Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM


Top Flashcards (Certified)
All Flashcards

פסיכיאטריה > פסיכיאטריה > Flashcards

פסיכיאטריה Flashcards

1
Q

Schizophrenia - epidemiology

  • Frequency in general population is … [1]
  • Peak incidence age in men… [2], while in women is…[3]
  • Only…[4] present after the age of…[5]
  • People born in… [6]
  • …[7] socioeconomic levels and …[8] areas have higher tendency
    • This is explained by two hypotheses…[9][10]
  • More frequent in patients with… [11] personality disorder
A
  1. 1%
  2. 15-25
  3. 25-35
    • Late onset is considered after the age of 45
  4. 3-10%
  5. 40
    • Rarely presents before the age 10 and after the age 60
  6. Winter or early spring
  7. Lower
  8. Urbanic
  9. Downward drift hypothesis
  10. Social causation hypothesis
  11. Schizotypal
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Schizophrenia - biological factors

  1. Dopamine theory
  2. Serotonin theory
  • Loss of…[3] in the hippocampus
  • Related to increase in…[4]
  • Decreased concentration of…[5] and…[6] receptors in the caudate, hippocampus and the pre-frontal cortex
A
  1. The main one is the dopamine theory
    • Decreased activity in the mesocortical pathway, leads to positive symptoms
    • Increased activity in the mesolimbic pathway, leads to negative symptoms
    • The tuberoinfundibular pathway and the nigrostraital pathway are related only in the way of drugs side effects
  2. Increased serotonin - leads to both negative and positive symptoms
  3. GABAgeric
  4. Glutamate
  5. Nicotinic
  6. Muscarinic
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Schizophrenia - genetic factors

  • Risk of…[1] in sick brother
  • Risk of… [2] in child of one sick parent
  • Risk of… [3] in child of two sick parents
  • Risk of…[4] in DZ twin, while there is risk of…[5] in MZ twin
  • According to some studies, …[6] over the age…[7], while making the child is also risk factor for the child to develop schizophrenia
A
  1. 8%
  2. 12%
  3. 40%
  4. 12%
  5. 47%
  6. Father
  7. 60
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Schizophrenia - Bleuler’s areas of life

A
  • Described as the 4A’s
    • Affect
    • Ambivalence
    • Association
    • Autism
  • Later, alogia, avolition and anhedonia were added
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Schizophrenia - Schnider’s symptoms

A
  • Schnider’s described the characteristics of the hallucinations and the delusions of schizophrenic patients
    • Delusions of control - stealing, implanting, control of thoughts
    • Auditory hallucinations:
      • Own thoughts
      • Speaking to the patients
      • Criticizing the patient’s behavior
    • Somatic hallucinations
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Schizophrenia - negative symptoms

A
  • Flat affect
  • Decreased emotional range
  • Cognitive decrease - blocking, low content
  • Decrease in function
  • Anhedonia
  • Apathy
  • Decreased energy
  • Abulia
  • Alogia

It has been shown that males have higher frequency of negative symptoms

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Schizophrenia - cognitive symptoms

A
  • Defect in memory, listening and in the ability to preform tasks
  • Defective insight
  • Defective abstract thinking
  • Disorders in concentration, executive function, working memory and episodic memory
  • Considered as the most importnat prognostic factor for later immersion in society
  • Tends to have lower IQ scores than the general population
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Schizophrenia - diagnosis (DSM-5)

A
  1. 2 or more of the following, where the one of the first 3 must be present for a significant time of one month:
    • Delusions
    • Hallucinations
    • Disorganized speech
    • Disorganized behavior (catatonic)
    • Negative symptoms
  2. Decrease in function for significant time, since the disease onset
  3. For at least 6 months
  4. No affective disorder
  5. If autism is present - hallucinations or delusion must be present
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Schizophrenia - paranoid type

A
  • Abrupts in 20-30 - better prognosis
  • Mainly delusions (grandiosity and presecution) and hallucinations
  • There is lack of the other symptoms
  • No negative symptoms
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Schizophrenia - disorganized type

A
  • Before the age of 25 - bad prognosis
  • Characterized by disinhibition and predominant negative symptoms
  • All the 3 need to found: disorganized speech, disorganized behavior, flat affect
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Schizophrenia - catatonic type

A
  • At least 3 of the following:
    • Catalepsy, including waxy flexibility
    • Motor action without goal
    • Extreme negativism
    • Wired motor activity
    • Echopraxia or echolalia
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Schizophrenia - residual type

A
  • Patients after schizophrenic abruption that are left only with the negative symptoms
  • In this stage there are no characteristics of psychosis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Schizophrenia - undifferentiated type

A
  • Schizophrenic patients that does not fit to any other subtype
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Schizophrenia - post-psychotic depression

  • Occurs in…[1] of patients
  • …[2] will try to suicide, and …[3] will commit suicide
  • Criteria …[4]
A
  1. 25%
  2. 50%
  3. 10-13%
  4. 3 conditions:
    • Criteria for MDD
    • Abrupt in the residual phase of schizophrenia
    • Isnt on the background of medications or other organic disease
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Schizophrenia - violence risk

  • Risk factors
  • Emergency treatment
  • Treatment
A
  • Higher risk, more common in patients that does not undergoing treatment
    • The most important risk factor is past violent episode
    • Other risk factors: delusion of persecution, neurological deficits
  • Acute treatment: restrication and isolation, sedation with lorazepam 1-2 mg/h
  • Anti-psychotics
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Schizophrenia - substance addiction

  • more then…[1] have substance addiction
  • …[2] of the patients are smokers
  • …[3] are addicted to alcohol
  • …[4] consume cannabis
  • …[5] consume cocaine
A
  1. 50%
  2. >90%
    • Decrease AE’s of anti-psychotics
    • Decrease positive symptoms
    • Improves functioning
  3. 30-50%
  4. 15-25%
  5. 5-10%
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Schizophrenia - physical co-morbidity

  • Life-expectancy is…[1] then the general population
  • Co-morbidities include…[2-6]
  • Other psychiatric co-morbidities include…[7-9]
  • Schizophrenia is found to protective against…[10], with the rate of about…[11] less then the general population
A
  1. Shorter
  2. Obesity
  3. T2DM
  4. CVD
  5. COPD
  6. HIV
    • x1.5-2.0 higher than the general population
  7. Prevasive developmental disorder (PDD)
  8. Schizoaffective
  9. MDD
  10. Rheumatoid arthritis
  11. 33%
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Schizophrenia - prognosis

  • …[1] will be re-admitted within 2 years of the first admission
  • Within 5-10 years from the first admission only…[2] get prolonged remission
  • …[3] get remission
  • …[4] have normal lifestyle
  • …[5] have intermidate strength symptoms
  • …[6] have significant functional damage for the rest of their life
  • …[7] of the patients have bad prognosis
A
  1. 40-60%
  2. 10-20%
  3. 10-60%
  4. 20-30%
  5. 20-30%
  6. 40-60%
  7. >50%
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q
A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Schizophrenia - suicide risk

  • The…[1] cause of death in schizophrenic patients
  • …[2] try to commit suicide, while…[3] succeed
  • Patients with…[4] prognosis have higher risk
  • The most significant risk factor is…[5], which is experienced by…[6] of the patients in any point during their life
  • Additional risk factors include…[7-9]
A
  1. Leading
  2. 50%
  3. 10-13%
  4. Good
  5. Depressive episode
  6. 80%
  7. Young age (although it is found in the bad prognosis criteria)
  8. Substance abuse
  9. Delusions
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Schizophrenia - pharmacologic treatment

  • Drugs…[1]
  • Injections are given when…[2]
  • …[3] will get full remission
  • After psychosis, antipsychotic medications decrease the relapse rate from…[4] to…[5]
  • Maximal effect within… [6]
  • If there is no effect after…[7], …[8]
A
  1. Atypicals are the first option - risperidone or olanzapine
    • If typicals are given, perphenazine is given
  2. There is lack of compliance or in acute stage
  3. 60-70%
  4. 50-70%
  5. 15-25%
  6. 6-8 weeks
  7. 4 weeks
  8. Increase the dose or change of clozapine
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Schizophrenia - psychosocial treatment

!!!!!!להוסיף מנקודות

A
  • Social skills - improve relations, eye contact, spontanic interactions, understanding of social interactions
  • Family treatment
  • CBT - found beneficial for supressing delusions and hallucinations
  • Psychotherapy
  • Rehabilitation
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Schizophrenia - adjuvant therapy

A
  • Lithium - decrease psychotic signs
  • Anti-epileptics - decrease violent episodes
  • Benzodiazepines
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Schizophreniform disorder - diagnosis (DSM-5)

A
  • Criteria A (signs), D (rule-out affective disorder) and E of schizophrenia
  • Less then 6 monthes, but more then 1 month
  • Specificy with or without good prognosis (good prognosis if 2 or more are present)
    • Acute onest (psychoitc feats. within 4 weeks of change of behavior or function)
    • Confusion in the time of psychosis
    • High function before onset
    • No flat affect
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Schizophreniform disorder - prognosis

  • …[1] will turn to schizophrenia patients
  • Higher frequency of…[2]
A
  1. 60-80%
  2. Post-psychotic depression
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Schizophreniform disorder - treatment

  1. Drugs
  2. Recurrent episodes
  3. Catatonic symptoms or prominent depression
  4. Psychothrapy
A
  1. Antipsychotics for 3-6 months
  2. Mood stabilizers - lithium, carbamazepine, valproic acid
  3. Consider ECT
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Schizoaffective disorder - epidemiology

  • Lifetime prevalance of…[1]
  • More common in…[2] gender
  • Age of onset in females is…[3]
  • Males tend to show more…[4] signs and…[5]
  • In the bipolar type gender division is…[6] males, and…[7] females
  • In the depressive type gender division is…[8] males, and…[9] females
  • Can have delusion or hallucinations that are… or…[10]
  • Important to diagnose periods of…[11] of more then…[12]
  • …[13] gene is associated with both schizoaffective disorder and…[14] disorder
A
  1. 0.5-0.8%
  2. Female
  3. Later
  4. Anti-social
  5. Flat affect
  6. 50%
  7. 50%
  8. 33%
  9. 66%
  10. Mood congurent or mood incongruent
  11. Delusions or hallucinations
  12. 2 weeks
  13. DISC1
  14. Bipolar
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Schizoaffective disorder - diagnosis (DSM-5)

A
  • During the disease period - depressive episode/manic episode/mixed episode together with criteria A of schizophrenia
  • At least two weeks of only delusions/hallucinations
  • Affective symptoms are present in most of the time of the disease period
  • Rule out drugs or general medical condition
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Schizoaffective disorder - treatment

  • Drugs
    • In manic episode
    • Refractory mania
    • Depressive episode
A
  • Mood stabilizer, sometimes with combination of antipsychotics
    • Increase the dose of mood stablizers
    • Consider ECT
    • SSRI’s

Carbamazepine is more efficient than lithium in the bipolar subtype

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Schizoaffetive disorder - prognosis

  • Better prognosis than…[1] patients
  • Worse prognosis than…[2] patients
  • Multiple…[3] signs are bad prognostic indicators
A
  1. Schizophrenia
  2. Mood disorder
  3. Schizophrenic
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Delusional disorder - epidemiology

  • Prevalance of…[1]
  • Avarage abruption age of…[2], and more common in…[3]
  • More common in…[4] socioeconomic state
  • During the years, less then…[5] will diagnosed with schizophrenia, and less then…[6] will be diagnoised with mood disorder
A
  1. 0.2-0.3%
  2. 40
  3. Females
  4. Low
  5. 25%
  6. 10%
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Delusional disorder - risk factors

  • …[1] age
  • …[2] that can be physical, sensory or social
  • …[3]
  • …[4] socioeconomic state
A
  1. Old
  2. Isolation
  3. Family history
  4. Low
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Delusional disorder - diagnosis (DSM-5)

A
  • Delusions for at least a month
  • Doesnt fulfill criteria A for schizophrenia
  • No functional decrease, except the consequences of the delusional thoughts
  • If there were affective states with the delusions, their length was short in relation to the delusions
  • No drugs or other GMC

Sepcify the delusion kind

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Delusional disorder - prognosis

  • …[1] recover, …[2] get better, …[3] with no change
  • Good prognosis when starts at…[4] age
  • Good prognostic indicators include:
    • …[5] pre-morbid condition
    • …[6] gender
    • …[7] onset
    • Onset before the age of…[8]
    • …[9] duration
    • …[10], …[11] and…[12] delusions
A
  1. 50%
  2. 20%
  3. 30%
  4. Young
  5. Good
  6. Female
  7. Acute
  8. 30
  9. Short
  10. Erotomanic
  11. Persecution
  12. Somatic
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Delusional disorder - treatment

  • Treatment of choice
  • If there is no change within…[2], …[3]
  • Failure of treatment, consider…[4] or…[5]
  • Psychotherapy
A
  1. Antipsychotics with gradually increased dose
  2. 6 weeks
  3. Change to other antipsychotic
  4. Mood stabilizers
  5. Anti-depressents
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Brief psychotic disorder - definition and epidemiology

  • Definition
  • More common in…[2] age, …[3]
  • …[4] countries
  • …[5] socioeconomic states
A
  1. Psychotic episode that lasts less then month and more then a day, and after which, there is full recovery and return to the premorbid function
  2. Young
  3. Females
  4. Developing
  5. Low
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Brief psychotic disorder - diagnosis (DSM-5)

A
  • At least one of:
    • Delusions
    • Hallucinations
    • Disorganized speech
    • Disorganized behavior
  • One day - one month, will full return to premorbid function
  • Cannot be explained by other organic of psychiatric conditions

Specify if there is a stressor: brief reactive psychosis/no stressor/postpartum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Brief psychotic diorder - prognosis

  • …[1] without major psychiatric disorders thoughout life
  • About…[2] will develop chronic psychiatric disease
A
  1. 50-80%
  2. 50%

לפי נקודות: לרוב לא יהיו מחלות פסיכיאטריות לאחר אירוע אחד

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Brief psychotic disorder - treatment

  • Drugs
  • Psychotherapy
A
  • High potency antipsychotics (haloperidol) in low doses and benzodiazepines
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Post partum psychosis

  • …[1] for each 1000 deliveries
  • In…[2] - the first child
  • …[3] had nonpsychiatric perinatal complications
  • More then…[4] have family of mood disorder
  • Symptoms have to appear…[5] after delivery
  • Treatment of choice [6]
A
  1. 1/2
  2. 50%
  3. 50%
  4. 50%
  5. 4 months
  6. Anti-depressents and lithium, sometimes in combination with antipsychotics
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Catatonia - epidemiology

  • …[1] related to mood disorders
  • …[2] associated with schizophrenia
  • Specifiers
A
  1. 25-50% (בסבב ולדימיר אמר יותר מחמישים אחוז)
  2. 10%
  3. 3 types:
    • Associated with another mental disorder
    • Due to another medical condition
    • Unspecified
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Catatonia - diagnosis (DSM-5)

A
  • At least 3 of the above:
    1. Catalepsy
    2. Waxy flexibility
    3. Stupor
    4. Agitation
    5. Mutism
    6. Posturing
    7. Mannerism
    8. Negativism
    9. Stereotypies
    10. Grimcing
    11. Echolalia
    12. Echopraxia
    13. Rigidity (not sure!)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Catatonia - treatment

  • Treatment in…[1]
  • Important to take care of…[2]
  • Options for treatment include:
    • …[3] are used, …[4] is the gold standard
      • …[5] can also be used
    • …[6] can also be used
A
  1. Hospitalization
  2. Feeding and hydration. IV or NG tube can be used
  3. Benzodiazepines
  4. Lorazepam
  5. Diazepam
  6. ECT
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Affective disorders - biologic etiology

  • Norepinephrine…[1]
  • Serotonin…[2]
  • Dopamine…[3]
  • Endocrine:
    • In…[4] of MDD patients there is pathologic…[5] and
    • …[6] function disorders
    • Decreased…[7]
    • Disturbance in…[8]
    • Decreased….[9] and…[10]
A
  1. Decreased levels are associated with depression
  2. The most associated neurotransmitter - decreased levels
  3. High levels of dopamine and in mania and low levels in depression
  4. 50%
  5. Dexamethasone supression test
  6. Thyroid
  7. Growth hormone
  8. Melatonin
  9. Sex hormones
  10. Prolactin
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Affective disorders - genetic factors

  • Child to a parent with mood disorder have…[1] risk to develop affective disorder
  • If there are 2 parents…[2] risk
  • MZ correlation…[3]
  • DZ from the same sex correlation…[4]
  • For depression:
    • Have…[5] times risk if there is depressed relative of first degree
    • …[6] MZ correspondence
  • For bipolar disorder:
    • For first degree relative have…[7] times risk for an affective disorder
    • To…[8] of bipolar I patients have at least one parent with affective disorder
    • MZ correspondece is…[9]
A
  1. 10-25%
  2. 20-50%
  3. 70-90%
  4. 10-35%
  5. 2-10
  6. 50%
  7. 8-18
  8. 50%
  9. 33-90%
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

MDD - epidemiology

  • Life time prevalance is…[1]
  • …[2] times more common in…[3]
  • Avarage abruption age is…[4]
  • …[5] of the patinets have their first episode before the age of…[6]
  • More common in…[7]
  • Is not related to…[8]
A
  1. 17%
  2. Twice
  3. Females
  4. 40
  5. 50%
  6. 40
  7. Singles, separated or widowed
  8. Socioeconomic levels
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

MDD - diagnosis (DSM-5)

A
  1. At least 5/9, in which 1 or 2 must be present. All the symptoms must be present for at least 2 weeks:
    1. Depressed mood, most of the day
    2. Anhedonia
    3. Change in apetite
    4. Sleep disturbances
    5. Psychomotor retardation
    6. Loss of energy
    7. Guilt
    8. Decrease in concentration
    9. Suicidal ideation
  2. The symptoms cause significant distress or decrease in function
  3. Rule out substance abuse or GMC
  4. Isnt explained better with other psychiartic disorders
  5. Rule out manic or hypomanic episode in the past
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

MDD - clinical features

  • 50% of the patients will…[1]
  • 97% report…[2]
  • 90% show signs of…[3]
  • 50% report…[4]
  • As the disease progresses, patients tend to have…[5] episodes with…[6] duration
  • …[7] consider suicide, while…[8] try to suicide
A
  1. Deny their symptoms
  2. Loss of energy
  3. Anxiety
  4. Diurnal variation
  5. More frequent
  6. Longer
  7. 66%
  8. 10-15%
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

