ZUKU Flashcards

1
Q

Which of the following is the correct location for placement of a proximal paravertebral block used to perform a standing laparotomy in a cow?

A - Caudal to the transverse processes of T13, L1, and L2
B - At the ends of the transverse processes of L1, L2, and L4
C - Midway between spine and the ends of the transverse processes of L1, L2, L3
D - In the spaces between L1, L2, L3, and L4
E - Above and below the transverse processes of L1, L2 and L4

A
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2
Q

Which nerve block would most specifically relieve lameness resulting from fracture of the navicular bone?

A - Median and ulnar
B - Palmar digital
C - Abaxial sesamoidean
D - Tibial and peroneal
E - Low four-point

A
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3
Q

The ova of mammals are fertilized in which structure?

A - Mesosalpinx
B - Oviduct
C - Ovarian bursa
D - Uterus
E - Cervix

A

Oviduct

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4
Q

A five-year-old female spayed cat is presented with a two-day history of vomiting and anorexia.
Physical exam reveals 5% dehydration and abdominal discomfort. Plain abdominal radiographs are shown below.
Which choice is the most appropriate step to take next?

A - Specific feline pancreatic-lipase assay
B - Exploratory laparotomy
C - Non-iodinated contrast series
D - Gastroduodenoscopy with biopsy
E - IV fluids and broad-spectrum antibiotics

A

Exploratory laparotomy

Exploratory lapartomy is the most appropriate next step for this linear foreign body. On the lateral radiographs, there is an area of the small intestine with very small gas bubbles where the walls of the small intestine appear undulating. In this cas, the linear foreign body was a bikini string.

A linear foreign body is a surgical emergency due to potential intestinal perforation and septic peritonitis. In severe cases, the “sawing action” of the linear foreign body against the intestinal mucosa can cause extensive damage requiring extensive resection and anastomosis. Occasionally, the intestinal damage is too extensive and euthanasia is the best course

If a definitive Dx is not evident on radiographs, consider abdominal ultrasound to further evaluate the GI tract

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5
Q

When a sow is giving birth, what is the shortest time interval between passage of piglets that indicates dystocia?

A - 1 hour
B - 15 minutes
C - 2 hours
D - 1/2 hour
E - 4 hours

A

A - 1 hour

Dystocia in the sow is present when one hour or more has passed between piglets

Intervention should be swift to prevent death of piglets from anoxia.

In sows, dystocia is often due to uterine inertia, similar to other animals that produce multiple offspring

Other causes include: fetal malposition, fetopelvic disproportion, obstruction of the pelvic canal, deviation of the uterus, and excitement in the dam

Medical therapy can be given with oxytocin and/or calcium only when an obstructive dystocia is not present

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6
Q

What recommendation should be given to the owner of a mare that has had Caslick’s vulvoplasty surgery?

A - Mare will need an episiotomy before foaling
B - Mare should not be bred by a stallion
C - Mare has a higher than normal risk for metritis
D - Mare has a decreased risk for perineal laceration
E - Higher risk of uterine torsion

A

A - Mare will need an episiotomy before foaling

The mare will need a episiotomy (a surgically planned incision on the perineum and the posterior vaginal wall) prior to foaling

Sometimes an episiotomy may be needed prior to breeding by stallion if the remaining vulvar cleft is too small to permit intromission

A Caslick operation (vulvoplasty, a superficial form of the episioplasty) is used to treat pneumovagina in horses to prevent genital infections and infertility

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7
Q

A red-colored urine sample is submitted. This could be due to hematuria, hemoglobinuria, or myoglobinuria.

Which one of the following is the easiest way to determine the difference between hematuria and myoglobinuria

A - Check color of serum
B - Spin down urine sample
C - Urine dipstick analysis
D - Evaluate smear slide for granular casts with a microscope
E - Check urinary protein to creatinine ratio

A

B - Spin down urine sample

The easiest way to differentiate between blood in the urine and myoglobinuria is to spin down the sample

Will get a pellet of red cells with normally colored urine if hematuria; urine will remain discolored if myoglobinuria/hemoglobinuria

Urine dipstick does NOT differentiate between the 3 main causes of red urine - hematuria, hemoglobinuria, and myoglobinuria

To differentiate between hematuria and hemoglobinuria, spin down a plasma sample

Plasma will remain pink if hemolysis present (causing hemoglobinuria)

Complete blood count and serum biochemistry analysis can also help differentiate

Will see increase in muscle enzymes (creatine kinase, aspartate aminotransferase) with myoglobinuria

May see increase in bilirubin with certain types of hemolysis

May see anemia with changes to the MCH/MCHC and hemolysis or urinary tract hemorrhage depending on severity and duration.

