they ahve the wind and altimeter information

Answer 40

Low Level Airways: • Is controlled low level airspace extending upward from 2200 AGL up to but not including 18000 ASL within the following boundaries ◦ VHF/UHF Airways ▪ Basic VHF/UHF airway width is 4nm on each side of the airway centreline out to 50.8nm ▪ After the airway width shall be increased between the points where lines diverging 4.5 degrees on each side and where they meet ◦ LF/MF ▪ 4.34 Width each side up to 49.66nm • T-Routes are low level controlled fixed RNAV routes having dimensions of 4nm of primary obstacle protectoin area, plus 2 nm of secondary obstacle protection area on each side of the centreline. The MOCA does not provide protection for the additional 4NMof airway beyond this on either side • Airspace associated with RNAV T-Routes is 10nm on each side of the centreline • RNAV T-route airspace and protection areas do not splay.

Answer 41

Forest fire: • area on the surface of the earth on which standing timber, grass or any other vegetation or buildings are burning • No person shall operate an aircraft over a forest fire area or over any area that is located within 5nm at an altitude of less than 3000 ft agl near that fire • A NOTAM might be issued that restricts aircraft that are not involved with the forest fire operations to a greater degree • If so it will state ◦ the location and dimensions of the forest fire area ◦ the airspace in which forest fire control operations are being conducted • It is important to remember that even without a NOTAM being issued, that the standard flight restriction is still in effect • Stay away with or without a NOTAM • Aircraft operated by department of transport personnel involved with surveillance and enforcement of aviation legislation are not prohibited from entering with permission of the fire control authority

Answer 42

Projection of directed bright light source at an aircraft • no person should shine light if it will cause hazard ◦ any person planning to project or cause to be proejcted a directed bright light source into navigable airspace shall: ▪ submit a written request to the minister for an authorization to project the directed bright light source into navigable airspace ▪ obtain written authorization form the minister ▪ No PIC shall intentionally operate an aircraft into a beam from a directed bright light source or into an area where a directed bright light source is projected, unless the aircraft is operated in accordance with an authorization issued by the Minister

Answer 43

Alcohol / drugs and flight crew • no person shall act as crewmember of an aircraft ◦ 12 hours after consuming an alcoholic beverage ◦ while under the influence of alcohol • AIM goes further than CARs ◦ Never fly while under the influence of alcohol. It is best to allow 24 hours. 48 hours if heavy drinking • Alcohol and hypoxia is additive • No one is permitted to fly while using any drug that impairs the person's faculties to the extent that the safety of the aircraft or persons on board the aircraft is endangered in any way

Answer 44

Alcohol and passengers: • no person shall consume alcohol unless: ◦ Served to that person by the operator of the aircraft ◦ where no flight attendant is on board has been provided by the operator of the aircraft ◦ if there is ground to believe they are drunk ◦ Passengers may be refused boarding if it is deemed they may present a hazard to the flight ◦ An intoxicated person may be served alcohol if they have a medical release and the attendant is with them

Answer 45

Compliance with instructions: • Every passenger on board an aircraft shall comply with instructions given by any crew member • Every crew member on board an aircraft shall during flight tmie comply with the instructions of the PIC

Answer 46

Smoking: • No person shall smoke on board an aircraft during takeoff or landing or when directed not to smoke by the PIC • No smoking in aircraft lavatory or tamper with or disable a smoke detector installed in an aircraft lavatory

Answer 47

Aircraft operating limitations: No person shall operate an aircraft unless it is operated in accordance with the operating limitations set out in the aircraft flight manual or the mounted placards

Answer 48

PED: • No operator of an aircraft shall permit the use of a PED on board an aircraft where the device may impair the functioning of the aircraft systems or equipment • No person shall use PED except with the permission of the operator of the aircraft • CAR 703.38 704.33 705.40 require air operator to establish procedures for the use of PED on board AC that meets commercial air services standards and they are specified in the air operators company operations manual • company is responsible to determine if they interfere and responsible for policy on their use

Answer 49

Fueling and passengers: • Private operators ◦ an aircraft can be refuelled with passengers embarking, disembarking or on board if they meet the requirements of 604.83 • Commercial operators ◦ Must be approved in the COM and passengers must be secured on board during fuelling and as per the operations manual ◦ no person shall permit the fuelling of the aircraft while an engine of the aircraft is running and passengers are on board the aircraft or are embarking or disembarking, unless subsection 704.33 (4) or 705.40 (3) as applicable

Answer 50

Starting engines on the ground: • No person shall start an engine unless: ◦ pilot seat is occupied by a person who is competent to control the AC ◦ Precautions have been taken to prevent the aircraft from moving ◦ Seaplane: the aircraft is in a location from which any movement of the aircraft will not endanger persons or property