MDD - co-morbidity

  • …[1-4] are the most frequent co-morbidities
  • The highest rate of associated co-morbidity is…[5], with rate of about…[6]
  • …[7] is more frequent with males that have affective disorder
  • …[8] are more frequent with females that have affective disorder
  • MDD in males is associated with…[9-12]
  • MDD in females is associated with…[13-16]
A
  1. Alcoholism
  2. OCD
  3. Social anxiety disorder
  4. Panic disorder
  5. Anxiety disorder
  6. 90%
  7. Substance abuse
  8. Eating disorders and anxiety
  9. ADHD
  10. Anxiety disorders
  11. Alcohol dependence
  12. Dysthymia
  13. Schizophrenia
  14. Other psychotic disorders
  15. Bipolar disorder
  16. Unipolar disorder
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

MDD - specifiers

A
  • With:
    1. Anxious distress
    2. Psychotic features
    3. Melancholic features
    4. Atypical features
    5. Mood congruent psychotic feats.
    6. Mood incongruent psychotic feats.
    7. Catatonia
    8. Peripartum onset
    9. Seasonal pattern
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

MDD - melancholic specifier

A
  • Lack of mood reactivity with at least 3:
    1. Depressed mood
    2. Worse in the morning
    3. Agitation
    4. Early awakening (2h before)
    5. Decreased weight
    6. Severe feeling of guilt
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

MDD - atypical specifier

A
  • Mood reactivity with at least 2 of the following:
    1. Increased appetite
    2. Hypersomnia
    3. Leaden paralysis
    4. Year long pattern of social anxiety
  • These patients tend to be:
    • Younger at onset
    • Severe psychomotor disturbance
    • Higher co-morbidity with anxiety disorders, substance abuse, dependency and somatization
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

MDD - treatment

Mild-moderate MDD

  • Start with…[1] for…[2] weeks
  • Partial response - augmentation with…[3-5]
  • No response - we need to…[6] to…[7,8]
  • Treatment failure is considered as lack of response after…[9] of adequate dosage
  • Anti-depressents effect starts within…[10]
  • For psychotic depression the treatment is…[11]
  • For atypical depression…[12] or…[13] can be given
  • SSRI’s can be given if pregnancy with the exception of…[14]
  • Of the acute phase, maintenance treatment for at least…[15] is given
A
  1. SSRI
  2. 3-4
  3. Lithium
  4. Thyroid hormones
  5. Buproprion
  6. Change the drug
  7. Another SSRI
  8. SNRI
  9. 4 weeks
  10. 2-4 weeks
  11. Anti-psychotic and anti-depressent
  12. SSRI
  13. Buproprion
  14. Paroxetine
  15. 6 months
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

MDD - prognosis

  • …[1] will have chronic depression (2 years)
  • …[2] with initial diagnosis of MDD will develop manic episode within…[3] after. The avarage age for switch is…[4]
  • After first episode the recurrence risk is…[5] within 6 months, while in the first 2 years is…[6], and in the next 5 years is…[7]
  • For…[8] will have response to therapy, from which…[9] will have total remission.
  • …[10] will not have any response to therapy
  • During 20 years the avarage number of depressive episodes is…[11]
  • Duration of un-treated episode is…[12]
  • After first admission only…[13] will heal
  • The risk for complete resolution…[14] with further admissions
  • Stopping the drug within…[15] of its initiation, almost always leads to relapse
A
  1. 5-10%
  2. 5-10%
  3. 6-10 years
  4. 32
  5. 25%
  6. 30-50%
  7. 50-75%
  8. 70%
  9. 30%
  10. 30%
  11. 5-6
  12. 6-13 months
  13. 50%
  14. Decreases
  15. 3 months
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Bipolar disorders - epidemiology

  • In…[1] of population
  • Avarage onset age is…[2]
  • Gender predominance is…[3], and manic episodes are more frequent in…[4]
  • More common in…[5]
  • More common in…[6] socioeconomic state
A
  1. 1%
  2. 30
  3. Equal
  4. Males
  5. Singles, divorced
  6. High
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Manic episode - diagnosis (DSM-5)

A
  1. Period of abnormaly elevated mood with goal direct activity that is found for at least 1 week, for most of the day, almost everyday (or requires hospitalization)
  2. In the same week at least 3/7
    1. Distractibility
    2. Insomnia
    3. Grandiosity
    4. Flight of ideas
    5. Activity increase
    6. Pressured speech
    7. Thoughtlessness (activity that have high risk or give a lot of pleasure)
  3. Significant functional disfunction
  4. Rule out substance abuse or GMC
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

Bipolar I disorder - clinical features

  • The disease tends to start with…[1] episodes
    • In…[2] of the females, and in…[3] of the males
  • Until the first manic episode there will be about…[4] depressive episodes
  • Only…[5] experience only manic episodes
  • Manic episode tends to start…[6] and last for…[7]
    • If untreated it can last up tp…[8]
  • As the disease progresses the remission…[9]
  • After 5 manic episodes the remission period stabilses on…[10]
  • During his life, patient will have about…[11] manic episodes
  • In relation to MDD there is higher rate of co-morbidity with…[12] and…[13]
  • Higher rate of…[14] then in psychotic disorders
A
  1. Depressive
  2. 70%
  3. 67%
  4. 2-4
  5. 10-20%
  6. Rapidly
  7. Weeks
  8. 3 months
  9. Shortens
  10. 6-9 months
  11. 9
  12. Substance abuse
  13. Anxiety
  14. Catatonia
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

Bipolar I disorder - rapid cycling

A
  • More common in females
  • Associated with hypothyrodisim
  • At least 4 episodes of mania, hypomania, depression or mixed within one year
  • Between each episode there is at least 2 months of remission or one episode immediately changes to another
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

Bipolar I disorder - treatment

  1. Acute mania
  2. Depressive episode
  3. Prophylaxis
  4. Rapid cycling patients
A
  1. Antipsychotics (new generation) and mood stabilizers
    • Lithium, carbamazepine, valproate, clonazepam, antipsychotics
  2. Anti-depressive drug, and due to risk for manic switch there is a need to add mood stabilizer
    • Olanzapine + fluoxetine is effient combination that does not lead to manic switch
    • For resistant patients - lamotrigine or ziprasedone
  3. 3 options:
    • Lithium
    • Valproic acid
    • Cabamazepine
    • Lamotrigine is more efficient in treatment and prevention of depressive episodes
  4. Positive outcomes with buproprion or nimodipine
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

Biploar I disorder - prognosis

  • …[1] prognosis then MDD patients
  • …[2] there is no recurrence of the disease
  • …[3] will have manic episode within 2 years of the first episode
  • …[4] will have chronic disease
  • In the long term
    • …[5] are in good state
    • …[6] in good state with multiple relapses
    • …[7] in partial remission
    • …[8] are chornically ill
  • Only…[9] have good control of the disease with lithium
  • Bad prognostic indicators include:
    • …[10] pre-morbid working status
    • …[11] abuse
    • …[12] features
    • …[13] signs during the episodes
    • …[14] signs between the episodes
    • …[15] gender
A
  1. Worse
  2. 7%
  3. 50%
  4. 40%
  5. 15%
  6. 45%
  7. 30%
  8. 10%
  9. 50-60%
  10. Bad
  11. Alcohol
  12. Psychotic
  13. Depressive
  14. Depressive
  15. Male
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

Hypomanic episode - diagnosis (DSM-5)

A
  1. Abnormaly elevated mood with goal direct activity, for at least 4 consecutive days, for most of the day, almost everyday
  2. 3/7 symptoms (such as manic episode DIG FAST)
  3. Decrease in function in lesser severity
  4. Observable by others
  5. Not severe enough to cause decrease in fucntion in social/work and does not nessciate hospitalization
  6. Rule out substance abuse and GMC
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

Dysthymic disorder - epidemiology

  • Prevalance is…[1]
  • Gender prevalance is..[2] and in…[3] status,
  • …[4] income
  • Higher prevalance in patients with first degree relative diagnosed with…[5]
  • Usually starts in…[6]
A
  1. 5-6%
  2. Equal
  3. Single
  4. Low
  5. MDD
  6. Childhood/adolescence
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

Dysthymic disorder - diagnosis (DSM-5)

A
  1. Depressed mood for most of the day, indicated by the patient or by other, for at least 2 years
  2. Presence while depressed of at least 2:
    1. Appetite changes
    2. Sleep changes
    3. Low energy
    4. Low self-esteem
    5. Poor concentration
    6. Hopelessness
  3. During the period, there was no period of more then 2 months without the symptoms
  4. No MDD (?)
  5. No manic, hypomanic, mixed or cyclothymic disorder
  6. Not part of other psychotic disturbance
  7. No substance abuse or GMC
  8. Distress and decrease in function
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

Dysthymic disorder - progression and prognosis

  • …[1] develop symptoms before the age of…[2]
  • …[3] will develop MDD
  • …[4] will develop bipolar II
  • Less then…[5] will develop bipolar I
  • Only…[6] will be in remission one year after the diagnosis
  • …[7] will never get full recovery
A
  1. 50%
  2. 25
  3. 20%
  4. 15%
  5. 5%
  6. 10-15%
  7. 25%
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

Cyclothymic disorder - epidemiology

  • Prevalance is…[1]
  • Often is comined with…[2]
  • The ratio of female:male is…[3]
  • …[4] is with onset in the ages of…[5]
  • Often in the patient’s family there is a history of…[6]
  • …[7] have family with bipolar I disorder
A
  1. 1%
  2. Borderline personality disorder
  3. 3:2
  4. 50-75%
  5. 15-25
  6. Substance abuse
  7. 30%
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

Cyclothymic disorder - diagnosis (DSM-5)

A
  1. Several periods of hypomania and several periods of depression that is not MDD, for at least 2 years
  2. No period of more then 2 months without the symptoms
  3. No episodes of MDD, mania or mixed
  4. Isnt part of other psychiatric disorder
  5. No substance abuse or GMC
  6. Distress and decrease in function
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

Cyclothymic disorder - progression and prognosis

  • Symptoms start in…[1] manner, in the age of…[2]
  • About…[3] will develop MDD, which will lead to diagnosis of bipolar II disorder
A
  1. Progressive
  2. Early 20’s
  3. 33%
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

Cyclothymic disorder - treatment

  1. Drugs
  2. Psycho-social treatment
A
  1. First line is mood stabilizers.
    • Anti-depressive treatment should be give carefully, due to the fact that 40-50% of the patients will have manic or hypomanic episodes percipitated by this treatment
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

Anxiety - etiology

  • Biologic etiology:
    • Increase in…[1]
    • Decrease in…[2] and…[3] of sleep
    • Decreased…[4] levels
    • Increased activity of…[5] and…[6] neurotransmitters
    • Increased activity in…[7-9]
  • Psychoanalytic:
    • In childhood, fear of…[10,11]
  • Learning:
    • Stress or chronic frustration leads to formation of…[12]
    • Mimicing…[13]
    • Maladaptive pattern of…[14]
  • Genetic:
    • …[15] that are diagnosed with anxiety disorder have first degree relative with the same diagnosis
A
  1. Autonomic, sympathetic tone
  2. REM latency
  3. 4th step
  4. GABA
  5. Serotonin
  6. Dopamine
  7. Temporal cortex
  8. Locus ceruleus
  9. Amygdala
  10. Loss of loved object
  11. Physical injury
  12. Conditioned reaction
  13. Parents
  14. Cognitive thinking
  15. 50%
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

Panic disorder - epidemiology

  • Prevalence of PD…[1], while of panic attacks is…[2]
  • …[3] times more common in…[4] gender
  • Peak of incidence is in the age of…[5]
  • The anxiety disorder that have the strongest…[6] component
  • Identified triggers include…[7] and…[8]
  • 25% have focal slowing in the…[9] lobe
  • Kids to parents with anxiety disorder have…[10] times higher risk for developing a disorder
A
  1. 1-4%
  2. 3-5.6%
  3. 2-3
  4. Female
  5. 25
  6. Genetic
  7. Divorce
  8. Separation
  9. Temporal
  10. 4-8
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

Panic attack - criteria (DSM-5)

A
  1. Time period of intense fear of restlessnesss, during this time there is at least 4 of the following symptoms, that develop rapidly and reach peak in 10 minutes:
    1. Palpitations
    2. Sweating
    3. Shaking
    4. Dyspnea
    5. Feelings of choking
    6. Chest discomfort
    7. Nausea
    8. Dizziness
    9. Chills or heat sensations
    10. Parasthesias
    11. Derealization/depersonalization
    12. Fear of losing control
    13. Fear of dying
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

Panic disorder - diagnosis (DSM-5)

A
  1. Recurrent, unexpected panic attacks
  2. At least 1 of the attacks has been followed by at least 1 month of 1 or both of the following:
    1. Persistent concern about panic attacks of their consequences
    2. Significant maladaptive behavior related to the attacks
  3. Not due to substance abuse or GMC
  4. Not better explained by other mental disorder
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

Panic disorder - co-morbidities

  • …[1] have psychiatric co-morbidity
  • 33% have…[2], before presentation
  • 66% experience PA…[3] or…[4], their…[5] diagnosis
  • 15% have…[6] or…[7]
  • 2-20% have…[8]
  • 15-30% have…[9]
  • 20% have…[10]
  • Another co-morbidities include…[11-13]
A
  1. 91%
  2. MDD
  3. During
  4. After
  5. MDD
  6. SAD
  7. Social phobia
  8. Specific phobia
  9. GAD
  10. PTSD
  11. Ilness anxiety disorder
  12. Personality disorder
  13. Substance abuse
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

Panic disorder - progression and prognosis

  • …[1] and…[2] progression
  • After treatment:
    • …[3] will be without symptoms
    • …[4] will have some symptoms
    • …[5] will have active symptoms
  • …[6] complicates the disease in…[7]
  • High risk for…[8]
  • Substance and alcohol abuse in…[9]
  • Patients may develop…[10]
  • …[11] pre-morbid condition and…[12] duration of symptoms indicate good prognosis
A
  1. Chronic
  2. Variable
  3. 30-40%
  4. 50%
  5. 10-20%
  6. MDD
  7. 40-80%
  8. Suicide
  9. 20-40%
  10. Good
  11. Short
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

Panic disorder - treatment

  1. CBT
  2. Drugs
    • Conservative approach
    • 2nd line
    • Treatment failure
A
  1. More efficient in inducing long term remission
  2. Paroxetine and alprazolam
    • Start with SSRI (paroxetine) and if needed also BZD
    • TCA (impramine/clomipramine) or MAOi
    • When there is no reaction to one drug family. It is possible to add mood stablizer
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

Agoraphobia - epidemiology

  • Prevalence of…[1]
  • About…[2] also have…[3]
  • Most of the times it is realted to…[4]
  • Prognosis is better when it is combined with…[5]
A
  1. 0.6-6%
  2. 75%
  3. Panic disorder
  4. Traumatic life event
  5. Panic disorder
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

Agoraphobia - diagnosis (DSM-5)

A
  1. Marked fear/anxiety about 2 of the following:
    1. Public transportation
    2. Open spaces
    3. Enclosed spaces
    4. Stading in line/being in crowd
    5. Being outside of home
  2. Fear/avoidance due to the fear that if the patient will develop panic symptoms, there will be no way to escape
  3. Agoraphobic situations provoke fear/anxiety
  4. Agoraphobic situations are actively avoided
  5. more then 6 months
  6. Fear/anxiety are out of proportion to the danger imposed
  7. Distress or decrease in function
  8. If another medical condition is present fear/anxiety/avoidance is clearly excessive
  9. Not due to another mental disorder
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

Agoraphobia - treatment

  • Psychotherapy
  • Drugs
A
  • Supportive, CBT
  • 3 options:
    • Benzodiazepines
    • SSRI’s
    • TCA’s
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

The 5 general features of phobia

A
  1. Anxiety and stress
  2. Provoked
  3. Ego-dystonic
  4. Avoidance
  5. Anticipation
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

Specific phobia - epidemiology

  • Prevalence of…[1]
  • The most common disorder in…[2]
  • The 2nd most common disorder in…[3]
  • In the ages of…[4] the most common phobias are injections, blood, injury, nature
  • While in the age of…[5] the most common phobias are of situations and cicumstances
  • It is…[6] more common in…[7]
  • In…[8] there is co-morbidity with…[9],…[10] and…[11]
A
  1. 10%
  2. Females
  3. Males
  4. 5-9
  5. 20’s
  6. Twice
  7. Females
  8. 50-80%
  9. Depression
  10. Anxiety
  11. Substance abuse
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

Specific phobia - diagnosis (DSM-5)

A
  1. Marked fear/anxiety aboud specific object/situation
  2. Almost always provokes immediate fear/anxiety
  3. Phobic object is actively avoided or endured with intesnse fear
  4. Fear/anxiety is out or proportion to the actual danger
  5. Fear/anxiety/avoidance is at least 6 months
  6. Significant distress or decrease in function
  7. Not better explained by other mental disorder

Specify: type of phobia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

Specific phobia - treatment

  • CBT
  • Psychotherapy
  • Drugs
A
  • Most effective - systemic desensitization, flooding, intensive exposure
  • Insight oriented
  • Benzodiazepines, beta blockers
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

Social anxiety disorder - epidemiology

  • Also termed social phobia
  • Prevalence of…[1]
  • Peak incidence is in…[2]
  • More common in…[3]
  • Co-morbidity with other…[4] disorders and also with…[5] disorders
    • …[6] of the patients diagnosed with…[7]
  • Also, co-morbidity with…[8]
  • There is high association with…[9]
A
  1. 3-13%
  2. Teens
  3. Females
  4. Anxiety
  5. Affective
  6. 33%
  7. MDD
  8. Bulemia nervosa
  9. Substance abuse
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

Social anxiety disorder - diagnosis (DSM-5)

A
  1. Marked fear/anxiety about 1 or more social situations, in which the individual is exposed to possible scrutiny by others
  2. Fear that he/she will act in a way that will be negatively evaluated
  3. Social situations almost always provoke fear/anxiety
  4. Social situations are avoided
  5. Fear/anxiety is out of proportion
  6. For 6 months or more
  7. Distress or decrease in function
  8. Not due to drugs of GMC
  9. Not better explained by other mental disorders
  10. If other medical condition the fear/anxiety/avoidance is clrealy unrelated or excessive

