00-80T-105 Flashcards

1
Q

What is the name of the 80T-105?

A

CV NATOPS Manual

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2
Q

What is the carrier control zone?

A

The airspace within a circular limit defined by 5 miles horizontal radius from the carrier extending upward from the surface to and including 2500’.

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3
Q

What is the carrier control area?

A

A circular airspace within a radius of 50 nm around the carrier, extending upward from the surface to infinity.

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4
Q

What are the cases of CVN launches and recoveries?

A

Case I - No lower than 3000’-5 SM

Case II - No lower than 1000’-5 SM

Case III - Lower than 1000’-5 SM or a nighttime departure or recovery (1/2 hour after sunset to 1/2 hour before sunrise)

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5
Q

Positive Control

A

Controlling agency has radar and radio contact with the aircraft, a published approach or departure procedure is complied with, or specific heading and altitude instructions are given by controller.

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6
Q

Advisory Control

A

Controlling agency monitors radar and radio contact and provides traffic advisories.

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7
Q

Monitor Control

A

The monitoring of radar and radio channels for emergency transmissions.

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8
Q

Nonradar Control

A

Pilot flies according to a published procedure or as prescribed by the controlling agency. Only used in emergency, when all shipboard air control radar is inoperative or unusable.

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9
Q

CVN Launch Weather Minimums

A

200-1/2

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10
Q

Red Light

A

The local time at which a helicopter is no longer SAR capable and has approximately 30 minutes of flight time remaining.

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11
Q

Helicopter Departure Restrictions

A

Helos shall take departure to port and shall not cross the bow within 5 nm or the stern within 3 nm without clearance.

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12
Q

Caution about launching with aircraft turning in the six pack

A

Launching of helicopters from Spots 4, 5, and 6 should be avoided to prevent hot gas ingestion (potential for compressor stall).

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13
Q

What is the name of the “keyhole”?

A

Helicopter Restrictions During Fixed Wing Launch/Recoveries

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14
Q

What are the keyhole restrictions?

A

No operations without air officer approval - 1 nm 360 degrees. Out to 3 nm off the stern (150-190 degrees relative). Out to 5 nm off the bow (340-020 degrees relative).

Operations below 200’ - 5-10 nm off the bow (340-020).

Operations below 300’ - 150-340 out to 5 nm.

Operations below 400’ - 020-150 out to 5 nm. 020-340 from 5-10 nm.

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15
Q

Lost Comms

A

Remain at or below 300’, arc to enter starboard delta, execute lost comms procedures. Squawk 7600, fly close aboard starboard quarter with hover light on for immediate landing, or navigation lights flashing bright with anti-collision on if you desire to land but can wait until next recovery.

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16
Q

Starboard Delta

A

045 outbound, 110 inbound. 300’ and 3-5 nm arc in to 1 nm and back out.

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17
Q

Can FCFs be conducted concurrently with fixed wing operations?

A

Yes

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18
Q

What are the helicopter approach minimums?

A

ASR/TACAN - 300’-3/4
ACLS Mode III - 200’-1/2

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19
Q

Can you open the door when a helicopter is taking off or landing in the spot in front of you?

A

No

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20
Q

What do you need to takeoff or engage/disengage rotors with a roll > 4 degrees while the ship is in a turn?

A

CO approval, winds and ship’s heel communicated to the HAC.

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21
Q

Plane Guard Distances

A

Day - 20 nm
Night - 10 nm

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22
Q

Spot 7 Restriction with Engaged Rotors and Fixed Wing in tension Catapults 3 and 4

A

Can not let personnel in the rotor arc

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23
Q

Can Spot 8 be utilized with fixed wing in tension on Catapults 3 and 4?

A

No

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24
Q

Starboard approaches and departures are prohibited from what spot?

A

Spot 2

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25
Q

Can you hot refuel on Spot 8?

A

No

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26
Q

What spot can’t be utilized during fixed wing launches and recoveries?

A

Spot 8

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27
Q

Left seat visual recoveries to Spots 2 and 3?

A

Not recommended to Spot 2.
Prohibited to Spot 3.

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28
Q

Left seat visual recoveries to Spots 4, 5, 6?

A

Represent an increased risk to the LSE. LSE should be positioned inboard of the catapult four safe parking line in the same general location as right seat recoveries.

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29
Q

Cross cockpit recoveries forward of an occupied spot?

A

Not recommended

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30
Q

What are concurrent operations and what spots are they allowed to?

A

Concurrent operations include H-60 ground turns, takeoffs, and landings during fixed wing flight operations. Spots 2 and 7.

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31
Q

Spot Restriction with an H-46, H-47, H-53, or V-22?

A

Spots immediately forward and aft shall remain vacant.

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32
Q

HERP considerations for CVN-78

A

No restrictions Spot 3 and forward.

Operations forward of the island (Spots 4-6), within a 450 ft radius, at a height of 24 feet above the flight deck shall not exceed 180 seconds.