Answer 51

Ground running engines: • no person shall leave an engine of an aircraft running unless: ◦ a pilot seat is occupied by a person who is competent to control the aircraft ◦ where no persons are on board the aircraft precautions have been taken to prevent the aircraft form moving and the ac is not left unattended

Answer 52

``` Aircraft icing: • no person shall conduct or attempt to conduct a takeoff in an aircraft that has frost, ice or snow adhering to any of its critical surfaces ◦ Wings ◦ control surfaces ◦ rotors ◦ propellers ◦ horizontal and vertical stab ◦ any other stabilizing surfaces ◦ in an aircraft with a rear mounted jet engine the upper area of the fuselage ```

Answer 53

Overflight of built up areas: • Except if conducting a takeoff, approach or landing at an airport ◦ No person shall over fly a built up area or an open air assembly of persons unless the aircraft is operated at an altitude from which in the event of an engine failure it would be possible to land the aircraft without creating a hazard to persons or property on the surface • No persons shall conduct a takeoff, approach or landing in an aircraft within built up area of a city or town unless that takeoff approach or landing is conducted at an airport • Exceptions are available

Answer 54

Minimum altitudes and distances: • Built up area minimum distance ◦ 1000 feet above the highest obstacle within a horizontal radius of 2000 feet (about 1/2 mile) ◦ Helo: 1000 feet above the highest obstacle within a horizontal radius of 500ft • non built up area ◦ 500 ft from any person, vehicle or structure • National parks ◦ Over flights shall not be conducted below 2000ft AGL

Answer 55

``` Permissible low altitude flight: • An aircraft may be operated lower than the previous rules stated if: ◦ During a police operation ◦ to save a human life ◦ fire fighting or air ambulance ops ◦ for the purpose of flight inspection ◦ an aerial application ◦ helicopters – external load ops ```

Answer 56

Converging aircaft: • 2 AC converging at the same altitude. The PIC of the AC that has the other on its right shall give way except: ◦ Power driven heavier than air aircraft shall give way to airships gliders and balloons ◦ Airship shall give way to gliders and balloons ◦ A glider shall give way to balloons ◦ Power driven aircraft shall give way to aircraft that are seen to be towing gliders or other objects or carrying a slung load ◦ Pilots shall give way to aircraft that are in an emergency situation or distress • Where an aircraft is required to give way to another aircraft, the PIC of the 1st mentionned aircraft shall not pass over or under or cross ahead of the other aircraft unless passing or crossing at such a distance as will not create a risk of collision

Answer 57

Aircraft approaching head on: | • Both turn right

Answer 58

Overtaking in flight: • An aircraft that is being overtaken has the right of way • The PIC of the overtaking AC whether climbing, descending, or in level flight, shall give way to the other aircraft by altering the heading of the overtaking aircraft to the right • No subsequent change in the relative positions of the 2 aircraft absolves the PIC of the overtaking aircraft from this obligation until that aircraft has entirely passed and is clear of the other aircraft

Answer 59

Landing right of way: • Where an AC is in flight or manoeuvring on the surface, the PIC of the AC shall give way to an aircraft that is landing or about to land • When 2 AC are approaching to land at the same time, the one at the lower altitude has the right of way, thus the one at the higher altitude shall give way

Answer 60

Right of way on the water: • When an aircraft is manoeuvring on the water, it is legally still an aircraft and subject to the aeronautic act • The rules that should be adhered to are those that apply to watercraft

Answer 61

Collision avoidance: • No person shall operate an aircraft in such proximity to another aircraft as to create a risk of collision • Pilots of AC are responsible for taking any action as is necessary to avoid collision

Answer 62

Towing: No person shall operate an aeroplane that is towing an object unless the aeroplane is equipped with a tow hook and release control system that meets the applicable standards of airworthiness Dropping objects in flight: No person shall create a hazard to persons or property on the surface by dropping an object from an aircraft in flight

Answer 63

Formation flight: • No person shall operate an aircraft in formation with other aircraft except by pre-arrangement between: ◦ PIC of each aircraft ◦ Where the flight is conducted within a control zone, the PIC and the appropriate ATC unit

Answer 64

Entering or leaving aircraft in flight: • No PIC of an AC shall permit a person to enter or leave the AC during flight unless ◦ The person leaves for the purpose of making a parachute descent ◦ Special permission for air shows Parachute descents: • No person shall conduct a parachute descent from an aircraft that: ◦ will drop into or operate in either controlled airspace or an air route ◦ over or into a built up area ◦ Over an open air assembly of persons