Specify: performance only

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

Social anxiety disorder - treatment

  1. Psychotherapy
  2. Pharmacotherapy
A
  1. CBT, social skill training
  2. First line are SSRI’s
    • Also venlafaxine, BZD’s or buspirone
    • In severe cases - phenelzine (MAOi)
    • SSRI effect starts later than MDD treatment - within 12-14 weeks
    • For performance disorders - BB’s or short/intermediate BZD’s can be given
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

GAD - epidemiology

  • Prevalence of…[1]
  • …[2] more common in…[3]
  • …[4] of …[5] are also effected
  • Onset is usually in…[6]
A
  1. 5%
  2. Twice
  3. Females
  4. 25%
  5. First degree relatives
  6. Adolescense/early adulthood
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

GAD - diagnosis (DSM-5)

A
  1. Excessive anxiety and worry occuring at least 6 months abount number of activities
  2. The individual finds it difficult to control the worry
  3. Anxiety and worry are associated with at least 3 of the following:
    1. Restlessnesss
    2. Easily fatigued
    3. Difficulty concentrating
    4. Irritability
    5. Muscle tension
    6. Sleep disturbances
  4. Significant distress or decrease in function
  5. Not due to substance or abuse or GMC
  6. Not better explained by another mental disorder
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

GAD - co-morbidity

  • The mental disroder that have the highest rate with other mental disorders, this occurs in…[1] of the patients
  • Usually…[2],…[3],…[4] or…[5]
A
  1. 50-90%
  2. Social phobia
  3. Specific phobia
  4. Panic disorder
  5. Depressive disorder
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

GAD - treatment

  • Psychotherapy
  • Drugs
A
  • CBT - insight oriented, and supprotive therapy
  • Few options:
    1. Benzodiazepines - 75% response. 2-6 weeks therapy
    2. SSRI - to patinets with comorbid depression (not fluoxetine, because it increases anxiety)
      • Combine with BZD
      • 60-80% have relapse in the first year after stopping the therapy
    3. Buspirone - more effective in reducing congnitive symptoms
    4. SNRI (venlafaxine) - good for patients with insomnia, poor concentration, distress and muscle rigidity
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

Substance induced anxiety disorder - diagnosis (DSM-5)

A
  1. Clinical signs of anxiety or panic attack
  2. There is clues from history taking, clinical examination and lab:
    1. Symptoms developed during/immediatley after/during posioning/rehab.
    2. The drug is known to induce anxiety
  3. Rule out another mental etiology:
    1. Symptoms appeard before the use of drug
    2. Present at least 1 month after stoping the drug
    3. Clues of mental disroder that is not related to the drug
  4. Is not present only in delirium
  5. Significant distress or decrease in function
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

Anxiety disorder due to another medical condition - diagnosis (DSM-5)

A
  1. Clinical signs of anxiety or panic attack
  2. There are clues in history/physical examination/lab that the disturbance is directly due to another medical condition
  3. Rule out another mental disorder
  4. Is not only in the time of delirium
  5. Significant distress or decrease in function
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

OCD - epidemiology

  • …[1] of the general population
  • …[2] gender
  • The avarage age of onset is…[3]
  • In males the age is…[4], while in females…[5]
  • More commmon in…[6], and in…[7] skinned
  • The…[8] most common frequent disorder
A
  1. 2-3%
  2. F=M
    • In adolescents M>F
  3. 20
  4. 19
  5. 22
  6. Singles
  7. White
  8. 4th
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

OCD - genetic factors

  • Is about…[1] of the etiology
  • Relative of sick person have…[2] of having the disease, which is…[3] times more of the general population
A
  • 40%
  • 35%
  • 3-5
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

OCD - clinical features

  • In more than…[1] of the patients the onset will be…[2]
  • …[3] will present after…[4]
  • The most common obessions [5]
  • The most common compulsions [6]
  • Decrease levels of…[7]
  • Increased levels of…[8]
  • There is…[9] of the…[10], but with increased metabolism
  • Also increased metabolism in the…[11] lobes,…[12] and…[13]
A
  1. 50%
  2. Sudden
  3. 50-70%
  4. Stressful life event
  5. זיהום, ספק פתולוגי, סומאטי, סימטריה, אגרסיה, מיניות
  6. בדיקה, שטיפה, ספירה, צורך לשאול, סימטריה, אגרנות
  7. Serotonin (low levels in the CSF)
  8. Norepinephrine
  9. Atrophy
  10. Caudate nucleus
  11. Frontal
  12. Cyngulum
  13. Thalamus
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

OCD - diagnosis (DSM-5)

A
  1. Presence of obsession, compulsions or both:
    • Obsession defined by both conditions:
      1. Recurrent and persistent behaviors that are intrusive and unwated and cause anxiety or distress
      2. The patient tries to ignore or supress the behaviors or to neutralize them
    • Compulsions defined by both conditions:
      1. Repetitive acts that the patient feel drive to preform in response to obsession
      2. The acts are aimed at preventing/reducing anxiety or distress; however, this behviors are not connected in a realistic way with what designed to prevent
  2. These are time consuming or cause distress or decrease function
  3. Not due to substance abuse or GMC
  4. Is not better explained by another mental disorder
  • Specifiers:
  • with good/fair/poor/absent insight/delusional beliefs.
  • Tic-related
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

OCD - comorbidity

  • The prevalence of MDD is…[1]
  • …[2] show social phobia
  • …[3] have tic disorder
  • Tourette’s syndrome…[4]
  • In schizophrenic patients the prevalence of OCD is…[5]
A
  1. 67%
  2. 25%
  3. 20-30%
  4. 5-7%
  5. 12%
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

OCD - prognosis

  • In more then…[1] appears abruptly, in…[2] it appears after stressor
  • …[3] will show significant improvement in symptoms
  • …[4] will show some kind of improvment
  • …[5] will have chronic condition
  • Favourable prognostic factors…[6-8]
  • Poor prognostic factors…[9-16]
  • …[17] does not influence the prognosis
A
  1. 50%
  2. 50-70%
  3. 20-30%
  4. 40-50%
  5. 20-40%
  • Favorable factors:
    1. Good pre-morbid condition
    2. Onset after stressor
    3. Episodic symptoms
  • Poor factors:
    1. Obligation to compulsions
    2. Childhood onset
    3. Bizzare compulsions
    4. Hospitalization
    5. Concurrent MDD
    6. Delusional beliefs
    7. Concurrent personality disorder (schizotypal)
    8. Overvalued ideas
  1. Obessions
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
98
Q

OCD - adult treatment

  1. CBT
  2. Pharmacologic
    • Augmentation
  3. ECT
A
  1. Have at least the same effect as pharmacologic treatment, thus, accounts for treatment of choice
    • Exposure and reaction prevention
    • Thought stopping
  2. Few options:
    • SSRI’s are the first line - given in doses of 3-4 times more then in depression, ant strat to influence with 6-8 weeks
    • Clomipramine (can also be used as first line)
    • Augmentation with stabilizers or atypical anti-psychotics in low dose, MAOi’s, buspirone, SNRI’s
    • At least 50-70% will respond to medications
  3. To fully resistent disease
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
99
Q

OCD - kid treatment

  • Pharmacotherapy
  • First response
  • Side effects
A
  • Mainly SSRI’s
    • Sertraline - from the age 6
    • Fluoxetine - form the age of 7
    • Fluvoxamine - from the age of 8
    • Citalopram can also be used
  • The onset of the effect starts from 8-12 weeks
  • Nausea, agitation, tremor, insomnia, fatiuge
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
100
Q

BDD - epidemiology

  • Prevalence of…[1]
  • More in…[2] gender
  • Disorder shows at the age…[3]
  • More common in…[4]
A
  1. 2.4%
  2. Female
  3. 15-30
  4. Singles
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
101
Q

BDD - clinical features

  • Etiology appears to be realted to…[1]
  • The main complaint is…[2] with rate of…[3]
  • Followed by…[4] and…[5] with…[6] each
  • Followed by…[7]
  • …[8] of the patients will isolte themselves at home
  • Up to…[9] will try to commit suicide
A
  1. Lack of serotonin
  2. Hair
  3. 63%
  4. Skin
  5. Nose
  6. 50%
  7. Eyes
  8. 33%
  9. 20%
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
102
Q

BDD - diagnosis (DSM-5)

A
  1. Preoccupation with precived physical defect, that others cannot notice
  2. Repetitive behaviors or mental acts as response to this precived defect
  3. Significant distress or decrease in function
  4. Not due to eating disorder
  • Specify:
    • Good/fair/poor/absent/delusional beliefs
    • With muscle dysphoria
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
103
Q

BDD - comorbidity

  • More then…[1] expreinced episodes of…[2]
  • …[3] had anxiety disorder
  • …[4] had psychotic disorder
A
  1. 90%
  2. MDD
  3. 70%
  4. 30%
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
104
Q

BDD - treatment

  1. CBT
  2. Drugs
    • Augmentation
A
  1. The most effective therapy
  2. Serotonergic products such as SSRI’s, or clomipramine (TCA) are helpful in 50% of the time
    • Augmentation of SSRI with clomipramine, buspirone, lithium, methylphenidate or anti-psychotics
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
105
Q

Hoarding disorder - epidemiology and characteristics

  • Prevalence of…[1]
  • …[2] gender
  • More common in…[3]
  • …[4] usually causes onset or exacerbation
  • …[5] of OCD patients
  • …[6] have ADHD
  • Familial predisposition of…[7]
  • Ego-…[8]
  • Treatment is…[9]
  • Symptoms can be…[10] at onset
  • Complete remission is…[11]
  • Characterized by…[12] referral to treatment
A
  1. 2-5%
  2. F=M
  3. Singles
  4. Traumatic life event
  5. 30%
  6. 20%
  7. 80%
  8. Syntonic
  9. Resistent
  10. Fluctuant
  11. Rare
  12. Late
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
106
Q

Hoarding disorder - diagnosis (DSM-5)

A
  1. Presistent difficulty in parting of possessions
  2. Due to the need to preserve, and distress while discarding
  3. Items fill and block the living areas
  4. Hoarding cause distress or decrease in function
  5. Not due to other medical disease
  6. Is not better explained by other mental disorder
  • Specify:
    • Good/fair/poor/absent insight/delusional beliefs
    • With excessive acquisition
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
107
Q

Trichotillomania - epidemiology

  • Prevalence of…[1]
  • More common in…[2] gender
  • More common in…[3] age
  • …[4] chew or swallow their hair
  • Can be…[5] or…[6]
  • Good prognosis is associated with…[7] age at onset
A
  1. 1-2%
  2. Female
  3. Adolescence
  4. 35-40%
  5. Automatic
  6. Focused
  7. Young!!
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
108
Q

Trichotillomania - diagnosis (DSM-5)

A
  1. Recurrent hair pulling or hair loss
  2. Recurrent attempts to stop hair pulling
  3. Causes distress or imapirment of function
  4. No due to other medical condition
  5. Is not better explained by other psychiatric disorder
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
109
Q

Trichotillomania - treatment

  1. Psychotherapy
  2. Drugs
  3. Hypnosis
A
  1. Behavioral therapy
  2. Topical steroids, SSRI’s which can be augmented with pimozide
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
110
Q

Excoriation - epidemiology and characteristics

  • Prevalence of…[1]
  • Onset is usually at…[2]
  • More common in…[3] gender
  • …[4] have suicidal ideations, while…[5] attempt suicide
  • Treatment is…[6]
A
  1. 1-5%
  2. Adolescence
  3. Female
  4. 15%
  5. 12%
  6. Resistent
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
111
Q

Excoriation - diagnosis (DSM-5)

A
  1. Skin picking resulting in lesions
  2. Recurrent attepmts to stop skin picking
  3. Symptoms cause distress and impairment in function
  4. Not due to substance abuse
  5. Not due to other mental disorder
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
112
Q

PTSD - epidemiology

  • Life time risk is…[1]
  • Life time prevalence is…[2]
  • …[3] will have sub-clinical symptoms
  • Females…[4], males…[5]
  • Most commonly in…[6],…[7], and in…[8] socioeconomic level
  • …[9] have at least 2 other mental disorders
A
  1. 9-15%
  2. 8%
  3. 5-15%
  4. 10-12%
  5. 5-6%
  6. Young adults
  7. Singles
  8. Low
  9. 66%
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
113
Q

PTSD - diagnosis (DSM-5)

A
  1. Exposure to life theratening situation
    1. Directly
    2. Witnessing
    3. Learning that the event occured to close person
    4. Extreme exposure to aversive detalis (work related)
  2. At least 1 intrusive symptom:
    1. Intrusive distressing memories
    2. Recurrent distressing dreams
    3. Dissociative reactions (flashbacks)
    4. Psychological response when exposed to stimuli
    5. Physiological response when exposed to stimuli
  3. At least 1 avoidance symptom:
    1. To avoid distressing memories
    2. To avoid extrenal reminders
  4. At least 2 negative alterations in cognitions and mood:
    1. Inability to remember important aspect of the event
    2. Exaggerated negative beliefs about self/others/world
    3. Distorted cognitions about the cause or consequences
    4. Negative emotional state
    5. Diminished interest
    6. Feelings of detachment
    7. inability to experience positive symptoms
  5. At least 2 alterations in arousal and reactivity:
    1. Irritable behavior and angry outbursts
    2. Self destructive behavior
    3. Hypervigilance
    4. Exaggerated stratle response
    5. Problems with concentration
    6. Sleep disturbances
  6. Duration is more then 1 month
  7. Significant distress or decrease in function
  8. Not due to substance abuse
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
114
Q

PTSD - psychotherapy

A
  • The main treatment of PTSD
  • Prolonged exposure - impolsive therapy, systemic desensitization
  • Stress management -relaxation
  • EMDR
  • Group and family therapy
  • Dynamic psychotherapy
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
115
Q

PTSD - pharmacologic therapy

A
  • SSRI’s - first line. Improve all the kinds of symptoms
  • Other anti-depressents - buspirone, TCA’s, MAOi, trazodone
  • Mood stabilizers - anti agressive
  • Anti-psychotics - when there is psychosis or vivid flashbacks
  • Topiramate - can help to flashbacks
  • Sleeping pills - not recommended but if needed, not benzo, because they lead to vivid dreams
    • When benzo’s given acutely they increase the risk for PTSD
    • Low dose anti-cholinergics are more helpful
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
116
Q

PTSD - prognosis

  • Without management:
    • …[1] will heal completly
    • …[2] will have mild symptoms
    • …[3] will have intermediate symptoms
    • …[4] will have severe symptoms
  • After one year of therapy,…[5] will heal completly
A
  1. 30%
  2. 40%
  3. 20%
  4. 10%
  5. 50%
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
117
Q

Acute stress disorder - diagnosis (DSM-5)

A
  1. Exposure to life theratening event:
    1. Directly
    2. Witnessing
    3. Learning that the event occured to close person
    4. Repeated exposure to aversive detalis (work related)
  2. Presence of 9 or more, from any of the following categories:
    1. Intrusive symptoms:
      1. Intrusive distressing memories
      2. Distressing dreams
      3. Dissociative reactions (flashbacks)
      4. Psycological or physiological reactions in response to stimuli
    2. Negative mood
      1. Inability to experice positive emotions
    3. Dissociative symptoms:
      1. Altered sense of the reality of the surrounding/self
      2. Inability to remember important aspects of the event
    4. Avoidance symptoms:
      1. Avoid distressing memories
      2. Avoid external reminders
    5. Arousal symptoms:
      1. Sleep disturbance
      2. Irritable behavior
      3. Hypervigilance
      4. Problems with concentration
      5. Exaggereted stratle response
  3. Duration between 3 days - 1 month
  4. Significant distress or decrease in function
  5. Not due to substance abuse, other mental disorder or GMC
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
118
Q

Adjustment disorders - epidemiology

  • Prevalence of…[1]
  • …[2] more common in…[3]
  • …[4] of generally admitted patients, and in…[5] admitted psychiatric patients
  • Can appear in any age, but most commonly in…[6]
  • More common in…[7]
A
  1. 2-8%
  2. Twice
  3. Females
  4. 5%
  5. 10%
  6. Adolescense
  7. Singles
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
119
Q

Adjustment disorders - diagnosis (DSM-5)

A
  1. Development of emotional/behavioral symptoms in response to identifiable stressor occuring within 3 month of its onset
  2. Symptoms are clinically significant - at least 1 of the following:
    1. Distress that is out of proportion to the stressor
    2. Significant impairment in fucntion
  3. The disturbance does not meet the criteria for another mental disorder, or exacerbation of preexisting mental disorder
  4. Symptoms does not represent normal bereavement
  5. Once the stressor is terminated the symptoms do not presist more than additional 6 months
  • Specify:
    • With depressed mood
    • With anxiety
    • With mixed anxiety and depressed mood
    • With disturbance of conduct
    • With mixed disturbance of emotions and conduct
    • Unspecified
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
120
Q

Adjustment disorders - treatment

  • Psychotherapy
  • Drugs
A
  • The treatment of choice, usually with crisis intervention
  • Better if can be avoided.
    • When needed:
      • Benzo - for anxiety
      • SSRI - depression
      • Antipsychotic - if psychosis is expected
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
121
Q

Reactive attachment disorder - diagnosis (DSM-5)

A
  1. Pattern of inhibited behavior twords adult caregiver, manifested by both:
    1. Rarely seeks comfort when distressed
    2. Rarely responds to comfort when distressed
  2. Social and emotional disturbance manifested by at least 2 of the following:
    1. Minimal social and emotional responsiveness
    2. Limited positive effect
    3. Episodes of unexplained irritability that are evident even during nonthreatening interactions
  3. Child has experienced pattern of extreme insufficient care evidanced with at least 1 of the following:
    1. Lack of having basic emotional needs
    2. Repeated changes of primary caregivers
    3. Unusual setting that severely limit opportunities to form stable attachments
  4. Criterion C is responsible to criterion A
  5. Criteria for autism spectrum disorder is not met
  6. Evident before the age of 5
  7. Developmental age of at least 9 months
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
122
Q

Disinhibited social engagement disorder - diagnosis (DSM-5)