Lastly microscopic exam of urine sediment can also be used to identify red blood cells

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8
Q

A two-day-old pup has a GGT level of 500 times the adult upper reference range.
Which one of the following choices is the most likely interpretation?

A - Related to bone development
B - Due to colostrum absorption
C - Caused by traumatic placental detachment
D - Associated with neonatal cholestasis
E - Suggestive of a congenital liver shunt

A

B - Due to colostrum absorption

Very high GGT levels are seen with colostrum absorption. In newborn pups, lambs, and calves, an increase in GGT up to a 1000 times is normal when they receive high levels of colostrum from the dam

High levels of GGT are produced in the mammary epithelium during lactation. When evaluating bloodwork, reference ranges specific for the age of the patient should be utilized.

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9
Q

A five-month-old female beagle mix is presented with a three- to four-day history of mucopurulent ocular and nasal discharge and diarrhea.
On exam she is weak, particularly in her hind limbs, which are twitching rhythmically. On thoracic auscultation there are diffusely increased bronchovesicular sounds and her footpads and nasal planum are thickened and hard.
What is the top differential diagnosis?
Value Normal
T=104°F (40°C) 99.5°-102.5°F (37.2°-39.2°C)
HR=40 bpm 80-120
RR=40 brpm 15-34

A - Ehrlichia canis
B - Coronavirus infection
C - Lead poisoning with secondary aspiration pneumonia
D - Infectious canine hepatitis
E - Canine distemper

A

E - Canine distemper

The top differential for this patient is canine distemper. Respiratory, gastrointestinal, and neurologic signs with hyperkeratosis of the footpads or nasal planum (so-called “hardpad disease”) is almost pathognomonic.

Rx is supportive: Isolate, IV fluids if dehydrated, antibiotics to prevent/treat secondary respiratory or GI bacterial infections. However, development of central nervous system signs, as in this case, is a negative prognostic indicator.

Vaccination effectively confers protective immunity in most dogs, but those exposed to the virus prior to vaccination can still develop disease.

With Ehrlichia canis think fever, generalized lymphadenopathy, splenomegaly, and thrombocytopenia. May see stiffness, reluctance to walk, limb/scrotal edema, coughing or dyspnea

Canine herpes is a severe, often fatal diseae

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10
Q

During examination of a newborn male cria, adhesions between the free end of the penis and the prepuce are evident.
What is the most likely explanation?

A - Common congenital malformation of preputial ring, associated with phimosis
B - Normal finding
C - Failure of separation of preputial diverticulum
D - Sequella of hypospadias; Heritable
E - Secondary to stress in utero, 5th month

A

B - Normal Finding

Normal male crias (llamas) are born with adhesions between the free end of the penis and the prepuce. As they sexually mature these adhesions gradually detach, so puberty can be seen clinically when the penis can be exteriorized

Castration prior to puberty may result in continued adhesions. In peru, males are not generally used for breeding until 3 years of age

Male llamas reach puberty at approximately 21 months (rang 9 - 31). Alpacas mature earlier, around 12 months of age.

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11
Q

A five-year-old intact male Cocker Spaniel is presented after being hit by a car. Physical exam reveals severe lower back pain.

The dog is ambulatory but too fractious to examine reflexes or conscious proprioception.

The dog is sedated and carefully lateral radiographs are made of the lumbar spine. The radiograph is shown below.

What is your diagnosis?

A - Herniated discs
B - Discospondylitis
C - Hemivertebrae
D - Spinal fracture
E - Cauda equina syndrome

A

D - Spinal Fracture

The dorsal spinous processes of L4, L5, and L6 are fracture.

Spinal fractures can be very unstable so care must be used to prevent further injury of the spinal cores, especially in the sedated or anesthetized animal

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