Answer 65

Aerobatic maneuvers: • No person operating an aircraft is permitted to conduct aero manoeuvres: ◦ over a built up area or open air assembly of persons ◦ in controlled airspace unless it is in accordance with a special flight operations certificate ◦ when the visibility is less than 3 miles ◦ below 2000 AGL except in accordance with a special flight ops certificate Aerobatic maneuvers with pax: • no person operating an aircraft with a pax on board shall conduct an aerobatic manoeuvre unless the PIC of the AC has: ◦ at least 10 hours dual flight instruction in the conducting of aero maneuvers or 20 hours conducting aero ◦ at least 1 hours of conducting aero manoeuvres in the preceding 6 months

Answer 66

Fuel dumping: • No person shall jettison fuel from an aircraft in flight unless: ◦ it is to do so in order to ensure aviation safety ◦ all appropriate measures are taken to minimize danger to human life and damage to the environment, insofar as the circumstances permit

Answer 67

ATC Compliance: Instruction and clearances: Note 1. An ATC clearance of instruction is predicated on known traffic only 2. therefore, when a pilot is proceeding ni accordance with a clearance or instruction, the pilot is not relieved of the responsibility for traffic avoidance • Instructions ◦ An instruction is a directive which a PIC must acknowledge and comply with ◦ While a clearance requires a read back, an instruction requires an acknoledgement • Ex: cleared to descend to 3000 ZYI vs just saying ZYI if you are acknowledging a new heading • You must comply with all instructions provided that safety is not jeopardized • Clearances • An ATC clearance is an authorization for an aircraft to proceed with a certain action ◦ Ex: GGGP you are cleared to land runway 18 ◦ You must ack that a clearance has been accepted by using the aircraft call sign ◦ Remember to readback all hold short clearances and to hold short where you are supposed to ◦ Get clarification before accepting ◦ Once accepted it must be complied with except in emergencies ◦ You may deviate from, to the extent necessary for collision avoidance or TCAS or GPWS alerts ◦ Notify ATC of the deviation and get on previous clearance ASAP

Answer 68

Airspeed limitations: • No person shall operate an aircraft below 10000 feet ASL at an indicated airspeed of more than 250 indicated kt • No person shall operate an aircraft below 3000 ft AGL within 10nm of a controlled airport at an indicated airspeed of more than 200 indicated kt unless authorized to do so in an ATC clearnce • No person shall operate an aircraft at a true mach number of 1.0 or greater

Answer 69

Cruising altitudes: • Altitude of FL for an aircraft in level cruising flight is determined in accordance with: ◦ Mag track in SDA or true track in NDA ◦ When an aircraft is operated in level cruising flight at more than 3000 AGL in accordance with VFR or IFR flight • The PIC shall ensure ensure that the aircraft is operated at an altitude or FL appropriate to the track unless assigned an altitude or FL by an ATC or by permission from the minister

Answer 70

FL/Altitudes 000-179 180-359 Above FL290 4000 feet interval in same direction unless RVSM

Answer 71

Altimeter setting procedures: • 2 basic regions (They closely follow the northern and southern domestic airspace zones) ◦ Standard pressure region (SPR) ▪ NDA and all airspace at and ablove 18000 (high level) ▪ Altimeter is set to 29.92 for cruise flight ▪ Pilots must reset the altimeters after entering and before leaving the standard pressure region ▪ When climbing into the SPR from an airport within the SPR, change the altimeter immediately prior to reaching desired flight level ▪ When climbing in the SPR from the ASR, change the altimeter immediately after ascending through 18000 ▪ When descending out of SPR change to the nearest current en route altimeter setting, immediately before passing through FL180 ◦ Altimeter setting region (ASR) ▪ This region is in the SDA up to but not including 18000ASL ▪ Altimeters must be set to the current altimeter setting or to the elevation of the airport before taking off ▪ In cruise altimeters should be set to the nearest station along the route of flight and when approaching an airport to land it should be set to the current setting of that airport

Answer 72

Landing or taking off at night: • No person shall conduct a landing or a takeoff in an aeroplane at night at an aerodrome unless the aerodrome is lighted in accordance with the aerodrome lighting requirements • No person shall conduct a landing or a takeoff in an helo at night at an aerodrome or helipad unless the aerodrome or helipad is lighted in accordance with the aerodrome lighting requirements

Answer 73

Flight time and air time: • Flight time ◦ starts as soon as the aircraft is first moved under its own power for the purpose of a flight ◦ ends once the engine is shutdown for the purpose of ending the flight ◦ Recorded in the pilot log book, it determines your level or experience • Air time ◦ Starts once the wheels become airborne and it ends once the wheels touch the ground again ◦ recorded int he journey log book, it determines when the next inspection is due