A
  1. Child actively interacts with unfamiliar adults and at least 2 of the following:
    1. Reduced reticence in interacting with unfamiliar adults
    2. Overly familiar behavior
    3. Diminished checking back with adult caregiver after venturing away
    4. Willingness to go off with unfamiliar adult with minimal hesitation
  2. Criterion A is not due to impulsivity
  3. Experienced a pattern of extreme insufficient care, evidenced by at least 1 of the following:
    1. Lack of having basic emotional needs
    2. Repeated changes of primary caregivers
    3. Unusual setting that severely limit opportunities to form selective attachments
  4. Criterion C is responsible to criterion A
  5. Developmental age of at least 9 months
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
123
Q

Personality disorders - etiology

  • Genetic factors
    • Higher frequency in…[1] twins
    • To cluster A, there is more family history of…[2]
  • Biologic
    • Increase in…[3] hormones
    • Abnormal…[4] test, and…[5] test
A
  1. MZ
  2. Schizophrenia
  3. Sex
  4. Dexamethasone supression
  5. TRH release
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
124
Q

Presonality disorders - general diagnostic criteria (DSM-5)

A
  1. Behavior/internal sensation that deviates from the norm that is accepted in the patient’s culture, which is expressed in at least 2 areas:
    1. Cognition
    2. Affect
    3. Personal function
    4. Impulse control
  2. Persistent pattern, which is not flexible
  3. Causes significant distress and decrease in function
  4. Prolonged pattern that starts in teen or early adulthood
  5. Not due to other psychiartic illness
  6. No substance abuse of GMC
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
125
Q

Paranoid personal disorder

  • Incidence of…[1]
  • More common in…[2] gender
  • High rate in patients who have relatives with…[3]
  • Common in…[4] and…[5]
  • Starts in…[6]
  • Defend mechanism is…[7]
  • Some have tendency to develop…[8]
A
  1. 2-4%
  2. Male
  3. Schizophrenia
  4. Low SES (immigrants)
  5. Deaf people
  6. Early adulthood
  7. Projection
  8. Schizophrenia

רעיונות רפרנס, דעות קדומות, defended illusions

גזענות, חוסר חום אנושי

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
126
Q

Schizoid personality disorder

  • Are not interested in…[1], described as…[2] and have…[3]
  • Incidence of…[4]
  • Tend to…[5] jobs
  • Does not have…[6] life
A
  1. Social life
  2. Isolated
  3. Flat affect
  4. 5%
  5. Night/isolated
  6. Sex
127
Q

Schizotypal personality disorder

  • In stressful conditions can develop…[1]
  • In more severe cases can develop…[2]
  • …[3] suicide rate
  • Some develop…[4]
A
  1. Psychotic episodes
  2. MDD
  3. 10%
  4. Schizophrenia
128
Q

Narcissistic personality disorder

  • Prevalance of…[1]
  • Kid to parents with…[2] have higher tendency for developing these condition
  • Have difficulties to face…[3]
  • Are not…[4] to other people
  • Risk for…[5]
A
  1. 6%
  2. Narcisstic personality disorder
  3. Crticism
  4. Ampathic
  5. Suicide
129
Q

Histrionic personality disorder

  • Characterized by…[1]
  • Have…[2] behavior
  • Prevalance of…[3] and more common in…[4] gender
  • Defense mechanisms…[5,6]
  • Associated with…[7] and…[8] disorders
A
  1. Excitability
  2. Seductive
  3. 1-3%
  4. Femalee
  5. Dissociation
  6. Regression
  7. Alcohol abuse
  8. Somatic disorders
130
Q

Borderline personality disorder

  • Characterized by…[1]
  • Prevalance of…[2] and more common in…[3] gender
  • Usually diagnosed before the age of…[4]
  • Repetitive behaviors of…[5]
  • Can develop short…[6] episodes
  • According to Otto Kernberg it is characterized by…[7-10]
    • The last one includes…[11] and…[12]
  • Tends to develop…[13]
  • Have risk for…[14]
  • Beneficial treatment method is…[15]
A
  1. Stable instability
  2. 1-2%
  3. Female
  4. 40
  5. Self mutilation
  6. Psychotic
  7. Identification instability
  8. Ego weakness
  9. Lack of integration of the super-ego
  10. Primitive defense mechanisms
  11. Splitting
  12. Projective identification
  13. MDD
  14. Suicide
  15. DBT
    • During the DBT we can expect regressions, impulsive behaviors, transference
131
Q

Antisocial personality disorder

  • Characterized by incapability to adapt to…[1]
  • Prevalance of…[2] and it is more common in…[3]
  • Higher incidence in patients with first degree relatives diagnosed with…[4]
  • Also, high incidence in…[5] areas
  • The highest incidence is seen in…[6] and…[7] abusers
  • Before the age of…[8] there are signs of…[9] disorder, but the diagnosis can only be made from the age of…[10]
  • Does not show signs of…[11] or…[12]
  • These patients fail to show signs of…[13]
  • Some have…[14] of symptoms after…[15]
  • Some have…[16] disorders
A
  1. Normal social norms
  2. 0.2-3%
  3. Male
  4. Anti-social personality disorder
  5. Poor
  6. Inmates
  7. Alcohol
  8. 15
  9. Conduct
  10. 18
  11. Anxiety
  12. Depression
  13. Remorse
  14. Decrease
  15. Adolescense
  16. Somatic
132
Q

Dependent personality disorder

  • The basis is…[1] with fear of…[2] or…[3]
  • More common in…[4] gender and in…[5] age
  • Tends to develop…[6] when there is…[7]
  • The prognosis is…[8]
  • Treatment in…[9]
A
  1. Anxiety
  2. Separation
  3. Isolation
  4. Female
  5. Young (kids)
  6. MDD
  7. Separation
  8. Good
  9. Psychotherapy - insight oriented
133
Q

Avoidant personality disorder

  • Fear of…[1], this is why they tend to…[2]
  • Prevalance of…[3]
  • Babies with…[4] temperament are considered high risk for this disorder
  • Show increased interest for…[5] as opposed to schizoid personality disorder
  • Some have…[6]
  • Co-morbidity with…[7] and…[8]
  • Treatment with…[9]
A
  1. Rejection
  2. Live alone
  3. 2-3%
  4. Shy
  5. Social interaction
  6. Normal lives
  7. Social phobias
  8. MDD
  9. Psychotherapy - encourage to engage in social activity
    • Also group therapy and CBT can be used
134
Q

Obsessive compulsive personality disorder

  • Prevalance of…[1]
  • More common in…[2] gender
  • More common in the…[3] brother
  • Higher frequency in relative of patients who are diagnosed with…[4] and pepole who were raised in…[5]
  • According to Freud it is disorder in the…[6] phase
  • In interview they are…[7-9]
  • Defense mechanisms include…[10-14]
  • Some develop…[15] or…[16]
A
  1. 2-8%
  2. Male
  3. Older
  4. OCPD
  5. Strict environment
  6. Anal
  7. Formal
  8. Lack of sense of humor
  9. Show flat affect
  10. Intellectualization
  11. Isolation
  12. Reaction formation
  13. Rationalization
  14. Undoing
  15. Schizophrenia
  16. MDD

טיפול עם באסוציאציות חופשיות

No directive therapy

135
Q

Dissociative amnesia - clinical features

  • Prevalence is…[1]
  • Sex predominence…[2]
  • Most commonly diagnosed at…[3]
  • When the amnestic episode resolves, there is high risk for…[4]
A
  1. 2-6%
  2. M=F
  3. Young adulthood
  4. Suicide
136
Q

Dissociative amnesia - diagnosis (DSM-5)

A
  1. Inability to recall personal autobiographic information
  2. The symptoms cause significant distress or decrease in function
  3. Not due to substance abuse or other medical/neurological disorder
  4. Cannot be explained by other psychiatric disorder

Specify: with dissociative fugue (travel or bewildered wandering that is associated with amnesia)

137
Q

The 5 subtypes of dissociative amnesia

A
  1. Localized - the most frequent. Loss of defined period of time
  2. General - loss of personal history; semantic/procedural
  3. Selective - loss of some part of the event, but not all of it
  4. Systemized - loss of specific information category
  5. Progressive - forget every new event after it happened
138
Q

Dissociative amnesia - dissociative fugue

  • Specifier of dissociative amnesia
  • As opposed to DID, this patients…[1]
  • Usually lasts…[2]
  • After recovery there is a risk for…[3-5]
  • Rare disorder, with rate of…[6]
A
  1. Forget their identity (and does not invent a new one)
  2. Hours-days
  3. PTSD
  4. Anxiety disorder
  5. Suicide
  6. 0.02%
139
Q

Dissociative amnesia - treatment

A
  • The symptoms self resolve and usually without relapses
  • Try to bring back the memories as soon as possible
    • Interview and benzodiazepines (decrease the stress)
    • Hypnosis is also possible
  • After regained memory it is recommended to start in psychotherapy
140
Q

DID - epidemiology

  • Prevelance of…[1]
  • …[2] times more common in…[3] gender
  • The avarage diagnostic age is…[4]
  • …[5] will try to commit suicide
  • Almost…[6] will have history of childhood traumatic event
A
  1. 0.4-1.5%
  2. 5-9
  3. Female
  4. 30
  5. 66%
  6. 100%
141
Q

DID - diagnosis (DSM-5)

A
  1. Distortion of the identity preception by its splitting for at least 2 different identities, expressed as lack of distinguished continuity of the preception of self, can be noted by others or by the patient
  2. Repetitive difficulties to remember daily events, personal information and traumatic events
  3. Symptoms cause significant distress and decrease in function
  4. Does not fit to culture or personal believes
  5. Not due to substance abuse or GMC
142
Q

Depersonalization/Derealization disorder - epidemiology

  • Counts as the…[1] most common psychiatric disorder
  • …[2] more common in…[3] gender
  • Usually appears before the age of…[4], and the avarage onset in the age of…[5]
  • Common in patients that have…[6], and…[7]
  • In patients that abuse…[8],…[9], and…[10]
  • Associated with…[11] drugs
A
  1. 3rd (after depression and anxiety)
  2. Twice
  3. Female
  4. 40
  5. 16
  6. Seizures
  7. Migraines
  8. Psilocybin
  9. Mescaline
  10. LSD
  11. Anti-cholinergic
143
Q

Depresonalization/Derealization disorder - diagnosis (DSM-5)

A
  1. Recurring experiences of depersonalization or derealization or both
  2. Due the experiences, reality test is still intact
  3. Significant distress or decrease in function
  4. Not due substance abuse or GMC
  5. Is not due to other psychiatric disorder
144
Q

Ganser syndrome

A
  • Rare dissociative disorder
  • Response to significant stress
  • Answers to simple questions is almost true/absurd
  • Other dissociative symptoms such amnesia, conversion or fugue.
145
Q

Somatic symptom disorder - epidemiology

  • …[1] gender
  • More common in…[2] SES
  • Starts before the age of…[3], usually in…[4]
  • There is a relation to…[5]
  • In some families there is a…[6]
A
  1. M=F
  2. Low
  3. 30
  4. Teens
  5. Violence at home
  6. Genetic factor
146
Q

Somatic symptom disorder - diagnosis (DSM-5)

A
  1. 1 or more somatic symptom that are distressing or result in significant disruption of daily life
  2. Excessive thoughts, feelings ,or behaviors related to the somatic symptoms
  3. State of being symptomatic is presistent (more than 6 months)

Specify: with predominent pain

147
Q

Somatic symptom disorder - clinics

  • Usually the disease is…[1], which can last…[2]
  • The most common complaints are…[3-7]
  • To…[8] of the patinets there is other psychiatric disorders such as…[9-13]
  • Patients usually are not intersted in…[14]
  • Sometimes the disease is related to…[15]
A
  1. Episodic
  2. Months-years
  3. Nausea and vomiting
  4. Difficulty swallowing
  5. Pain in hands and legs
  6. Shortness of breath
  7. Pregnancy and menstrual complications
  8. 50%
  9. MDD
  10. GAD
  11. Personality
  12. Phobias
  13. Substance abuse
  14. Psychiatric treatment
  15. Stress
148
Q

Somatic symptom disorder - prognosis and treatment

  • Full remission…[1]
  • Without treatment…[2]
  • There is…[3] in physical disorders within…[4] years
  • Good prognostic factors include:
    • …[5] SES
    • …[6,7] which respond to therapy
    • …[8] onset
    • Lack of…[9] and…[10]
  • Pharmacologic treatment…[11]
  • Personal and group psychotherapy can reduce by…[12] the visits to the doctor
A
  1. Is rare
  2. There will be deterioration of symptoms
  3. No increase
  4. 20
  5. High
  6. Anxiety
  7. Depression
  8. Sudden
  9. Personality disorders
  10. Associated medical disorder
  11. Is not essential. Only needed for co-morbidities
  12. 50%
149
Q

Illness anxiety disorder - diagnosis (DSM-5)

A
  1. Preoccupation with having/acquiring serious illness
  2. Somatic symptoms are absent/mild or if there is another medical condition, or high risk for acquiring one, preoccupation is clearly excessive
  3. High level of anxiety about health
  4. Excessive health related behavior or maladaptive avoidance
  5. For at least 6 months
  6. Is not better explained by other psychiatric disorder

Specifiy if: care-seeking type or care-avoidant type

150
Q

Conversion disorder - epidemiology

  • Conversion symptoms that are not sufficient for diagnosis appears in about…[1] of the general population
  • Prevelance of…[2] from 100,000
  • …[3] times more common in…[4] gender
  • Rare before the age of…[5] or after the age of…[6]
  • More common in…[7] areas
  • People with…[8] education
  • The rate is higher in…[9] twins
A
  1. 1/3
  2. 11-300
  3. 2
  4. Female
  5. 10
  6. 35
  7. Rural
  8. Low
  9. Monozygotic
151
Q

Conversion disorder - risk factors

  • Living in…[1] areas
  • …[2] IQ
  • …[3] SES
  • Man who were exposed to…[4]
A
  1. Rural
  2. Low
  3. Low
  4. Wars
152
Q

Conversion disorder - diagnosis (DSM-5)

A
  1. One symptom or more in motor (voluntary) or sensoric system
  2. There is no correspondense of the symptom to medical or neurological state
  3. Is not better explained by other medical or psychiatric disease
  4. Causes significant distress or decrease in function
153
Q

Conversion disorder - progression and prognosis

  • …[1] will eventually be diagnosed with…[2]
  • Spontaneous resolution within…[3] in…[4] of the cases
  • If the disorder is more then 6 months, the risk for resolution is…[5]
  • 1 year recurrence rate is…[6]
  • Patients are in high risk for…[7]
A
  1. 25-50%
  2. Neurological disorder
  3. 2 weeks
  4. 95%
  5. Less than 50%
  6. 20-25%
  7. Suicide
154
Q

Conversion disorder - symptom features

A
  • Weakness/paralysis (M)
  • Abnormal motor movement (M)
  • Swallowing (M) [globus hystericus]
  • Speech (M)
  • Seizures (M)
  • Sensory loss (S)
  • Specialized sensation (S)
  • Mixed (M+S)

The most common symptoms are paralysis, blindness and mutism

155
Q

Conversion disorder - psychologic symptoms

A
  • Primary gain - protects the patient from the conflict
  • Secondary gain - release from obligations
  • La belle indifference - does not pay attention to severe symptoms
  • Identification - unknowingly takes a model of self symptoms
156
Q

Conversion disorder - co-morbidities

  • Related psychiatric disorders include…[1-3]
  • Associated personality disorders are…[4-7]
  • There is increased familial incidence of…[8]
A
  1. MDD
  2. Anxiety
  3. Schizophrenia
  4. OCPD
  5. Hystrionic
  6. Dependent
  7. Anti-social
  8. Conversion disorder
157
Q

Conversion disorder - prognostic factors

  • Good prognostic factors:
    • …[1] onset
    • …[2] stressor
    • …[3] treatment
    • …[4] IQ
    • Symptoms of…[5-7]
  • Bad prognostic factors:
    • Symptoms of…[8-9]
A
  1. Acute
  2. Identifiable
  3. Rapid
  4. High
  5. Paralysis
  6. Aphonia
  7. Blindness
  8. Tremor
  9. Seizures
158
Q

Psychologic factors affecting other medical conditions - diagnosis (DSM-5)

A
  1. Medical symptom or condition is present
  2. Psychological or behavioral factors adversely affect the medical condition:
    • Influence the course of medical condition as shown by a close temporal association
    • Interfere with the treament of the medical condition
    • Constitute additional well-established health risks for the individual
    • Influence the underlying pathophysiology, precipitating or exacerbating symptoms or necessitating medical attention
  3. Criterion B is not better explained by another mental disorders

Specify:

  • Mild - increased medical risk
  • Moderate - aggravates underlying medical condition
  • Severe - results in medical hospitalization or emergency room visit
  • Extereme - results in severe, life-threatening risk
159
Q

Kleptomania - clinical features

  • Prevalence of…[1]
  • …[2] times more common in…[3]
  • The age of apperance in males is…[4], while in females is…[5]
  • May appear in…[6]
  • Co-morbidity with…[7-12]
  • Usually does not effect…[13]
A
  1. 0.6%
  2. 3
  3. Females
  4. 50
  5. 35
  6. Childhood
  7. Mood disorders
  8. Anxiety
  9. Gambling disorder
  10. Substance abuse
  11. Excessive shopping
  12. Eating disorders
  13. Normal function
160
Q

Kleptomania - diagnosis (DSM-5)

A
  1. Failure to resistent the impulse to steal objects which are not needed and not due to their value
  2. High tension before cofessing the theft
  3. Feeling of satisfcation/relief while confessing about the theft
  4. The act does not express anger/revenge and not due to hallucinations or delusions
  5. Is not better explained by other mental disorder
161
Q

Kleptomania - treatment

  • Psychotherapy
  • Drugs
A
  • Few options:
    • Dynamic treatment and CBT
    • Insight oriented psychotherapy
    • Behavioral therapy - desensitizaton, reverse conditioning
  • SSRI’s is the drug of choice
    • In addition mood stabilizers
  • ECT is also an option
162
Q

Pyromania - clinical features

  • Male:female ratio is…[1]
  • Comorbidity with…[2-6]
  • In kids it is highly associated with…[7]
  • Associated with…[8]
  • Possible association with…[9]
  • If the disorder starts…[10] there is a good prognosis
A
  1. 8:1
  2. Mild retardation
  3. Substance abuse (mainly alcohol)
  4. MDD/bipolar disorder
  5. Other impulse disorders
  6. Personality disorders (borderline, anti-social)
  7. ADHD and learning disability
  8. Animal abuse
  9. Enuresis
  10. Early
163
Q