Operations aft of the island (Spots 7-9), within a 450 ft radius, at a height of 32 feet above the flight deck shall not exceed 80 seconds.

Centerline recoveries going from aft to forward of the island shall not exceed 80 seconds at a height above 24 feet above the flight deck.

If additional flight time is required, aircraft shall wave off and remain outside of 450 feet for 280 seconds.

VERTREP, high hover FCF, and any other operations within 450 feet of the island that exceed that time, the ship shall establish no radiate sectors.

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33
Q

De-arming Spots

A

Spot 4 is primary. Spots 3, 5, and 6 are secondary.

Second aircraft with ordnance will not land for de-arming until first aircraft is de-armed.

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34
Q

Hung Ordnance

A

Advise tower, set HERO, land spot 7 or 9 with starboard side CSW. If Spot 9, land BRC +15.

If hung forward firing ordnance, shall not land Spot 7.

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35
Q

Hung Dome

A

Land Spot 9 with 4 maintainers at the ready. Consider LSE in Vulture’s Row. Ensure dome is grounded prior to handling. Cable will be walked with two person integrity, place cable paid out in helo before shutdown.

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36
Q

Can you transport a passenger with the GAU-21 installed?

A

No, you shall remove GAU-21 and swing arm before transporting passengers.

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37
Q

When shall transient helicopters contact marshal control?

A

25 nm out. Expect to proceed direct to starboard delta for recovery.

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38
Q

What profile shall helicopters fly in the holding pattern?

A

300’ 80 knots

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39
Q

Snuggle Up

A

Operate within 1 nm if the ship and expect to land within 5 minutes.

40
Q

What does it mean to be directed Charlie?

A

Cleared to cross stern and commence an approach to designated landing spot, suffix indicates time delay before landing.

41
Q

What are the TACAN marshal fixes?

A

1000’ and 5 nm on the 110 radial. Each successive marshal fix adds 500’ and 1 nm.

Right hand holding patterns with 2 nm legs.

42
Q

What is the instrument recovery helicopter emergency marshal?

A

Commences at 7nm.

43
Q

What shall be available for nighttime helicopter recoveries?

A

CCA

44
Q

Safety/Medical/QA Jersey

A

White

45
Q

Maintenance Jersey

A

Green

46
Q

Ordnance/Crash and Salvage Jersey

A

Red

47
Q

Aircraft Handling/Chock and Chain Jerseys

A

Blue

48
Q

Aircraft Handling Officer/Plane Director Jersey

A

Yellow

49
Q

Fuel Jersey

A

Purple

50
Q

Helicopter LSE Jersey

A

Green

51
Q

Helicopter Plane Captain Jersey

A

Brown

52
Q

LSO Jersey

A

White

53
Q

Helicopter Case III Departure

A

Helicopters shall be maintained as a flight beneath the clouds. If unable, they shall climb to 150-300’ and arc at 3nm to assigned departure radial.

54
Q

Ball

A

A pilot report indicating the visual landing aid is in sight.

55
Q

Clara

A

A pilot transmission indicating the pilot does not have the visual landing aid in sight.

56
Q

Concurrent Operations

A

Sequential launch and recovery of fixed wing and rotary wing aircraft in the same cycle.

57
Q

BRC vs FC

A

BRC: The ships magnetic heading during flight operations.

FC: Ships true heading during flight operations.

58
Q

Bingo

A

An order to proceed and land at the field specified, utilizing a bingo profile. Aircraft is considered to be in an emergency fuel situation. Bearing, distance, and destination shall be provided.

59
Q

EEAT

A

Estimated expected approach time

The future time, assigned prior to launch, at which an aircraft is cleared to depart inbound or penetrate from a pre assigned fixed under lost comms conditions.

60
Q

FACSFAC

A

Fleet area control and surveillance facility

61
Q

Kilo Report

A

A pilot coded report indicating aircraft mission readiness.

62
Q

Operational Commitment

A

A situation of such compelling urgency that failure to grant a deviation from established explosive safety criteria will have a deteriore impact on the mission readiness of naval forces.

63
Q

Popeye

A

A pilot coded report indicating aircraft flying in clouds or area of reduced visibility.

64
Q

Weather Criteria

A

Case I: no lower than 3000/5

Case II: no lower than 1000/5

Case III: lower than 1000/5

65
Q

Three types of aircraft emergencies from a control standpoint

A

Communications failure
NAVAID failure
Other aircraft systems failures

66
Q

Stores vs Weapons

A

Stores - definition applies to items that are not normally separated from the aircraft in flight.

Weapons - definition applies to items that are normally separated from the aircraft in flight.

67
Q

When electrical storms are within a _____ nm radius of the ship, ammunition and explosives operations in exposed locations shall be halted.

A

5 nm

68
Q

Refueling hoses ________ be connected to an aircraft which is undergoing the loading/downloading of ordnance that require electrical connections to make contact.