Answer 74

Sling load: No person shall operate a helo with a external laod unless the helo is equipped and operated in accordance with the applicable standards and air worthiness

Answer 75

Refusal to transport: No air operator or private operator shall transport a person if at the time of check in or at boarding the actions or statements of the person indicate that the person may present a risk to the safety of the aircraft, persons or property

Answer 76

SPR: • Arrival: ◦ Before descending to land in the SPR the altimeter shall be set to the current altimeter setting of the aerodrome of intended landing if available ◦ If a hold is conducted, the altimeter shall not be set to the current altimeter setting until immediately prior to descent below the lowest flight level at which the hold is at ◦ Aircraft descending from cruising flight levels above FL180 may reset altimeters to the current aerodrome setting when approaching FL180 provided no holds or cruise flight below FL180 is to be made or anticipated

Answer 77

SPR – Transition: • Unless otherwise authorized by ATC, aircraft going from one region to another shall make the change to the altimeter setting while in the SPR after entering or before leaving • if the transition is to be made into the ASR while in cruise, the pilot should obtain the current altimeter setting from the nearest station along the route of flight as far as practical before reaching the point at which the transition is to be made

Answer 78

Climbing into the SPR: When climbing from the ASR into the SPR, pilots shall set their altimeters to standard pressure 29.92 immediately after entering the SPR

Answer 79

Descending into the ASR: • When descending into the ASR, pilots shall set the altimeter to the appropriate station altimeter setting immediately prior to descending into the ASR • Normally the pilot will receive the appropriate altimeter setting as part of the ATC clearance prior to descent (if not, request it)

Answer 80

Prohibition: no person shall operate an aircraft unless the required operational and emergency equipment is carried on board Equipement standards: • The required equipment must be functional • It must also meet the standards in the airworthiness manual

Answer 81

Requirements for power driven: • Required for powerdriven aAc, it must be on the board ◦ Checklist ◦ Necessary current aeronautical charts and pubs covering the route of the proposed flight and any probable diversionary route (VFR, VFR OTT, night VFR, IFR) ◦ Hand held fire extinguisher ◦ Time piece ◦ if at night, flashlight for each crew member ◦ First aid kit

Answer 82

Survival over land: • Not required for: ◦ Balloon, glider or ultralight ◦ AC with VHF radio within 25nm of the home base ◦ Multi engine AC south of 66,30 north, in IFR flight in controlled airspace or along designated air routes • For all other scenarios no person shall operate an aircraft over land unless there is carried on board surival equipment, sufficient for each person on board, given the geographical area, the season of the year and anticipated seasonal climatic variations, that provides the means to ◦ Start a fire ◦ Provide shelter ◦ Provide purifying watercraft ◦ Visually signalling device

Answer 83

Float and land planes – life preservers/flotation devices: No person shall conduct a takeoff or a landing on water in an aircraft or operate an AC over water beyond a point where the aircraft could reach shore in the event of an engine failure, unless a life preserver, individual flotation device or personal flotation device is carried for each person on board Life Preservers: • No person shall operate a land aeroplane, gyro plane, helicopter or airship at more than 50nm from shore unless a life preserver is carried for each person on board • The life jackets must be stored on a board in a fashion so as to be easily accessible to person for whom it is intended when that person is seated

Answer 84

Life raft for single engine (or multi engine) • If a single AC or ME AC is unable to maintain flight with any engine inop over water beyond 100nm from a suitable emergency landing site • Or if the aeroplane is operated over water beyond a distance at which the same landing site cannot be reached within 30 minutes at cruising speed specified in the flight plan or flight itinerary • whichever distance is the lesser, the ac must be equipped with life raft sufficient in total rated capacity to accomodate all persons on board Life raft for ME aeroplane: In the case of multi engine AC capable of maintaining flight with any engine failed, the distance is extended to 200nm and the time is extended to 60min Life raft for SE helicopter: no person shall operate over water a single engined helicopter, or a ME helicopter that is unable to maintain flight with any engine failed, at more than 25nm, or the distance that can be covered in 15 minutes of flight at the cruising speed filed in the flight plan or flight itinerary, whichever distance is the lesser, from a suitable emergency landing site unless life rafts are carried on baord and are sufficient in total rated capacity to accomodate all of the persons on board Life rafts for ME Helicopter: No person shall operate over water a ME helo that is able to maintain flight with any engine failed at more than 50nm or the distance that can be covered in 30 minutes of flight at the cruising speed filed in the flight plan or flight itinerary, whichever distance is the lesser, from a suitable emergency landing site unless life rafts are carried on board and are sufficient in total rated capacity to accomodate all of the persons on board Helicopter Immersion suit: Where a helo is required to carry life rafts, no person shall operate the helo over water having temperature of less than 10 degrees unless a helo transportation suit system is provided and worn by each passenger and crew on board