Pyromania - diagnosis (DSM-5)

A
  1. More then 1 case of premaditated or deliberate fire setting
  2. Tension or arousal before the act
  3. High intrest in fire or related situations
  4. High satisifaction while setting the fire or while watching/taking part in fire setting
  5. Fire setting is done without other motives, not due to delusions or hallucinations and not due to states of impaired judgement
  6. Is not better explained by other mental disorder
164
Q

Pyromania - treatment

  • Psychotherapy
  • Drugs
A
  • The treatment is psychotherapy alone but there is no established method
165
Q

Intermittent explosive disorder - epidemiology

  • More common in…[1] gender, which accounts for…[2]
  • Usually appears in…[3]
  • In most cases the severity decrease in…[4]
  • For diagnosis the chronologic age must be at least of…[5]
A
  1. Male
  2. 80%
  3. Young age
  4. Adulthood
  5. 6 years old
166
Q

Intermittent explosive disorder - etiology

  • Psychodynamic…[1]
  • Psycho-social…[2]
  • Biologic…[3]
  • Genetics…[4]
A
  1. Defense mechanisms by narcssistic assault
  2. Dependent men, rough childhood
    • Perinatal trauma, head injuries, encephalitis, hyperactivity
  3. Decreased serotonin
  4. First degree relative with MDD, addictions, impulse control disorders

הפרעה פיזיולוגית במוח, במיוחד במערכת הלימבית

167
Q

Intermittent explosive disorder - diagnosis (DSM-5)

A
  1. Recurrent outburst as manifested by 1 of the following:
    1. Verbal or physical aggression occuring 2 a week for at least 3 months. Physical aggression does not result in damage.
    2. 3 outbursts involving damage or destruction and physical injury to other, occuring within 12 months
  2. Agressiveness during the outbursts is out of proportion to the provocation
  3. Outbursts are not premeditataed and not committed to achieve any objective
  4. Leads to significant distress or decrease in function or associated with financial or leagal consequences
  5. Chronological age is at least 6 years
  6. Not better explained by other mental disorder and not due to GMC
168
Q

Intermittent explosive therapy - treatment

  • Psychotherapy
  • Drugs
  • …[1] are not recommended
A
  • Personal psychotherapy is the treatment of choice - difficult because the patient is non compliant
  • SSRI’s
    • Mood stabilizers (lithium, carbamazepine, valproate)
    • BB’s
  1. Benzodiazepines
    • Paradoxical reaction
169
Q

Oppositional defiant disorder - epidemiology

  • Prevalence of…[1]
  • Starts by the age of…[2]
  • Before puberty…[4], while after puberty…[5]
A
  1. 2-16% of school aged children
  2. 10
  3. M > F
  4. M = F
170
Q

Oppositional defiant disorder - diagnosis (DSM-5)

A
  1. Pattern of defiant/angry/irritable behavior/mood for at least 6 months, with at least 4 of the following happening during interaction with a person which is not a sibling
    1. Angry/irritable mood:
      1. Loses temper
      2. Easily annoyed
      3. Angry and resentful
    2. Defiant behvior:
      1. Argues with authority
      2. Defies/refuses to comply with authority requests
      3. Delibrately annoys others
      4. Blames others for his behaviors/mistakes
    3. Vindictiveness:
      1. Vindictive for at least 2 times in the past 6 months
  2. Cause significant distress to the kid and his family and decrease function
  3. Does not occur in the psychosis or in affective disorder
171
Q

Oppositional defiant disorder - clinical features

  • Risk factors include…[1-2]
  • …[3] of the patients will have remission
  • Other will eventually develop…[4]
A
  1. Child abuse/neglect
  2. Strict parenthood
  3. 25%
  4. Conduct disorder
172
Q

Oppositional defiant disorder - treatment

  • Psychotherapy
  • Drugs
A
  • First line treatments include parent guidance and family treatment
    • Reinforce positive behavior and narrow down negative behavior
  • Pharmacotherapy is not indicated
173
Q

Conduct disorder - epidemiology

  • More common in…[1] gender
  • The prevalence in males…[2], while the prevalence in females is…[3]
  • Higher frequency in children to parents with..[4] personality disorder and…[5]
  • Avarage onset in boys…[6], while the avarage onset in girls…[7]
  • Classified into 3 type…[8-10]
A
  1. Male
  2. 6-16%
  3. 2-9%
  4. Antisocial
  5. Alcohol dependance
  6. 10-12
  7. 14-16
  8. Onset before the age of 10
  9. Onset after the age of 10
  10. Onset in unknown age
174
Q

Conduct disorder - etiology

  • Cultural-social factors…[1]
  • Psychological…[2]
  • Neurologic…[3]
A
  1. Frequent in areas with high population
    • Low SES, avoidance from social acitivty, increased exposure to alcohol and drugs
  2. Diffculties in regulation of emotions and lack of impulse control
  3. Decrease in grey matter in the limbic system
    • Increased serotonin levels
    • Decreased levels of dopamine beta-hydroxylase

Could be associated with the gene monoamineoxidase A

175
Q

Conduct disorder - clinical features

  • Risk factors:
    • Child…[1] and…[2]
    • …[3] parenthood
    • Exposure to…[4]
    • …[5] IQ and…[6] school performance
  • Good prognosis when:
    • Happens only within…[7]
    • …[8] onset
    • No other…[9]
    • …[10] IQ
A
  1. Abuse
  2. Neglect
  3. Strict
  4. Alcohol
  5. Low
  6. Low
  7. Family
  8. Late
  9. Psychopathology
  10. Normal
176
Q

Conduct disorder - diagnosis (DSM-5)

A
  1. Repatitive behavior in which the basic rights of others or major social norms/rules are violated. Manifested by at least 3/15 in the past 12 months, and 1 of these is present for at least 6 months:
    1. Agression:
      1. Bullies
      2. Initiate physical fights
      3. Used a weapon
      4. Physically cruel to people
      5. Physically cruel to animals
      6. Stolen while confronting a victim
      7. Forced someone into sexual activity
    2. Destruction of property:
      1. Engaged in fire to cause serious damage
      2. Destroyed others property
    3. Deceitfulness/theft:
      1. Broken into someone else house/car
      2. Lies to obtain goods/favors or to avoid obligations
      3. Stolen items of nontrivial value without confronting the victim
    4. Violations of rules:
      1. Stays out at night despite prohibitions, before the age of 13
      2. Run away from home overnight at least 2 times, or once without returning to lengthy period
      3. Truant from school, before the age of 13
  2. Causes significant impairment in function
  3. If the patient is older than 18, criteria are not met for antisocial personality disorder
177
Q

Conduct disorder - specifiers

A
  • With limited prosocial emotions:
    • Lack of remorse/guilt
    • Lack of empathy
    • Unconcerned about performance
    • Shallow/deficient affect
178
Q

Conduct disorder - treatment

  • Psychotherapy
  • Pharmacotherapy
A
  • CBT, parent guidance and child guidance
  • Antipsychotics - beneficial in prevention of the disease and decrease symptoms
179
Q

ADHD - epidemiology

  • Prevalance of…[1]
  • More common in…[2] gender
  • …[3] up to adolesence
  • …[4] of the adolescents
  • …[5] of adults
  • …[6] who have been diagnosed have their symptoms in adulthood
  • There are screening tests like…[7] or…[8], but eventually the diagnosis is made…[9]
A
  1. 3-7%
  2. Male
  3. 7-8%
  4. 5%
  5. 2.5%
  6. 60%
  7. TOVA
  8. Conner
  9. Clinically
180
Q

ADHD - etiology

  1. Genetics
  2. Neurologic
  3. Neurophysiology
  4. Prenatal
A
  1. 75% of the etiology
    • First degree relatives of ADHD patients have 2-9 times higher risk for developing ADHD
    • Association with DAT1 and DRD4 genes
  2. Dopamine is the main deficient neurotransmitter
    • Related to locus ceruleus and the per-frontal cortex
  3. Increased beta and teta waves activity is seen on EEG
  4. Premature babies and for mothers who had infection during pregnancy
181
Q

ADHD - diagnosis (DSM-5)

A
  1. Persistent pattern of inattention or impulsivity that interfers with functioning or development
    • Inattention: 6 or more of the following for at least 6 months
      1. Fails to give close attention
      2. Difficulty in sustaining attention
      3. Does not seem to listen when spoken to
      4. Does not follow through instructions
      5. Difficulty organizing
      6. Reluctent ro engage in sustained tasks
      7. Loses things
      8. Easily distracted
      9. Forgetful
    • Hyperactivity: 6 or more of the following for at least 6 months
      1. Fidgets
      2. Leaves sit, when expected to stay put
      3. Runs/climbs in inappropriate times
      4. Cant play quietly
      5. Often “on the go”
      6. Talks excessively
      7. Blurts answer before question was finished
      8. Difficulty to wait for turn
      9. Intrudes on others
  2. Several symptoms were present before the age of 12
  3. Several symptoms are present in 2 or more settings
  4. Symptoms interfere with functioning
  5. In not due to other psychiatric disorder
182
Q

ADHD - comorbidity

  • …[1] will not have additional disorders
  • 11% will have…[2] disorder
  • 20% will have…[3] disorder
  • 14% will have signs of…[4]
  • 34% will have…[5] disorder
  • 10-90% will have…[6]
  • 15-19% will…[7]
A
  1. 30% (70% with another psychiatric disorder!)
  2. Tic
  3. Personality
  4. Conduct
  5. Anxiety
  6. Sutdying disablities
  7. Substance abuse
183
Q

ADHD - stimulant treatment

  • The first group is…[1]
    • Classic…[2]
    • SR…[3]
    • LA…[4]
    • …[5] is the longest acting
    • …[6] is in form of transdermal patch
    • …[7] contain only the active…[8]
  • The other group…[9] that are used only as 2nd line
    • The brand names…[10],…[11]
    • There is the prodrug form…[12]
  • Contraindication for stimulant treatment include…[13]
A
  1. Methylpehnidate
  2. 2-3 hours (Ritalin)
  3. 4-6 hours (Ritalin SR)
  4. 6-8 hours (Concerta)
  5. 10-12 hours
  6. Daytrana
  7. Focalin
  8. D+ methylphenidate
  9. Amphetamines
  10. Adderal
  11. Attent
  12. Vyvanse
  13. Cardiac disorders (structural of conductive)
184
Q

ADHD - non-stimulant treatment

  • …[1] agonists, such as…[2]
  • Strattera (=…[3])
    • Inhibits reuptake of…[4]
    • Begin therapy when there is…[5], or there is lack…[6]
  • …[7] can also be used
  • …[8] is also proved as beneficial
A
  1. Alpha 2
  2. Clonidine
  3. Atomoxetine
  4. Norepinephrine
  5. Side effects
  6. Of activity of amphetamines
  7. Buproprion
  8. Omgea-3
185
Q

ADHD - treatment side effects

  1. GI…
  2. Psychiatric…
    • Worsens…
  3. Neurologic…
  4. Cardiovascular…
  5. Ophthalmic…
  6. Intoxication signs…
  7. Rebound phenomenon…
  8. Pregnancy…
A
  1. Abdominal ache, decreased appetite
  2. Anxiety, restlessness, difficulty sleeping, dysphoria
    • Anxiety disorders and psychotic disorders
  3. Worsens epilepsy, tic disorder, dyskinesia
    • If tic disorder appears and does not resolve withub 7-10 days - psychoeducational treatment can be initiated
  4. Arrythmia, tachycardia, exacerbates hypertension
  5. Exacerbation of glaucoma
  6. Hypertension, tachycardia, fever, delirium, psychosis, seizures
  7. Irritability and hyperactivity
    • Slow release formulas decrease the risk
  8. Avoid in first trimester
    • Transferred in breast milk

לא הוכח שהתרופות מביאות להאטה בצמיחה של ילדים, ילדים נוהגים לפצות על הבעיה בתקופות בהן אינם לוקחים את התרופה

186
Q

ADHD - progression and prognosis

  • In most of the cases there is…[1]
  • …[2] is the most persistent symptom, while…[3] is the symptom that resolves first…[4]
  • Patients who have partial remission have higher risk for developing…[5]
A
  1. Partial remission
    • Remission usually occurs at ages 12-20
  2. Inattention
  3. Hyperactivity
  4. Anti-social personality disorder
187
Q

Tourette’s syndrome - general features

  • …[1] per 100,000
  • The motor component appears by the age of…[2]
  • The vocal component by the age of…[3]
  • …[4] more common in…[5] gender
  • The avarage age of presentation is…[6]
  • This disorder is highly associated with…[7-10]
  • There is decreased volume of the…[11]
  • Abnormal levels of…[12] in the CSF
  • For diagnosis the symptoms have to start before the age of…[13]
  • The symptoms severity peaks at the age of…[14] and decrease thereafter
A
  1. 4-5
  2. 7
  3. 11
  4. 3
  5. Male
  6. 4-6
  7. ADHD
  8. OCD
  9. Anxiety
  10. Depression
  11. Caudate nucleus
  12. HVA
  13. 18
    • Usually presents at 4-5
  14. 10-12
188
Q

Tourettes syndrome - treatment

  1. Psychotherapy
  2. Pharmacotherpay
A
  1. Psychotherpay:
    • Psychoeducation
    • Behavioral treatment - habit reversal, exposure and response prevention
  2. Pharmacotherapy:
    • Potent antipsychotics improve the condition in 85% but due to high rate of side effect risperidone is the first line
    • Clonidine and atomoxetine are efficient in patients with ADHD
189
Q

Intellectual disability - general features

  • Prevalance of…[1] and more common in the…[2] gender
  • Mild:
    • IQ of…[3] and educational level of up to…[4] grade
  • Moderate:
    • IQ of…[5] and educational level of up to…[6] grade
  • Severe:
    • IQ of…[7]
  • Profound:
    • IQ of…[8]
  • …[9] have psychiatric co-morbidities, such as…[10-14]
  • High frequency of…[15]
  • The preferred method of treatment is…[16]
A
  1. 1%
  2. Male
  3. 50-70
  4. 6th
  5. 35-50
  6. 2nd
  7. 20-35
  8. <20
  9. 40%
  10. ADHD
  11. MDD
  12. Bipolar
  13. Anti-social personality disorder
  14. Impulse control
  15. Schizophrenia
  16. Cognitive psychotherapy
190
Q

Autistic spectrum disorder - epidemiology

  • Prevalance of…[1]
  • …[2] times more common in…[3]
  • More severe in…[4] gender
  • In most of the patients the classic signs will appear before the age of…[5]
  • Have strong…[6] component
A
  1. 1%
  2. 4
  3. Male
  4. Female
  5. 3
  6. Genetic
191
Q

Autistic spectrum disorder - co-morbidity

  • …[1] delay
  • …[2] will show signs of…[3]
  • Tends to have…[4]
  • Different perception of…[5]
A
  1. Language delay
    • 50% will never acquire any language
  2. 30%
  3. Intellectual disability
    • ​30% - mild
    • 45-50% - profound
    • 70% with normal IQ!
  4. Sensory stimuli
192
Q

Autistic spectrum disorder - treatment and prognosis

  • …[1] decrease agression and hyperactivity
  • …[2] decrease obsessions and stereotypies
  • …[3] can balance self mutilation when the treatments fail
  • …[4] will remain with severe disability and dependency
  • …[5] will have borderline employment status
  • …[6] are operational and can have a stable job
  • Good prognosis with…[7] and…[8] at the age of…[9]
A
  1. Risperidone
  2. SSRI’s
  3. Lithium
  4. 66%
  5. 5-20%
  6. 1-2%
  7. IQ over 70
  8. Good language skills
  9. 5-7 years
193
Q

Anorexia nervosa - epidemiology

  • …[1] are females
  • Usually starts before the age of…[2] and rarely starts after the age of…[3]
  • More frequent in…[4] SES
  • Apperance is related to…[6] event
A
  1. 90%
  2. 17
  3. 40
  4. High
  5. Stressful
194
Q

Anorexia nervosa - severity

  • According to BMI:
    1. Mild
    2. Moderate
    3. Severe
    4. Extreme
A
  1. > 17
  2. 16-16.99
  3. 15-15.99
  4. < 15
195
Q

Anorexia nervosa - comorbidity and clinical signs

  • Comorbidity: 65% - …[1], 35% -…[2], 25%…[3]
  • Death rate of…[4]
  • Increase in…[5] and…[6]
  • Increase in…[7] and decrease in…[8]
  • Decrease in both…[9,10]
  • CNS changes include…[11] of the ventricles and sulci, and hyper-metabolism in the…[12]
A
  1. MDD
  2. Social anxiety disorder
  3. OCD
  4. 10%
  5. CRH
  6. Cortisol
  7. TSH
  8. Thyroid hormones
  9. FSH
  10. LH
  11. Dilation
  12. Caudate nucleus

הפרעות קצב, בעיות ויסות טמפרטורה, ל״ד ודופק, היפרכולסטרולמיה, לויוקופניה, אמנוריאה, אוסטואופורוזיס הוא הסיבוך העיקרי

בנוסף יהיו סיבוכי הקאה

196
Q

Anorexia nervosa - diagnosis (DSM-5)

A
  1. Restriction of energy intake leading to significantly low body weight in context. (Significantly low weight defined as less of the expected minimun according to age and sex)
  2. Intense fear of gaining weight or being fat, or presistnent behaviors that interfer with weight gain
  3. Disturbance in the body perception or lack of recognition of the seriousness of the current low body weight
  • Specifiers:
    • Binge eating/purging - repeated episodes of bing eating and detox in the last 3 months
    • Restrictive - without binges or purging in the last 3 months
197
Q

Anorexia nervosa - progression and prognosis

  • Death is mainly due to…[1] and…[2]
  • …[3] will develop…[4] within…[5]
  • After 10 years:
    • …[6] of the paitents will have full remission
    • …[7] will have parital symptoms
    • …[8] will have chronic course
  • Good prognostic factors…[9]
  • Bad prognostic factors…[10]
A
  1. Suicide
  2. Arrythmias
  3. 30-50%
  4. Bulemia
  5. 1-3 years
  6. 25%
  7. 50%
  8. 25%
  9. Appetite, good self-esteem, awareness
  10. Bulemia, vomiting, laxative abuse, behvior disorders
198
Q