A

Shall not

69
Q

Recovery with Hung/Misfired Ordnance

A

Shall execute the following before entering ships control zone:

Visual check
Ship shall be notified
Approval to enter control zone with ordnance
Safe all weapon systems
Fly with weapons pointed away from ship

70
Q

Three limits for starting engines

A

Should be prepared to engage rotors immediately following engine start

Personnel shall not enter rotors arc with engines operating and rotor brake on

APU may be started provided clearance to prevent damage to adjacent aircraft/equipment is assured

71
Q

For night and IMC launches, the nose of the helicopter shall be oriented _____________________ and within the visual parameters established in the respective aircraft NATOPS flight manual.

A

To the center line of the angle or axial deck

72
Q

For launch, LSE shall ensure…. (ATACS)

A

All tiedowns removed.

The area affected by the helo downwash is clear.

Airborne aircraft are clear.

Confirm launch approval.

Sufficient clearance exists for maneuver during hover tests.

73
Q

The departing helicopter, is SAR capable, shall report…

A

Red light to the controlling agency.

74
Q

Unless otherwise directed, helicopters shall take departure to ______ and shall not cross the bow within _____ or the stern within ______ without specific clearance from tower.

A

Port; 5 nm; 3 nm

75
Q

Case III: After takeoff, climb straight ahead to _____ to _____ feet (aided) and arc within ____ nm to departure radial.

A

150-300 feet

3 nm

76
Q

The climb to departure altitude will be commenced on the departure radial outside ______ nm.

A

12 nm

77
Q

Lost Comms on the Departure

A

Should remain at or below 300 feet, arc to enter starboard delta and execute lost comms procedures in accordance with figure 8-4.

78
Q

A GAU-21 installed in a MH-60R does not preclude _____ operations, but it does present an obstacle to the crewman due to its size and location in the cabin door. To the max extent practicable, the GAU-21 and swing arm ________ be removed before tasking a MH-60R in this configuration to conduct PG.

A

SAR; should

79
Q

CATCC shall conduct a radio check with the plane guard helicopter at least every _____ minutes during case III.

A

20 minutes

80
Q

CVN TACAN minimums

A

300-3/4

81
Q

CVN ACLS minimums

A

200-1/2

82
Q

What is the flight deck elevation?

A

60 feet

83
Q

Transient helicopters approaching the carrier for landing shall contact marshal control at least ______ nm out.

Helicopters should expect to proceed to _______ _______.

A

25 nm; starboard delta

84
Q

Personnel: RED / GREEN

A

LSE

85
Q

Personnel: RED / BROWN

A

Plane Captain

86
Q

Personnel: BROWN / WHITE

A

Quality Assurance

87
Q

Three Bullets about Starting Engines

A
  1. There are no wind limits, HCO should be prepared to engage rotors immediately following engine start.
  2. Personnel shall not enter or exit rotor arc with engines on and rotor brake engaged.
  3. APU may be started provided there is enough clearance to prevent damage to adjacent aircraft from APU exhaust.
88
Q

Helicopters shall take departure to ______ and not cross the bow within ____ nm or the stern within ____ nm.

A

Port; 5 nm; 3 nm

89
Q

Note: During recovery of aircraft with forward firing ordnance, the PG helicopter shall not be positioned on the starboard side from ______ to _____ degree relative bearing within ____ nm from the carrier.

A

360-090; 5 nm

90
Q

What does it say about weapons on the PG aircraft?

A

The presence of personal weapons, CSE, fixed forward firing weapons, torpedoes, CATMs, DATMs, or expendable shall not prevent an otherwise SAR capable helicopter from being tasked with PG responsibilities or SAR.

91
Q

Note about the GAU-21 and SAR

A

A GAU-21 installed in a MH-60R does not preclude SAR operations, but it does present an obstacle to the crewman due to its size and location in the cabin door. To the maximum extent practicable, the GAU-21 and swing arm should be removed before tasking a MH-60R in this configuration to conduct PG.

92
Q

What are the two types of NVD Aided Approaches vice a CCA?

A

Centerline Visual Approach

Slide in visual approach

93
Q

Readiness Condition 1

A

Aircraft: Spotted for immediate launch, rotor blades spread, starting equipment plugged in
LSE, Starting crewman, plane captain and required plane handlers: standing by
Tie downs: at least 4 attached to aircraft
Flight crew: ready to launch in all respects with all personnel equipment attached and adjusted as in flight

94
Q

Readiness Condition II

A

Same as Condition 1 except flight crews shall stand by in the ready rooms

95
Q

Readiness Condition III

A

Aircraft: main rotor blades may be folded, aircraft need not be in position for immediate launch but must be parked to allow direct access to a suitable launch spot, a tow bar shall be attached
LSE, tractor driver, handling crew and starting crewman: shall be designated and assigned, thoroughly briefed that the aircraft can be safety and expeditiously moved
Flight crews: should be briefed for launch and standing by in a designated location

96
Q

Readiness Condition IV

A

Similar to Condition III except minor maintenance may be performed on the aircraft of no delay in launch is involved