Answer 85

Pre-Flight: PIC shall be familiar with the available information that is appropriate to the intended flight PIC has the final authority as to the operation of the aircraft PIC to make sure the plane is in a condition safe for the flight

Answer 86

Weather: PIC shall before commencing a flight be familiar with the available weather information that is appropriate for the intended flight

Answer 87

Flight plan/itinerary: • FP or itin required when a flight goes beyond 25nm radius from the aerodrome • FP required to fly to the USA or a military aerodrome • Reason for the FP is for SAR • An IFR pilot may file an IFR flight itin if: ◦ Flight is conducted in part or whole outside controlled airspace ◦ Facilities are inadequate to permit the comms of flight plan • FP is filed with a Flight information Center (FIC) or Flight service station (FSS) via phone, person, nav canada website or radio on FISE ◦ Can be filed up to 24 hours in advance ◦ Requested that be at least 30 minutes before departure

Answer 88

Responsible Person: • Flight itinerary is filed with FIC/FSS or a responsible person • A responsible person is anyone who agrees to notify SAR in case the aircraft becomes overdue • As a pilot, you should ensure that your responsible person knows what to do in the event that you are late or a no-show

Answer 89

Overdue Aircraft: • AC is considered overdue and Search will commence when: ◦ On a flight plan: ▪ Within one hour of the overdue time ◦ On a flight itinerary ▪ Exceed the search and rescue time specified in the flight itinerary ▪ In other cases 24 hours of the ETA

Answer 90

Arrival report requirements: • Pilot should as soon as practical after landing close the FP or FI but not later than: ◦ 1hours after your last reported ETA for a FP ◦ 24 hours after your last reported ETA if on an itin • After the SAR notification time has passed, a search will begin • They start looking around 5 minutes after your expiry time

Answer 91

Arrival report content • should contain as per the CFS: ◦ if there is a tower, they will close it ◦ Still confirm! ◦ If a controlled airport not served by a tower or an uncontrolled airport, an arrival report must be made to FSS as soon as practicable ◦ Can be done by radio (if there is an FSS) or by phone to the appropriate FIC

Answer 92

Overdue aircraft report: • If you suspecct an aircraft is missing ◦ notify ATC, FSS, CARS or RCC ◦ Provide all the info you have

Answer 93

Fuel Requirements: • VFR fixed wing day: to dest + 30minutes at normal cruising speed • VFR fixed wing night: to dest +45 minutes at normal cruising speed • IFR Fixed wing prop: fly to and conduct approach and a missed approach at the destination, to fly to and land at the alternate aerodrome and then fly for a period of 45min • IFR Turbo Jet: fly to and execute an approach and a missed approach at the destination aerodrome, to fly to and land at the alternate aerodrome and then to fly for a period of 30minutes • Helo Day or night: fly to dest then for 20minutes at cruising speed • Sufficient fuel must also be on board for: ◦ Possible delays from taxiing and takeoff ◦ Weather ◦ Air traffic routing ◦ aircraft pressurization ◦ engine failure of a multi engine aircraft ◦ any other foreseeable conditions that could delay the flight

Answer 94

Diversion from FP: If a pilot diverts to an aerodrome other than the destination as filed in the FP, the pilot shall notify the ATC, FIC, FSS or CARS as soon as practicable

Answer 95

Carry on baggage/cargo • Baggage must be ◦ Stowed in a bin, compartment or rack ◦ Restrainted so as to prevent them from shifting during movement of the aircraft ◦ Must not block exits or emergency exits and the equipment and cargo that are stowed in a passenger compartement are packaged or covered to avoid possible injury to persons on board

Answer 96

Crew member instructions: • PIC of the AC shall ensure that each crew member has been instructed with respect to ◦ Duties that the crew member is to perform ◦ Location and use of all of the normal and emergency exits and of all of the emergency equipment that is carried on board the aircraft

Answer 97

Passenger briefings: • PIC shall ensure that pax are briefed before takeoff ◦ Location and means of operations of emergency and normal exits ◦ Location and means of operations of safety belts, shoulder harnesses and restraint devices ◦ Positioning of seats and the securing of seat backs and chair tables ◦ Stowage of carry-on baggage ◦ Prohibition against smoking