Anorexia nervosa - treatment

A
  1. Admission if possible - although most of the patients doesnt want to
  2. CBT
    • Supervised meals, and monitor weight, electrolytes
  3. Psychodynamic therapy - not for patients younger then 18
  4. Family treatment
  5. The are no proved drugs, should be given if there is co-morbid mental disorder
    • Cyproheptadine for restrictive subtype
    • Anti depressents and anti-psychotics are also an option
199
Q

Bulimia nervosa - epidemiology

  • …[1] of the population
  • …[2] of adolescent females
  • …[3] more common in…[4] gender
  • Sometimes the disease develops from…[5]
  • Onset is usually in…[6]
A
  1. 2-4%
  2. 1-3%
  3. 10-20
  4. Female
  5. Anorexia nervosa
  6. Late 20’s or early 30’s
200
Q

Bulimia nervosa - comorbidity

A
  • Affective disorders
  • Impulse control disorders
  • Cluster B personality disorders
  • Self mutilation
  • History of substance abuse

בשונה מאנורקסיה יש עוררות מינית וליבידו מוגבר. בנוסף, תפקודי תריס תקינים

201
Q

Bulimia nervosa - diagnosis (DSM-5)

A
  1. Recurrent episodes of binge eating, defined as both:
    1. Eating amount of food that is abnormally high in short period of time
    2. Sense of lack of control while eating
  2. Recurrent inappropriate compensatory behaviors in order to prevent weight gain
  3. Binges and compensation occurs at least 1 time a week for at least 3 month
  4. Self evaluation is influenced by body shape and weight
  5. Disturbance does not occur exclusivley during episodes of anorexia nervosa
  • Specifiers:
    • Purging (80%)
    • Non purging type
202
Q

Bulimia nervosa - treatment

  1. Psychotherapy
  2. Nutrition
  3. Drugs
A
  1. Personal/group, dynamic, CBT
  2. -
  3. Anti-depressents - only when there is no response to psychotherapy or comorbid depressive disorder
    • High dose SSRI’s
    • Stabilizers (lithium/lamotrigine) when there is comorbid disorder
203
Q

Bulimia nervosa - prognosis

  • …[1] will recover under therapy
  • …[2] recurrence rate within 5 years
204
Q

Binge eating disorder - diagnosis (DSM-5)

A
  1. Recurrent episodes of binge eating, characterized by both:
    1. Eating high amount of food within short period of time
    2. Sense of lacking control over eating during the episode
  2. Binge eating episodes are associated with:
    1. Eating more rapidly
    2. Eating untill uncomfortably full
    3. Eating large amount when not feeling hungry
    4. Eating alone because feeling embarrassed by the amount
    5. Feeling disgusted/guilty after the binge
  3. Marked distress regarding the binge
  4. Binge occurs at least once a week, for at least 3 months
  5. Not associated with bulimia nervosa or anorexia nervosa
205
Q

Binge eating disorder - co-morbidity

A
  • MDD (+dysthemia)
  • Anxiety
  • Substance abuse
  • Avoidant or borderline personality disorder
206
Q

Pica - diagnosis (DSM-5)

A
  1. Eating of non nurishing foods for at least 1 month
  2. Behavior does not correspond to developmental stage
  3. Not due to cultural norms
  • Pathologic only in kids older than 18 months
  • Cannot be diagnosed in mental retardation
207
Q

Rumination disorder - diagnosis (DSM-5)

A
  1. Recurrent rumination for at least 1 month. The food can be swallowed again or spat out
  2. Not due to other medical disorder
  3. Not due to another eating disorder
  4. If occurs in context of another mental disorder, the symptoms should be severe enough to require further intervention
208
Q

Avoidant/Restrictive food intake disorder - diagnosis (DSM-5)

A
  1. Feeding disorder that is expressed in prolonged insufficient energey consumption, that is related to at least 1 of the following:
    1. Significant weight loss
    2. Severe malnurishment
    3. Dependecy in entral feeding or supplements
    4. Impaired psychosocial dysfunction
  2. Is not explained by lack of available food or cultural norms
  3. Is not due to another feeding disorder and there is no signs of bad body image
  4. Is not due to another GMC or mental disorder. If occurs with another mental disorder, the symptoms are severe enough to require further medical intervention
210
Q

Insomnia - diagnosis (DSM-5)

A
  1. Predominant complain with sleep, associated with at least 1 of the following:
    1. Difficulty initiating sleep
    2. Difficulty maintaining sleep
    3. Early morning awakening with inability to return to sleep
  2. Clinically significant distress or impariment in function
  3. At least 3 nights per week
  4. At least 3 months
  5. Occurs despite adequate opportunity for sleep
  6. Not due to substance abuse
  7. Coexisting disorders do not explain the insomnia
211
Q

Insomnia - treatment

  • Behavioral therapy
  • Drugs
A
  • Deconditioning, better sleep hygiene, light therapy
  • Benzodiazepines, zolpidem, zaleplon
    • Short acting for falling asleep
    • Long acting for patients that wake up at night
    • Use no more then 2 weeks
  • Zolpidem is not associated with rebound insomnia
212
Q

Hypersomnolence disorder - diagnosis (DSM-5)

A
  1. Hypersomnolence, despite sleeping at least 7 hours, with at least 1 of the following:
    1. Repeated sleeping episodes during the day
    2. Nonrestorative sleeping episode of more than 9 hours
    3. Difficulty being refrashed after awakening
  2. At least 3 times a week for at least 3 months
  3. Distress or decrease in function
  4. Is not better explained by other sleeping disorder
  5. Not due to substance abuse
  6. Not due to other mental disorder
213
Q

Hypersomnolence disorder - treatment

A
  • Mainly stimulants
  • SSRI’s which are not sedating, are beneficial in part of the cases
214
Q

Kelin-Levin syndrome

  • Characterized by reapted episodes of…[1] for…[2]
  • Mostly in…[3] age, and…[4] gender
  • Associated with…[5-8]
  • There is…[9] after the episode
  • Can…[10] within few years
  • If medical treatment is needed…[11,12]
A
  1. Hypersomnelance
  2. Several weeks
  3. Young (20’s)
  4. Male
  5. Hypersexualism
  6. Hostility
  7. Hallucinations
  8. Irritability
  9. Amensia
  10. Resolve spontaneously
  11. Stimulants
  12. Lithium
215
Q

Narcolepsy - general features

  • Almost all patients with this disorder have…[1] on WBC’s
  • Characterized by low levels of…[2]
  • Clinics include…[3-7]
A
  1. HLA-DR2
  2. Hypocretin
  3. Sleeping episodes that are refreshing
  4. Cateplexy - in more than 50%
    • Triggers include laugh, anger, physical activity, sexual arousal, fear
  5. Sleep paralysis
  6. Hypnogogic/hypnopompic hallucinations
  7. Sleep onset REM periods - REM starts within 15 minutes after sleep is initiated
216
Q

Narcolepsy - diagnosis (DSM-5)

A
  1. Recurrent episodes of an irrepressible need to sleep/lapsing to sleep/napping occuring withing the same day, occuring for at least 3 nights a week for at least 3 months
  2. Presence of at least 1 of the following:
    1. Episodes of cataplexy defined as either of the following, occuring few times a month:
      1. Long standing disease - brief episodes of loss of muscle tone with maintained consciousness that are precipitated by laughter or joking
      2. Less than 6 months - spontaneous grimaces without any obvious triggers
    2. Hypocretin deficiency measured in the CSF, not in the context of acute brain injury/inflammation/infection
    3. Polysomnography showing REM sleep latency less than/equal to 15 minutes, or multiple sleep latency test showing mean sleep latency less/equal 8 minutes and two or more sleep onset REM periods
217
Q

Narcolepsy - treatment

A
  • Includes arraging sleeping times
  • For cataplexy the treatment is modafinil, fluoxetine or imipramine
    • Shortens REM
218
Q

Non-REM parasomnias - sleepwalking

  • Occurs mainly at stages…[1]
  • Peaks at the age of..[2]
  • Usually there is no…[3] of the event
  • More common in…[4] gender
  • Most cases…[5]
A
  1. N3+N4
  2. 12
  3. Memory
  4. Male
  5. Resolve spontaneously
219
Q

Non-REM parasomnias - sleep terror

  • Characterized by…[1] with…[2] and…[3]
  • There is no…[4] of the event or the dream
  • …[5] and…[6] can induce or exacerbate episodes
  • In children…[7]
A
  1. Sudden awake
  2. Anxiety
  3. Increased autonomic function
  4. Memory
  5. Sleep deprivation
  6. Fever
  7. No treatment is needed
220
Q

Delirium - general features

  • The main neurotransmitter involved in the pathophysiology is…[1]
  • Dysfunction in the…[2]
  • The main diagnostic symptoms are…[3,4] that are associated with cognitive dysfunction
  • Risk factors include:
    • …[5] age
    • …[6] gender
    • …[7] drugs
    • …[8] (psychiatric disorder)
A
  1. Acetylcholine
  2. Reticular formation
  3. Lack of awareness
  4. Attention
  5. Old
  6. Male
  7. Anti-cholinergic
  8. MDD
221
Q

Major neuro-cognitive disorder - general features

  • …[1] of elderly after 65, and…[2] after the age of 85
  • The main disorders
    • …[3] with…[4]
    • …[5] with…[6]
    • …[7] with…[8]
  • …[9] have reversible condition
  • The main difference from minor neuro-cognitive disorder is…[10]
A
  1. 5%
  2. 20-40%
  3. Alzheimer’s
  4. 50-60%
  5. Vascular
  6. 15-30%
  7. Combined Alzheimer’s and vascular
  8. 10-15%
  9. 15%
  10. Lack of functioning (in major)
222
Q

Alzheimer’s disease

  • The main injury is the…[1] lobes
  • The most associated neurotransmitters are…[2,3]
  • Biologic changes include…[4] atrophy, and in biopsy it is possible to see…[5] and…[6]
  • Familial in…[7]
  • In early onset form there is…[8]
  • Treatment with…[9-11] which are…[12] drugs
A
  1. Parieto-temporal
  2. Acetylcholine
  3. Norepinephrine
  4. Diffuse
  5. Neurofibrillary tangles
  6. Amyloid plaques
  7. 40%
  8. Full penetration
  9. Rivastigmine
  10. Donepezzil
  11. Memantine
  12. Cholinergic (acetlycholine esterase inhibitors)
223
Q

Vascular neuro-cognitive disorder

  • Age range of…[1], and it is more common in…[2] gender
  • Can present with…[3]
  • And also with…[4] and…[5]
A
  1. 60-70
  2. Male
  3. Neurologic deficits
  4. Dysarthria
  5. Dysphagia

עייפות, חולשה, כאבי ראש, ממצאים פוקליים (כמו הפרעות הליכה), דיסראתריה ודיספגיה גם יכולים להופיע

224
Q

Neuro-cognitive disorder with Lewy bodies

  • Highly associated with…[1]
  • Core symptoms include…[2-4]
  • Suggested symptoms include…[5,6]
A
  1. Visual hallucinations
  2. Cognitive function fluctuations
  3. Visual hallucinations
  4. Spontaneous parkinsonism
  5. REM-stage sleep disorder
  6. Sensitivity for neuroleptics

ניפלות חוזרות, סינקופה, רגישות לתרופות אנטי-פסיכוטיות, דלוזיות סיסטמיות, פרקינסוניזם, סימנים אקסטא-פירמידליים

225
Q

Fronto-temporal (Pick’s) dementia

  • …[1] of the irreversible causes of neuro-cognitive disorders
  • More common in…[2] gender
  • Peaks at age rage of…[3]
  • Similiar to Alzheimer’s but the…[4] is intact
  • Can show changes in…[5] without…[6] dysfunction
  • Complication is…[7], which is characterized by…[8]
A
  1. 5%
  2. Male
  3. 50-60
  4. Memory
  5. Personality
  6. Cognition
  7. Kluver-Bucy syndrome
  8. Disinhibition (hypersexuality, hyperorality)
226
Q

The 12 indications for ECT (including sub-indications)

A
  1. MDD
    • ​Psychotic depression (!)
    • Resistent to therapy
    • Catatonic
    • With severe suicidal ideation
    • With severe psychomotor retardation
  2. Mania (including mixed episodes)
    • Resistent to therapy
  3. NMS
  4. Risk of the common 1st line treatment
    • Pregnant women with severe suicidal ideation (teratogenic effect of SSRI’s)
    • Elderly (anti-depressents are not safe)
  5. Psychotic disorders that are resistent the anti-psychotic therapy
    • Only effects the positive symptoms
  6. Parkinson’s
  7. Intractable seizure disorders
  8. Acute exacerbation of schizophrenia
  9. OCD
  10. Hypopituitarism
  11. Delirium
  12. Cases in which rapid intervention is cruical
227
Q

ECT - contraindications

A
  • There are no absolute contraindications
  • Relative contraindications:
    • Increased ICP
    • COPD
    • Severe asthma with steroid treatment
    • Severe vascular disease
    • Arryhtmias
    • Pacemakers
    • MS
    • Osteoporesis
228
Q

ECT - side effects

A
  1. Headache
  2. Confusion
    • In 10% there is severe confusion in the 30 minutes after waking-up
      • Can be treated with barbiturates or BZD’s
  3. Delirium
    • Most severe after the first treatments, bilateral treatment or with background of neurological disorder
    • Usually resolves within days-weeks
  4. Memory loss
    • Effects almost all the patients
    • Mostly resolves within 6 months
229
Q

ECT - procedure

  • Unilateral
  • Bilateral
  • Treatment course
  • Prolonged seizures
A
  • Midbrain, non-dominant hemisphere
    • Most commonly parcticed, due to lesser cognitive effects
    • Mostly on the right side
  • Both electrodes are on the temporal areas
    • Significant short and long term cognitive detrioration
    • Risk for delirium
    • Limited to medium strength stimulation
    • Fast stimulation is NOT beneficial
  • The series includes 12-15 treatments, in which there is about 2 treatments per week
  • Seizure for about 25 seconds, if prolonged (<180s) –> treat like status epilepticus
230
Q

ECT - drugs combinations

  1. Benzodiazepines
  2. Lithium
  3. Anti epileptic drugs
  4. Buspirone
  5. Clozapine
  6. Lidocaine
  7. MAOi’s, TCA’s and antipsychotics
A
  1. Benzodiazepines - these treatments cancel each other
    • Another possibility is that BZD’s will lead to prolonged seizure (50 seconds)
    • If there are signs of addiction - treat the addiction first
    • If the drug cannot be stopped - dont take the pill the night before treatment
  2. Lithium - increse the risk for post-ictal delirium and prolonged seizure
  3. Anti epileptic drugs - dont use them
  4. Buspirone - risk for prolonged seizures
  5. Clozapine - risk for prolonged seizures
  6. Lidocaine - increases seizure intensity
  7. Treatment with these drugs is acceptable
231
Q

SSRI - fluoxetine (prozac)

  • Side effects include…[1],…[2] and…[3]
  • Have some…[4] and…[5] activity
  • Decrease the blood concentration of…[6]
  • Have strong effect on…[7]
A
  1. Anxiety
  2. Weight loss
  3. Seizure
  4. Anti-cholinergic
  5. Anti-histaminic
  6. Carbamazepine
  7. CYP450
232
Q

SSRI - fluvoxamine (favoxil)

  • Causes…[1]
  • It have…[2] effect and it is beneficial of…[3]
A
  1. Weight gain
  2. Sedative (relaxing)
  3. OCD
233
Q

SSRI - paroxetine (seroxat, paxxet)

  • It causes…[1]
  • And have…[2] side effects due to its…[3] activity
  • It is the most…[4] SSRI and thus it is beneficial for…[5]
A
  1. Weight gain
    • The SSRI the have the highest association to weight gain
  2. Anti cholinergic
    • The SSRI with the highest rate of anti-cholinergic side effects
  3. Sedative (relaxing)
  4. Panic disorder
234
Q

SSRI - sertraline (lustral)

  • Side effects of…[1] and [2]
A
  1. Anxiety
  2. Diarrhea
235
Q

SSRI - escitalopram (cipralex) and citalopram (recital)

  • Esticaloparm of side effects of…[1] and…[2]
  • For citalopram there is association with…[3]
A
  1. Sedation
  2. Weight gain
  3. QTc prolongation
236
Q

SSRI - t1/2

  • From the shortest to the longest…[1-6]
A

From the shortest to longest:

  1. Fluvoxamine
  2. Paroxetine
  3. Escitalopram
  4. Citalopram
  5. Sertraline
  6. Fluoxetine
237
Q

SSRI - GI side effects

  1. Resolves usually after…[1]
  2. Most commonly associated with…[2]
A
  • GI discomfort, vomiting, nausea, anorexia, dyspepsia, diarrhea
  • GI side effects are the main side effect
  1. Resolves usually after 2 weeks
  2. Sertraline (lustral) have the most prominent GI side effects
238
Q

SSRI - sexual dysfunction

  • Occurs in…[1] of the patients
  • Does not…[2]
  • Change to drug that does not effect sexual acitivity including…[3] and…[4], or add…[5]
A
  1. 50-80%
  2. Resolve
  3. Mirtazapine
  4. Buproprion
  5. Viagra
239
Q

SSRI - CNS side effects

  • Can increase…[1] in the first few weeks
  • Rarely and most commonly in old patients can cause…[2]
  • Very low rate (0.02%) of…[3]
  • The associated drug is…[4]
A
  1. Anxiety (=pardoxical anxiety)
  2. EPS
  3. Seizures
  4. Fluoxetine
240
Q

SSRI - misc. side effects

  • Weight loss occurs only with…[1] the rest will cause weight gain
  • …[2] that will lead to hyponatremia and delirium in old patients
  • Anti-cholinergic side effects with…[3]
  • 4% will have…[4]
  • Deficieny in…[5] of…[6]
  • Emotional…[7]
  • …[8] dreams
  • Increased risk of…[9]
A
  1. Fluoxetine
  2. SIADH
  3. Paroxetine
  4. Skin rash
  5. Aggregation
  6. Platelets - prolonged bleeding time
  7. Blunting
  8. Vivid
  9. Suicide attempts
241
Q

SSRI discontinuation syndrome

  • Leads to…[1] disorder and…[2] discomfort
  • Also…[3],…[4] and…[5]. Also auras of…[6]
  • Accompanied with…[7] problems
  • Occurs in…[8] of the patients
  • Becuase…[9] have long t1/2 it is the treatment
  • When…[10] is stopped abruptly, it have the highst risk for triggering discontinuation syndrome
A
  1. Balance
  2. GI
  3. Tierdness
  4. Insomnia
  5. Parasthesias
  6. Migraine
  7. Psychiatric
  8. 33%
  9. Fluoxetine
  10. Sertraline
242
Q

Serotonin syndrome

  1. Symptoms
  2. Management
A
  1. Characterized by the 3A’s:
    • neuromuscular hyper-Activity: clonus, hyperreflexia, hypertonia, tremor, seizures
    • Autonomic instability: hyperthermia, diaphoresis, diarrhea
    • Agitation
  2. Stop the offending drug should be the first step
    • Supporting treatment: cyproheptadine, nitroglycerine, methysergide, chloropormazine, dentrolene, BZD
    • Cooling blankts
    • Respiratory support
243
Q

SNRI’s - 5 indications

A
  1. MDD - effect starts within 2 weeks (faster than SSRI’s)
    • Venlafaxine (Efexor) - for resistant MDD or MDD with anxious distress
    • More efficient in melancholic patients
  2. GAD
  3. Social anxiety
  4. Panic disorder
  5. Neuropathic pain - duloxetine (Cymbalta)
244
Q

SNRI’s - side effects

  • Frequent side effects…[1-9]
  • Risk of…[10] that will lead to…[11]
  • …[12] is the most severe side effect. Monitro patients with pre-existing condition
A
  1. N/V
  2. Dry mouth
  3. Dizziness
  4. Agitation
  5. Constipation
  6. Weakness
  7. Anorexia
  8. Blurred vision
  9. Sexual disorders
  10. Agitation
  11. Suicide
  12. Hypertension
245
Q

Mirtazapine (Miro)

  • Mechanism of action…[1]
  • Efficient in cases with prominent…[2] and…[3]
  • Side effects…[4-15]
A
  1. NaSSA - noradrenergic and specific serotonergic anti-depressent
    • Block alpha-2 receptors
    • Serotonin antagonist
    • Block H1 receptors
  2. Sleep disturbance
  3. Weight gain
    • Used for MDD, sleeping disorders, somatic and physiologic symptoms of anxiety or distress
  4. Fatigue (>50%)
  5. Dry mouth (25%)
  6. Constipation (13%)
  7. Increased appetite
  8. Dizziness
  9. Myalgia
  10. Dreaming disorders (???)
  11. Mania/hypomania
  12. Increased cholesterol and TAG
  13. Increased ALT
  14. Orthostatism
  15. Neutropenia
    • In 0.3%
    • Stop the medication of occurs

התופעות לוואי הכי חשובות הן עלייה במשקל, שינה מוגברת וניוטרופניה

246
Q

Bupropion (Zyban)

  • Mechanism of action…[1]
  • Does not lead to…[2-6]
  • Indications…[7-12]
  • The combination with…[13] is the most effective one aginst MDD
A
  1. NdRI - norepinephrin-dopamine reuptake inhibitor
  2. Anti-cholinergic side effects
  3. Weight gain
  4. Sexual dysfunction
  5. Fatigue
  6. Orthostatism
  7. MDD
  8. Bipolar disease
  9. ADHD
  10. Cocain intoxication
  11. Smoking cessation
  12. Hypoactive sexual desire disorder
  13. Fluoxetine
247
Q

Bupropion (Zyban) - side effects

  • Common side effects…[1-7]
  • Less common side effects…[8-11]
  • Due to dopaminergic effect it may percipitate…[12]
  • …[13] when combined with risk factors such as hyperkalemia
  • Exacerbation of…[14] or…[15] disease
  • Increase…[16] in…[17] patients
  • Rare side effects…[18-22]
A
  1. Tremor (the most common)
  2. Headahce
  3. Insomnia
  4. URT complaints
  5. Nausea
  6. Profuse sweating
  7. Constipation
  8. Restlessness
  9. Anxiety
  10. Sleep disturbances
  11. Irritability
  12. Psychotic symptoms
  13. Seizures
  14. Liver
  15. Kidney
  16. Blood pressure
  17. Hypertensive
  18. Rash
  19. Pruritus
  20. Lymphadenopathy
  21. Pancytopenia
  22. Confusion and delirium
248
Q

Typical anti-psychotics - high potency drugs

  • …[1],…[2],…[3] and…[4]
  • Have low…[5], and high…[6] effects
A
  1. Trifluphenazine
  2. Fluphenazine
  3. Haloperidol
  4. Pimozide
  5. Anti-cholinergic
  6. EPS
249
Q

Typical anti-psychotics - low potency drugs

  • …[1],…[2]
  • Have low…[3], and high…[4] effects
  • …[5], have the lowest effect of…[6], because its potency is…[7]
A
  1. Chloropromazine
  2. Thioridazine
  3. EPS
  4. Anti-cholinergic
  5. Prephenazine
  6. EPS
  7. Medium
250
Q

EPS - parkinsonism

  • Occurs in…[1]
  • After…[2] days
  • Most common in…[3]…[4]
  • Treatment
A
  1. 15% - the most common
  2. 5-90
  3. Elderly
  4. Females
  5. Anti-cholinergics / amantadine / diphenhydramine (benedril)
    • When treating with anti-cholinergics caution must be used with BPH, glaucoma and patients with urinary retention
251
Q

ESP - acute dystonia

  • Occurs in…[1]
  • Most commonly in…[2],…[3]
  • Prevention
  • Treatment
A
  1. 10%
  2. Young
  3. Males
  4. Anti-cholinergics / diphenhydramine (benedril) / clonazepam
  5. Anti-cholinergics / anti-histamines IM/IV
252
Q

EPS - acute akathisia

  • Treatment
A
  • Consider reducing the dose or replacing the drug
  • Best responds to propranolol (deralin).
    • Can also use benzodiazepines, anti-cholinergics or cyproheptadine
253
Q

EPS - tardive dyskinesia

  • Occurs in…[1] of the patients who are treated with dopamine receptor antagonist
  • In…[2] of the patients after 12 months, and in…[3] of the patients after 4 years
  • Resolves in…[4] of the cases.
  • Resolves in…[5] of the mild cases
  • Risk factors…[6-13]
  • Prevention
  • Treatment
A
  1. 30%
  2. 10-20%
  3. 20-30%
  4. 5-40%
  5. 50-90%
  6. Prolonged use
  7. Typical drugs
  8. Patients older than 50
  9. Kids
  10. Females
  11. Head injuries
  12. Affective disorders
  13. Cognitive disorders
  • Treat with the lowest dose possible. Treat with atypicals (clozapine have the lesser rate)
  • Decrease the dose or stop acutely the drug, and change to atypical - mainly clozapine! ​
  • The main AE’s of clozapine include myocarditis, agranulocytosis, seizures
  • If cannot tolerate clozapine - benzo/lithium/carbamazepine
254
Q

Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome

  • …[1] of the patients who are treated with anti-psychotics
  • More common in…[2] gender, and in…[3] age
  • Can also occur with…[4]
  • Higher risk when…[5] are used
  • Develops within…[6] and last for…[7]
  • Death rate of…[8]
  • Symptoms…[9]
  • Treatment…[10]
A
  1. 0.01%-0.02%
  2. Male
  3. Young
  4. Anti-psychotics
  5. IM depot formulas
  6. 24-72 hours
  7. 10-14 days
  8. 10-25%
  9. Symptoms include:
    • Hyperpyrexia
    • Changes in conciousness - agitation, delirium, stupor, coma, catatonia
    • EPS - rigidity, dystonia, akinesia, mutism, akathisia
    • Autonomic instability - tachycardia, hypertension, tachypnea
  10. Stop the offending drug
    • Supportive treatment (cooling)
    • Bromocriptine / amantadine
    • ECT is useful (unilateral or bilateral)
    • For 5-10 days
255
Q

Typical anti-psychotics - general adverse effects

  • Hyper…[1]
  • Anti-…[2]
  • Orth…[3]
  • Anti-histaminergic…[4]
  • Hematologic…[5]
  • Cardial…[6]
  • Skin…[7]
  • Liver…[8]
  • Decreased…[9]
A
  1. Prolactinemia - gynecomastia, impotence, galactorrhea, amenorrhea, anorgasmia. OSTEOPORESIS
  2. Cholinergic - both central and peripheral
  3. Orthostatism - due to alpha-1 blockade
  4. Increased appetite and sedative
  5. Mild leuckopenia, rarely, agranulocytosis
  6. Prolonged PR and QT intervals
  7. Photosensitive rash
  8. Cholestatic jaundice
  9. Seizure threshold
256
Q

Atypical anti-psychotics

  • Anti-psychotic effect
  • Reistent to treatment
A
  • Appears after 3 weeks with full dose
  • No reaction after 4-10 week with the full dose
257
Q

Atypical anti-psychotics - metabolic syndrome

A
  • Central obesity, increased TG, decreased HDL, increased blood fasting glucose, hypertension
  • Clozapine and olanzapine have the highest effect
  • Aripiprazole have the lowest
  • Aripiprazole < quetiapine < risperidone < olanzapine < clozapine
258
Q

Atypical anti-psychotics - other adverse effects

A
  1. Salivation - mainly due to the use of clozapine. Treat with anti-cholinergics or with clonidine
    • Disturbed swallowing
  2. Genitourinary disturbances including impotence
  3. In high dose it can exacerbate OCD
259
Q

Atypical anti-psychotics - clozapine

  • Used for…[1],…[2] and…[3]
  • Works for…[4] that are resistent to therapy
  • Works also on…[5]
  • Is found helpful is decreasing…[6]
  • Adverse effects include…[7-12]
  • 3 Contraindications for clozapine…[13]
  • Does NOT increase…[14]
A
  1. Resistent schizophrenia (3 other drugs before)
  2. Severe suicidal ideations
  3. Tradive dykinesia
  4. 30%
  5. Negative symptoms
  6. Sedation
  7. Suicide rate
  8. Metabolic syndrome
  9. Anti-cholinergic AE’s including QT prolongation
  10. Agranulocytosis (1-2%)
  11. Decreased seizure threshold
    • Decrease the dose and give additional valproic acid
  12. Myocarditis
  13. WBC <3500, bone marrow disorders, history of agranulocytosis with clozapine
  14. Prolactin
  • בחילות, הקאות, חולשה, עייפות, סחרחורת, תת ל״ד, סינקופה, טאכיקרדיה
  • שינויים בא.ק.ג
  • עלייה במשקל, בעיות במערכת העיכול - הכי נפוץ עצירות
  • אנטי-כולינרגיות
  • חולשת שרירים
260
Q

Atypical anti-psychotics - clozapine associated agranulocytosis

  • Occurs in…[1] of the patients treated with clozapine
  • Requires intensive follow up, that include bloodworks every…[2], for the first…[3], followed by once a…[4] for…[5]
  • If the WBCC is…[6] and/or PMNs are…[7], we need to stop the drug immediately
  • If the WBCC is between…[8] and/or PMNs are between…[9] we need to…[10]
A
  1. 1%
  2. Week
  3. 6 months
  4. 2 weeks
  5. Ever
  6. <3,000
  7. <1,500
  8. 3,000-3,500
  9. 1,500-2,000
  10. Do intensive follow up twice/week until increase above 3500/2000
261
Q

Atypical anti-psychotics - clozapine and contraindicated drugs

  • Increased risk for agranulocytosis with…[1-6]
  • Lithium…[7]
  • Past NMS…[8]
  • Drugs that increase its blood concentration…[9-12]
  • Benzodiazepines…[13]
A
  1. Phenytoin
  2. Carbamazepine
  3. Sulfonamides
  4. PTU
  5. Benzodiazepines
  6. Captopril
  7. Increase the risk for seizures, confusion and movement disorders
  8. Clozapine with lithium is contraindicated
  9. Fluoxetine
  10. Paroxetine
  11. Fluvoxamine
  12. Risperidone
  13. Will lead to delirium
262
Q

Atypical anti-psychotics - risperidone (risperidal)

A
  • 3-4 times higher risk for hyperprolactinemia
    • The drug with the most significant risk for hyperprolactinemia
  • In high dose can trigger EPS
  • Usually used as first line

עלייה במשקל, בחילות, הקאות, חרדה ובעיות בזקפה

263
Q

Atypical anti-psychotics - olanzapine (zyprexa)

A
  • Higher rate of H1 AE’s - metabolic syndrome.
  • Orthostatism
  • Constipation
  • Decreased seizure threshold
  • Can also be used as mood stablizer
264
Q

Atypical anti-psychotics - quetiapine (seroquell)

A
  • Lesser motoric side effects
  • Have anti-cholinergic effects
  • Good for patients with metabolic syndrome
265
Q

Atypical anti-psychotics - ziprezidone (geodon)

A
  • Have risk for QT prolongation
    • Contraindicated in patients with long-QT syndrome or history of arrythmias
  • There is almost none metabolic effects
  • Can be used for OCD

כאבי ראש, בחילות, חולשה

אין לתת עם תרופות אחרות שמאריכות מקטע קיוטי

266
Q

Atypical anti-psychotics - aripiprazole (Abilify)

  • Mechanism of action…[1]
  • Adverse effects…[2-6]
  • EPS…[7]
  • Does not cause…[8-11]
A
  1. Partial agonist to dopamine receptors
  2. Headache,
  3. Nausea
  4. Anxiety
  5. Dyspepsia
  6. Sleep disturbances
  7. Does not lead to EPS, but leads to akathisia-like phenomenoa
  8. Hyperprolactinemia
  9. Weight gain (or any metabolic disorder)
  10. QT prolongation
  11. Diabetes
267
Q

6 contraindications for treatment with neuroleptics

לא בטוח בכלל

A
  1. Severe allergic reaction
  2. Interactions with drugs that will lead to CNS depression
  3. Risk for seizures
  4. Severe cardiac abnormalities
  5. Narrow angle glaucoma
  6. Tradive dyskinesia (?)
268
Q

Anti-psychotics - long acting formulas

  • The 5 drugs and courses of treatment
  • 3 benefits
A
  1. Halidol deconate - 1 / 1-4weeks
  2. Modecate deconate (Fluphenazine) - 1 / 2weeks
  3. Clopixol depot (Zuclopenthixol) - 1 / 2weeks
  4. Risperidal consta - 1 / 2weeks
    • The only atypical drug that have long acting formulation
  5. SEMAP - 1 / 1week
    • The only that is given PO
  • Good control over plasma levels
  • Increased compliance
  • Eliminating absorption disorders
269
Q

Anti-psychotics - 4 drugs that can be give in acute setting

A
  1. Haloperidol
  2. Olanzapine
  3. Ziprezidone
  4. Zulopenthixol
    • Lasts for 3 days
270
Q

Lithium - characteristics

  • Excreted by the…[1]
  • Have narrow…[2]
  • Before starting the therapy, and every…[3] - blood works for…[4],…[5],…[6],…[7],…[8] and…[9]
  • If there are signs of intoxication, do blood works every…[10]
  • Does not bind to…[11]
  • Obesity increases…[12]
A
  1. Kidney
  2. Therapeutic range
  3. 2-6 months
  4. Renal function
  5. Electrolytes (calcium included)
  6. Blood count
  7. TSH
  8. beta-HCG
  9. ECG
  10. Week
  11. Plasma proteins
  12. Elimination
271
Q

Lithium - GI side effects

A
  • Nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, weight gain, dyspepsia, fluid retention
272
Q

Lithium - CNS side effects

  1. Cerebellar
  2. Cognitive
  3. Neuron toxic syndrome
A
  1. Postural tremor, akathisia
    • For tremor prevention: split doses, use long acting formulation, decrease caffeine intake, correct hypokalemia
    • Treated with beta-blocker
  2. Dysphoria, slow response
    • MG like response, decreased seizure threshold, parkinsonism
  3. Acute confusional state, that is sometimes non reversible, that appears with combination with anti-psychotics
273
Q

Lithium - renal side effects

A
  • In 33% of the patients nephrogenic DI
  • Intersitial fibrosis
  • Nephrotic syndrome

In the kidney lithium acts the same way as sodium - pay attention to patients that prescribed low sodium diet (cardial patients)

274
Q

Lithium - thyroid, parathyroid side effects

A
  • Goiter
  • Hypothyroidism - more commonly in females
    • Treat with levothyroxin (Eltroxin)
  • Hyperparathyroidism –> hypercalcemia
275
Q

Lithium - cardial side effects

A
  • ECG that gives picture of hypokalemia - flattening of T waves
  • SA node suppression - contraindicated in patients with sick sinus syndrome
276
Q

Lithium - skin

A
  • Acne
  • Exacerbation of psoriasis
  • Hair loss
277
Q

Lithium - hematologic side effects

A
  • Leukocytosis without clinical relevance
  • Rarely, thrombocytosis - thrombotic events are rare
278
Q

Lithium - intoxication

  • Mild intoxication:
    • Blood levels of…[1]
    • GI signs…[2]
    • Neurologic signs…[3]
  • Moderate intoxication:
    • Blood levels of…[4]
    • GI signs…[5]
    • Neurologic signs…[6]
  • Severe intoxication:
    • Blood levels of…[7]
    • Signs…[8]
  • Indication for hemodialysis…[9]
A
  1. 1.5-2.0
  2. Dry mouth, vomiting, abdominal pain
  3. Dizziness, ataxia, nystagmus, slurred speech, muscle weakness
  4. 2.0-2.5
  5. N/V, anorexia
  6. Blurred vision, hyperreflexia, clonic limv movements, seizures, delirium, ECG changes, syncope, stupor, coma
  7. >2.5
  8. Renal failure, oliguria, generalized seizures, death
  9. When lithium levels are >4.0
279
Q

Lithium - teratogenicity

A
  • Level D
  • 4-12% risk for Ebstein anomaly
  • If women is taking lithium during the pregnancy - keep the minimal possible dose
    • 2 weeks before delivery maintain levels of 0.6 mEq/L
  • Follow up on TSH for risk of fetal hypothyroidism, follow up also on the heart of the fetus
  • Lithium is transferred in milk
280
Q

Lithium - drug interactions

  • Drugs that increase blood levels…[1-3]
  • Durgs that decrease blood levels…[4-8]
  • Contraindicated with…[9]
A
  1. ACE inhibitors
  2. Thiazides
  3. NSAID’s
    • Except aspirin and sulindac
  4. Loop diuretics
  5. Osmotic diuretics
  6. CA inhibitors
  7. Xanthines
  8. Caffeine
  9. CCB’s
281
Q

Valproic acid (depalept)

  1. GI side effects
  2. CNS
  3. Weight…
  4. 6 other side effects
  5. Teratogenicity level
  • Rare side effects…[6-8]
A
  1. Frequent in the first month of the therapy. Abdominal discomfort, jaundice
  2. Sedation, tremor (reacts well to beta blockers)
  3. Gain
  4. Alopecia (5-15%), increased LFT’s, hepatotoxicity, changes in lipid profile, polycystic ovary, SIADH
  5. Level X - absolutly contraindicated
  6. Thrombocytosis with decreased function - follow up with patietns taking warfarin/aspirin
  7. Agranulocytosis
  8. Pancreatitis
  • Due to relatively small amount of side effects it is the drug that is recommended for children and elderly
282
Q

Carbamazepine (tegretol) - physiologic effects

  1. Hematologic
  2. Endocrine
  3. Liver
  4. CVS
  5. Skin
  6. …-like syndrome
A
  1. Benign leukopenia
  2. SIADH, increased thyroid hormones
  3. Increased liver enzymes - can interfere with other drugs metabolism
  4. Contraindicated in patients with AV block
  5. Rash
  6. SLE
283
Q

Carbamazepine (tegretol) - side effects

  1. Hematologic
  2. Liver
  3. Skin
  4. Pancreas
  5. GI
  6. CNS
  7. Heart
  8. Urinary tract
A
  1. in 1:250,000 - aplastic anaemia and agranulocytosis
    • Blood count every 3 months in the first year
    • In the first months blood count every 2 weeks
  2. Hepatitis, jaundice, cholestasis
  3. Risk for SJS and TEN
    • When rash develops - stop the drugs immediately
  4. Pancreatitis
  5. Most commonly - nausea, vomiting, abdominal discomfort, dyspepsia, constipation, anorexia
  6. Acute confusional state can occur when combined with neuroleptics. Also agitation, nystagmus
  7. Increased conduction time –> contraidicated in patients with AV block
  8. Risk for urinary retention
284
Q

Carbamazepine (tegretol) - precautions

  • Contraindications include…[1],…[2] and…[3]
  • Precaution with…[4],…[5] and…[6]
  • Tertogenicity
A
  1. Hematologic disease
  2. Liver disease
  3. AV block
  4. Glaucoma
  5. BPH
  6. Diabetes
  7. Increased risk for neural tube defects, intracranial hemorrhage
    • Pass in milk
    • Lithium have favorable tertogenic profile
285
Q

Carbamazepine (tegretol) - durg interactions

  • An…[1] of cytochrome p450, that will lead to…[2] in concentrations of valproate and OCP’s
  • …[3],…[4],…[5] increase the concentration in the blood
  • Blood concentration can be reduce by…[6]
A
  1. Inducer
  2. Decrease
  3. Fluoxetine
  4. Lamotrigine
  5. Valproate
  6. Auto-induction
286
Q

Lamotrigine (lamictal)

  • The only anti-epileptic that is useful for…[1]
  • Allowed in…[2]
  • Side effects:
    • Neurologic [3]
    • Skin [4]
      • Risk factors…[5-8]
      • This manifestation is not…[9]
A
  1. Depression (in the setting of bipolar disease)
  2. Pregnancy (level C)
  3. Tiredness, headache, ataxia, blurred vision
  4. Benign rash in 8%
    • Risk for SJS and TEN - stop the drug when the first signs of rash are seen
      1. Age <16
      2. Given with valproate
      3. Quick administration
      4. High initial dose
      5. Dose dependent
287
Q

Lamotrigine (lamictal) - drug interactions

  • …[1] increase the concentration by…[2]
  • …[3] increase the concentration by…[4]
  • …[4],…[5],…[6] decrease the concentration by about…[7]
  • Lamotrigine itself decrease the concentration of…[8]
A
  1. Valproate
  2. 2 times
  3. Sertraline
  4. 25%
  5. Carbamazepine
  6. Phenytoin
  7. Phenobarbital
  8. 40-50%
  9. Carbamazepine
288
Q

Topiramate (topamax) - side effects

  • Idiosyncratic…[1-4]
  • Non dosage dependent…[5-8]
  • To prevent the…[9] symptoms, we increase the dosage slowly
A
  1. Parasthesia
  2. Slurred speech
  3. Fatigue
  4. Psychomotor retardation
  5. Decrease weight and appetite
  6. Renal stone formation
  7. Confusion
  8. Decreased concentration
  9. Cognitive symptoms
289
Q

Benzodiazepines - side effects

  • Mainly of…[1]
  • If taken with…[2] can cause…[3] and…[4]
  • In therapeutic range:
    • Can cause…[5], this is why patients should not…[6]
    • Risk for…[7] and…[8] there is high risk for…[9] in the elderly
  • Patients with…[10] are at risk for developing…[11]
A
  1. CNS
  2. Alcohol
  3. Disinhibition
  4. Respiratory depression
  5. Sedation
  6. Operate heavy mechinary
  7. Ataxia
  8. Diziness
  9. Falls
  10. Brain damage (like autism)
  11. Paradoxical agitation
290
Q

Benzodiazepines - precautions

  1. Pregnancy
  2. Diseases of…
  3. Dont take with…
  4. Precaution with…[4],…[5],…[6],…[7] and…[8]
A
  1. Teratogenic.
    • Decrease fetal motility
    • Considered teratogenic
    • In the third trimester there is risk for fetal withdrawl syndrome
    • Passed in milk - lactation is contraindicated
    • D-level
  2. Liver and kidney
  3. Alcohol
  4. COPD
  5. OSA
  6. Drug abuse
  7. Cognitive disorders
  8. Myasthenia gravis
291
Q

Benzodiazepines - long acting

  • Half-life range of…[1]
  • 5 drugs
A
  1. 30-100 hours
  2. Diazepam (Valium)
  3. Chlordiazepoxide
  4. Clonazepam (Clonex)
  5. Clorazepate
  6. Flurazepam
292
Q

Benzodiazepine - intermediate acting

  • Half-life rage of…[1]
  • 4 drugs
A
  1. 8-30 hours
  2. Lorazepam (Lorivan)
  3. Oxazepam (Vaben)
  4. Temazepam
  5. Estazolam
293
Q

Benzodiazepines - short acting

  • Slightly longer half-life…[1]
    • 1 drug…[2]
  • Shortest half-life of…[3]
    • 1 drugs…[4]
A
  1. 10-15 hours
  2. Alprazolam
  3. 2-3 hours
  4. Tirazolam
294
Q

Benzodiazepines - lipid soluble

  • 3 drugs
A
  1. Midazolam (not really psychiatric drug)
  2. Alprazolam (xanax)
  3. Diazepam (valium, assival)
295
Q

Benzodiazepines - rapid acting drugs

  • 4 drugs
A
  1. Alprazolam
  2. Diazepam
  3. Estazolam
  4. Tirazolam
296
Q

Benzodiazepines - discontinuation syndrome

  • Symptoms of…[1]
  • Recommended cessation of the drug…[2]
  • We can use…[3]
  • …[4] excerbate the symptoms
A
  1. Hyperarousal
    • Delirium, hypertension. tachycardia, myoclonus, agitation, tremor
  2. Decrease the dose by 25% every week
  3. BB’s, valproic acid, carbamazepine, clonidine, sedative anti-depressent
  4. Flumazenil
297
Q

Alcohol abuse - epidemiology

  • …[1] in females and…[2] in males
  • More in…[3] skin color, living in…[4] areas and with…[5] education
  • Have the strongest…[6] factor among all the abuses
A
  1. 10%
  2. 20%
  3. White
  4. Urban
  5. High
  6. Genetic
298
Q

Alcohol abuse - general features

  • Symptoms correlate with…[1]
  • High…[2] in 60% of the patients
  • Increased…[3] and…[4] (liver enzymes)
    • …[5] is the most sensitive
  • Signs of…[6] in CXR in 30%
  • During sleep there is…[7] in REM phase
  • Psychiatric co-morbidities include…[8-11]
  • ….[12] suicide rate
A
  1. Alcohol blood levels
  2. MCV
  3. AST
  4. GGT
  5. GGT
  6. Fractures
  7. Shortening
  8. Other substance abuses
  9. Anti-social personality disorder
  10. Mood disorders
  11. Anxiety
  12. 10-15%
299
Q

Alcohol abuse - fetal alcohol syndrome

  • Occurs in…[1] of the mothers that abuse alcohol during the pregnancy
  • Include:
    • Pre and post-natal…[2]
    • …[3]cephaly
    • Dysmorphism…[4,5,6]
    • …[7] dislocation
    • …[8] defects
  • In severe cases…[9] and…[10] can occur
A
  1. 35%
  2. Developmental retardation
  3. Micro-
  4. Small palpebral fissure
  5. Thin vermilion border
  6. Smooth filthrum
  7. Limb
  8. Heart
  9. Heart-lung fistula
  10. Holoprosencephaly
300
Q

Alcohol abuse - withdrawl

  • Mild signs include…[6 symptoms - scheme]
  • Delirium tremens:
    • Occurs in the…[1] after withdrawl
    • …[2] death rate
    • Symptoms [7 symptoms - scheme]
  • Treatment include…[3]
    • Second line…[4-6]
    • Avoid…[7] as they decrease seizure thershold
A
  1. 72 hours
  2. 20%
  3. Benzodiazepines (diazepam, lorazepam)
  4. Carbamazepine (tegretol)
  5. Beta-blockers
  6. Clonidine
  7. Anti-psychotics

ההזוית מאופיינת כהזיות תחושתיות וראייה

באחת השאלות בנקודות, ההזיות מתוארות כדליריום

301
Q

Wernicke-Korsakoff syndrome

  • Mostly in patients that abuse alcohol due to…[1] deficieny
  • Wernicke is…[2] and…[3] condition
    • Characterized by…[4-6]
  • Korsakoff is…[7] and…[8] condition
    • Characeterized by…[9,10]
  • Treatment is with…[11]
    • For Wernicke treatment is for…[12] weeks
    • For Korsakoff treatmet is for…[13] weeks
A
  1. Thiamine (B1)
  2. Acute
  3. Reversible
  4. Confusion
  5. Ataxia
  6. Nystagmus
  7. Chronic
  8. Irreversible
  9. Anterograde amnesia
  10. Short term memory loss
  11. Thiamine
  12. 1-2
  13. 3-12

בנקודות לוורניקה יש עוד סימנים:

אופתלמופלגיה, ניסטגמוס, lateral orbital palsy, gaze palsy, הפרעות קורדינציה,

302
Q

Opiate abuse - general features

  • Prevalance of…[1]
  • Psychiatric co-morbidity include…[2-5]
  • …[6] try to commite suicide
  • Induce their effect by binding into opiate receptors and indirectly lead to realse of…[7]
  • Act as CNS…[8]
  • Intoxication is characterized by…[9] pupils, decreased…[10] function and eventually…[11]
A
  1. 0.1%
  2. Other substance abuse
  3. Anti-social personality disorder
  4. Borderline personality disorder
  5. Mood disorders
  6. 15%
  7. Dopamine
  8. Depressent
  9. Pin-point
  10. Autonomic
  11. Respiratory depression
303
Q

Opiate abuse - withdrawl

  • Have the opposite effects and include…[1-3]
  • Characterized by increased…[4] and increased…[5]
  • Pupillary…[6]
  • Characteristic is…[7] and…[8]
  • …[9]algia
A
  1. Dysphoria
  2. Anxiety
  3. Restlessness
  4. Autonomic function - hypertension, tachycardia, hyperthermia/hypothermia
  5. Body fluid secretion - lacrimation, rhinorrhea, diarrhea
  6. Dilation
  7. Piloerection
  8. Yawning
  9. Myalgia
304
Q

Opiate abuse - pregnancy

  • Withdrawl in pregnancy is not advised, only in the…[1] it is possible
  • …[2] of the abusers during pregnancy have additional psychiatric disorder
  • If there is dependence, treat with…[3], doeses of which will need to be increased during the 3rd trimester
A
  1. 2nd trimester
  2. 90%
  3. Methadone - partial agonist for u receptors will long half life (15 hours)
305
Q

Opiate abuse - treatment

  • Step-wise approach
    • Initial step is with…[1]
    • Followed by…[2]
    • And the last step is with…[3]
  • In acute setting we give…[4]
A
  1. Methadone
  2. Buprenorphine - partial agonist to u and k receptors
  3. Naltrexone
  4. Buprenorphine
306
Q

Stimulant abuse - general features

  • Cocaine, crack, amphetamines, MDMA
  • Prevalance of…[1]
  • Cocaine mechanism…[2]
    • In premanant use it can lead to…[3] and…[4]
    • When it induces psychosis, characteristic is…[5]
    • Co-morbidity with…[6-11]
  • Patients can self treat with…[12] and…[13]
  • Stimulants can induce…[14-17]
  • Life-threatening conditions include…[18,19]
A
  1. 1.5% (M=F)
  2. Reuptake inhibitor of serotonin, dopamine and NE
  3. Impotance
  4. Nasal perforation
  5. Formication
  6. MDD
  7. BP2
  8. Cyclothymia
  9. Anti-social personality disorder
  10. ADHD
  11. Other substance abuse (alcohol)
  12. Benzodiazepines (clonazepam)
  13. Alcohol
  14. Anxiety (stimulat induced anxiety disorder)
  15. OCD (stimulant induced OCD)
  16. Sexual dysfunction (stimulant induced sexual dysfunction)
  17. Sleeping disorder (stimulant induced sleep disorder)
  18. Vascular disorders (MI, stroke)
  19. Seizures
307
Q

Stimulants - withdrawl

  • Symptoms starts within…[1] and disappear after…[2]
  • …[3]
  • …[4] disorder due to…[5]
  • Increased…[6]
  • Risk for…[7] that will lead to…[8]
A
  1. 2-3 days
  2. Week
  3. Tiredness
  4. Sleeping
  5. Nightmares
  6. Appetite
  7. Depression
  8. Suicide
308
Q

Stimulants abuse - treatment

  • Psychosis and withdrawl signs…[1]
    • When agitation is consider…[2]
  • In depression…[3,4] can be used and are more efficient than SSRI’s
  • In hyper-activity…[5]
A
  1. Usually mandates no treatment but supervision
  2. Antipsychotics - haloperidol
  3. Buproprion
  4. Despiramine
  5. Dizepam (Valium)
309
Q

Cannabis abuse - general features

  • The…[1] most common abused substance
  • Up to the age of 34 it is more commonly used in…[2] and above the age of 35 it is equally used
  • CB1 receptors are found in the…[3-6] especially in dopaminergic cells
  • THC can be found in the urine…[7] days after it abuse
A
  1. 4th
  2. Whites
  3. Cortex
  4. Basal ganglia
  5. Cerebellum
  6. Hippocampus
  7. 21 (due to rapid absorption in adipose tissue)
310
Q

Cannabis abuse - symptoms

  • The most common sign is…[1]
  • Euphoria starts within…[2] and lasts for…[3]
  • Motor disturbance lasts…[4] after using
  • In posioning…[5-9] can be seen
  • In the long term,…[10-14]
A
  1. Conjunctival injection
  2. 30 minutes
  3. 2-4 hours
  4. 8-12 hours
  5. In sensitivity to stimuli (colors etc…)
  6. Slowed time perception
  7. Orthostatism
  8. Depersonalization
  9. Derealization
  10. A-motivational syndrome
  11. Decrease seizure threshold
  12. Decreased immune system activity
  13. Cognitive disturbance
  14. Increased risk for lung cancer/COPD
311
Q

Cannabis abuse - withdrawl

  • Occurs only with…[1] cessation
  • Starts within…[2]
  • Include signs of…[3] and…[4]
  • Sleeping disorders with…[5]
  • GI signs include…[6,7]
  • In physical examination we can see…[8,9]
A
  1. Abrupt
  2. 1-2 weeks
  3. Anxiety
  4. Irritability
  5. Vivid dreams
  6. Abdominal pains
  7. Decreased appetite
  8. Tremor
  9. Sweating
312
Q

Hallucingoen abuse - LSD

  • Mechanism…[1]
  • Peak of acitivty is within…[2] and works for…[3]
  • Symptoms include:
    • …[4] pupils
    • Heart…[5,6]
    • Vision…[7]
    • Decreased…[8]
    • Physical examination show…[9,10]
  • Hallucinations are characterized by increased…[11]
    • Hallucinations can be of…[12-14]
  • In posioning treat with…[15] and try to avoid…[16]
    • In severe psychosis…[17,18] can be used
A
  1. Partial agoinst of the serotonin receptor 5HT2C
  2. 2-4 hours
  3. 12 hours
  4. Dilated
  5. Tachycardia
  6. Palpitations
  7. Blurred
  8. Coordination
  9. Tremor
  10. Sweating
  11. Sensation perception
  12. הילה
  13. Micropsia/Macropsia
  14. Geometric hallucinations
  15. BZD
  16. Antipsychotics
  17. Antipsychotics
  18. ECT
313
Q

Hallucinogen abuse - PCP

  • Mechanism…[1]
  • Characterized by…[2-5]
  • Symptoms include:
    • Decreased…[6] sensation
    • …[7] and…[8]
    • Muscle…[9]
    • …[10] which can in any direction
  • Treatment is with…[11] of the urine and…[12]
A
  1. Antagonist for NMDA recptors (glutaminergic system)
  2. Agression
  3. Impulsivity
  4. Agitation
  5. Lack of noise tolerance
  6. Pain
  7. Ataxia
  8. Dysarthria
  9. Stiffness
  10. Nystagmus
  11. Acidification
  12. Anti-psychotics
314
Q

Hallucinogen persistent perception disorder

A

חוויה מחדש של התסמינים שהיו בעת צריכת החומר

פלאשבקים: עיוות ויזואלי, הלוצינציות גיאומטריות, הזיות שמיעה, תפיסה שגויה של תנועה בשדה הפריפרי, הבזקי צבע, טריילניג, מיקרופסיה, מאקרופסיה, הופעת הילה סבב עצמים

פסיכיאטריה (3 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions