Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Zoology > Zoology > Flashcards

Zoology Flashcards

1
Q

Where does the probably most intellegen intervertebrae belonge to

A: Scaphopoda

B: Gastropoda

C: Monophacopora

D: Cephalopoda

A

D: Cephalopoda

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Where do SAC (sea-squirt) animals belong?

A: Hemichordata

B: Prochordata

C: Chordata

D: Cephalochordata

A

B: Prochordata

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is characteristic of phylum Hemichordata:

A: Rostrum

B: Stomochord

C: Chorda dorsalis

D: Notochord

A

B: Stomochord

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Where do hagfish belong?

A: Acrina/Myxini

B: Vertebrata/Gnathosmata

C: Craniata/Agnatha

D: Agnata/Cyclostomata

A

C: Craniata/Agnatha

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Where do Lamprays belong?

A: Craniata/Vertebrata

B: Gnathosmata/Cyclostomata

C: Agnata/Myxini

D: Vertebrata/Gnathosmata

A

A: Craniata/Vertebrata

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Which fin can be regarded as a limb (extemity) ?

A: Dorsal Fin

B: Caudal Fin

C: Pelvic Fin

D: All Thre

A

C: Pelvic Fin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Wich is the most ancient type of scales (Characteristic of Chondrichthyes)?

A: Ganoid

B: Cosmoid

C: Placoid

D: Elasmoid

A

C: Placoid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What kind of bodycovering (epithelium) do actinopterygians have?

A: Horny Scales

B: Slightly Cornified

C: Waterproofed

D: Non-cornified

A

D: Non-cornified

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What is the approximate number of species in class Actinopterygii?

A: 9 700

B: 15 000

C: 6 400

D: 21 000

A

D: 21 000

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What is characteristic of Cyprinus Carpio?

A: Hardly produces urine

B: Does not drink

C: Drinks small amount

D: Drinks mutch

A

B: Does not drink

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is characteristic of Cod?

A: Does not drink

B: Drinks mutch

C: Drinks small amount

D: Produces mutch urine

A

B: Drinks mutch

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What structures may help the digestion of actinopterigians?

A: Spiral gut fold

B: Longitudinal gut fold

C: Pyloric caeca

D: All three

A

D: All three

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Wich can occur in Actinopterygians?

A: Sinus Venosus

B: Conus Arteriosus

C: Bulbus arteriosus

D: All three

A

D: All three

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What is the approximate number of reptilian species?

A: 6 400

B: 4 600

C: 4 400

D: 3 500

A

A: 6 400

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Which of the following occurs “first” in case of reptiles?

A: Disapperianse of sinous venous

B: Apperance of cornus arterious

C: Apparance of fetal membranes

D: All three

A

C: Apparance of fetal membranes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Whice of the following occurs “first” among classes in Phylum Craniata in case of reptiles?

A: Inner fertalization

B: All adults forms breath with lungs

C: Direct development

D: All three

A

B: All adults forms breath with lungs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What is characteristic of reptilian body covering?

A: Dermal scales

B: Epidermal osteoderma

C: Non of these

D: Both

A

C: Non of these

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What kind of skull type may existing squamous reptiles have?

A: Parapsid

B: Synapsid

C: Anapsid

D: Diapsid

A

D: Diapsid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What function may the cloaca of Tesudo spp. have?

A: Breathing

B: Drinking

C: None of these

D: Both

A

C: None of these

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What can the cloaca of birds serve for?

A: Copulation with everted urodeum

B: “Drinking”

C: Breathing

D: None of these

A

B: “Drinking”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What is the approximate number of avian species?

A: 11 000

B: 9 700

C: 8 000

D: 7 000

A

B: 9 700

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Where does Phasianus colchicus belong?

A: Columbiformers

B: Galliformes

C: Anseriformes

D: Paleognathae

A

B: Galliformes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Where do Anas -ssp belong?

A: Columbiformes

B: Paleognathae

C: Anseriformes

D: Galliformes

A

C: Anseriformes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Which of the following appears “first” in Phylum Craniata?

A: Liver

B: Metanephros

C: Pancreas

D: Homoiothermy

A

A: Liver

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

In which avian order may there be lymph node, copulatory organ, but usally there is no aftershaft?

A: Song of singing birds

B: Galliformes

C: Anseriformes

D: Columbiformes

A

C: Anseriformes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What is the approximate number of the mammalian species?

A: 4 000

B: 4 400

C: 4 600

D: 4 800

A

C: 4 600

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

In which order is there emmision of ultrasound?

A: Cetacea

B: Insectivora

C: Chiroptera

D: All three

A

D: All three

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What is the source of lifting force in case of bat “wings”?

A: Sternal Keel (crest)

B: Acute down-stroke

C: Light (pneumatic) bones

D: Curved patagium

A

B: Acute down-stroke

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What kind of aortic arch does mammalian have?

A: Double

B: Right

C: Left

D: Provided with conus aorticus

A

C: Left

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What is the number of teets (mammae) in placentials, in what arrangement?

A: 2-22 in two rows

B: 0-22 in two rows

C: 2-22 in a circle

D: 0-22 in a circle

A

A: 2-22 in two rows

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Which belongs to order Perissodactyla?

A: Camel

B: Tapir

C: Hippopotamus

D: All three

A

B: Tapir

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Which mammalian order has the highest number of species and individuals?

A: Primates

B: Artiodacthyla

C; Insectivora

D: Rodentia

A

D: Rodentia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What is the common feature of Lagomorphs and Rodents?

A: Duble incissures

B: Mandibula: Lack of symphisis

C: Caecotrophy

D: None of these

A

C: Caecotrophy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

How manny of the following traits mean difference between orders Cetacea and Pinnipedia: fur coat, blubber, weight bearing vertebral column, propulsive thrust by horizontal tail?

A: One of these

B: Two of these

C: Three of these

D: Four of these

A

C: Three of these

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Carnassials of carnivores are?

A: Lower-upper premolars

B: Canine teeth

C: Incissors

D: Non of these

A

D: Non of these

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What is written correctly?

A: Musca domestica

B: ctenocephalides

C: Muscidae

D: Ctenocephalides

A

D: Ctenocephalides

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

“The earliest name shoukd be used” Its the law of……

A: Nomenclature

B: Homonymia

C: Priority

D: Stability

A

C: Priority

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

“One particular name can be used only for one taxon” It means …

A: Homonymia

B: Priority

C: No Homonymia

D: Stability

A

C: No Homonymia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

What is NOT the right order?

A: Species - Genus - Family

B: Genus - Family - Order

C: Genus - Species - Family

D: Order - Class - Subphylum

A

C: Genus - Species - Family

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

“Binominal system” is based on ..

A: One name

B: Two names

C: Three names

D: Order

A

B: Two names

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Classification of organisms on the basis of their overall similarity is ..

A: Phenetics

B: Cladistics

C: Evolutionary cladistics

D: Evolutionary systematics

A

A: Phenetics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Whittaker recommended … Kingdoms

A: 5

B: 4

C: 3

D: 2

A

A: 5

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

“Geographical isolation; They show morphological difference but can still exhange genes when they meet and mate”

A: Biospecies

B: Genetic species

C: Subspecies

D: Sibling species

A

C: Subspecies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

“The modern science of classification is called”

A: Zoology

B: Phenetics

C: Cladistics

D: Biosystematics

A

D: Biosystematics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Which is not a taxonomic category?

A:Genera

B: Breed

C: Species

D: Order

A

B: Breed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Which order does the genus Trypanosoma belong to?

A: Diplomonadida

B: Kinetoplastida

C: Trichomonadida

D: Amoebida

A

B: Kinetoplastida

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Which order does the genus Leishmania belong to?

A: Kinetoplastida

B: Diplomonadida

C: Trichomonadida

D: Amoebida

A

C: Trichomonadida

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

What does the genus Giardia belong to?

A: Diplomonadida

B: Kinetoplastida

C: Amoebida

D: Trichomonadida

A

A: Diplomonadida

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Which order does the genus Eimeria belong to?

A: Diplomonadida

B: Trichomonadida

C: Amoebida

D: Non of these

A

D: Non of these

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Whice does not have cyst?

A: Trichomonas sp.

B: Entamoeba histolytica

C: Giardia sp.

D: Non of these

A

A: Trichomonas sp.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Which has cyst?

A: Babesia sp.

B: Trichomonas sp.

C: Giardia sp.

D: Plastmodium sp.

A

C: Giardia sp.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Which is the most important genus of coccidia with cyst formation?

A: Eimeria

B: Babesia

C: Plastmodium

D: Toxoplasma

A

A: Eimeria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Which of the genus belongs to cystogenic coccidia?

A: Eimeria

B: Plastmodium

C: Babesia

D: Toxoplasma

A

D: Toxoplasma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Which is the most important genus of haemosporinids?

A: Toxoplasma

B: Plastmodium

C: Babesia

D: Eimeria

A

B: Plastmodium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Which is the most important genus of piroplasms?

A: Eimeria

B: Babesia

C: Plastmodium

D: Toxoplasma

A

B: Babesia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Which develops also in blood-sucking arthropod vectors?

A: Plasmodium sp.

B: Babesia sp.

C: Trypanosoma sp.

D: All three

A

D: All three

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

Which group is the most closely related to cnidarians?

A: Myxoza

B: Porifera

C: Ctenophora

D: Microspora

A

A: Myxoza

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

In which class is the medusa stage absent?

A: Hydrozoa

B: Scyphozoa

C: Cubozoa

D: Anthozoa

A

D: Anthozoa

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

In which class is the polyp stage sometimes absent?

A: Anthozoa

B: Hydrozoa

C: Scaphozoa

D: Cubozoa

A

B: Hydrozoa

60
Q

In which class is the budding of the polyp stage terminal?

A: Hydrozoa

B: Cubozoa

C: Scyphozoa

D: Antozoa

A

C: Scyphozoa

61
Q

In which class is the budding of the polyp stage lateral?

A: Scyphozoa

B: Cubozoa

C: Hydrozoa

D: Anthozoa

A

C: Hydrozoa

62
Q

What is the approximate number of species in Phylum Platyhelminthes?

A: 25 000

B: 11 000

C: 10 000

D: 3 000

A

A: 25 000

63
Q

Which category do flatworms belong to?

A: Pseudocoelomata

B: Deuterostomia

C: Eucoelomata

D: Bilateralia

A

D: Bilateralia

64
Q

What kind of gut do cestodes have?

A: One Branch (Tube)

B: Two-Branched (blind ending)

C: Three-branched

D: No gut

A

D: No gut

65
Q

What kind of gut does Trematodes have?

A: One branch (tube)

B: Two-branched (blind ending)

C: Three-branched

D: No gut

A

B: Two-branched (blind ending)

66
Q

Where does coracidum develop?

A: In worm uterus

B: In intermediate host

C: In exterior

D: In gravid segment

A

C: In exterior

67
Q

In which category is the six-hooked oncosphere the first stage larva?

A: Class Pseudophyllidea

B: Order Cyclophyllidea

C: Order Pseudophyllidea

D: Class Cyclophyllidea

A

B: Order Cyclophyllidea

68
Q

How manny ovaries does an adult Taenia usally have?

A: One

B: Two

C: Few

D: Hundreds

A

D: Hundreds

69
Q

In which class is there pseudocoelome (primary, false body cavity)?

A: Rotatoria

B: Nematoda

C: Acanthocephalia

D: All three

A

D: All three

70
Q

Males of which group have always copulatory bursa?

A: Adenophorea

B: Strongylida

C: Secernentea

D: Nematoda

A

B: Strongylida

71
Q

Approximatly how manny described species do nematodes have?

A: 200 000

B: 20 000

C: 2 000

D: 200

A

B: 20 000

72
Q

What is approximatly number of nematodes significant from the veterinary point of view?

A: 200 000

B: 20 000

C: 2 000

D: 200

A

D: 200

73
Q

Into which category does the largest species of the following groups belong to?

A: Nematoda

B: Rotatoria

C: Cestoda

D: Acanthocephalia

A

C: Cestoda

74
Q

What can be found in buccal capsule of nematodes?

A: Tooth

B: Protostylus

C: Leaf Crown

D: Radule

A

A: Tooth

75
Q

Where does Lumbricus terrestris belong to?

A: Subclass Hirudinea

B: Class Hirudinea

C: Subclass Oligochaeta

D: Class Oligichaeta

A

C: Subclass Oligochaeta

76
Q

What kind of feeding apparatus may leeches have?

A: Piercing snout

B: Citinous jaws

C: Muscular pharynx

D: All three

A

D: All three

77
Q

What is characteristic of Lumbricus terrestris?

A: Heteronom segmentation

B: External fertilization

C: Chaetae (bristles) in bunches

D: Unlayered clitellum

A

B: External fertilization

78
Q

In which category/categories can the absence if shell be observed?

A: Aplacophora

B: Gastropoda

C: Cephalopoda

D: All three

A

D: All three

79
Q

Kairimons are responsible for the following communications?

A: Interspecific

B: Intraspecific

C: Infraspecific

D: Supraspecific

A

A: Interspecific

80
Q

Feromons are resposible for the following communications?

A: Interspecific

B: Intraspecific

C: Intraspecific

D: Supraspecific

A

B: Intraspecific

81
Q

What is the name of the following life cycle, ¨egg-larva-pupa-adult¨

A: Epimorphosis

B: Anamorphosis

C: Holometamorphosis

D: Hemimetamorphosis

A

C: Holometamorphosis

82
Q

What is the name of the following life cycle, ¨egg-larva-nymph(s)-adult¨

A: Incomplete metamorphosis

B: Epimorphosis

C: Metamorphosis

D: Anamorphosis

A

A: Incomplete metamorphosis

83
Q

What is class?

A: Hexapoda

B: Myriapoda

C: Arachnida

D: Crustacea

A

C: Arachnida

84
Q

Chelicerae are found in

A: Flies

B: Bugs

C: Lice

D: Ticks

A

D: Ticks

85
Q

Psudoscorpions belongs to

A: Hexapoda

B: Insecta

C: Myriapoda

D: Arachnida

A

D: Arachnida

86
Q

Ixodes ricinus belongs to

A: Fleas

B: Soft Ticks

C: Hard Ticks

D: Mange Mites

A

C: Hard Ticks

87
Q

The latin name for Red mite is

A: Dermanyssus gallinae

B: Argas persicus

C: Melophagus ovinus

D: Ixodes ricinus

A

A: Dermanyssus gallinae

88
Q

Mites of Psoroptidae family are?

A: Burrowing

B: Non-burrowing

C: Flies

D: Blood-sucking

A

B: Non-burrowing

89
Q

Ctenocephalides felis belong to

A: Mites

B: Flies

C: Soft ticks

D: Fleas

A

D: Fleas

90
Q

The head is narrower than the thorax

A: Blood-sucking lice

B: Biting lice

C: Chewing lice

D: Bettle

A

A: Blood-sucking lice

91
Q

Blood feeding behaviour of tabnids can be seen amongst

A: Both sex

B: Females

C: Males

D: Larvae

A

B: Females

92
Q

It is a blood-suckling species

A: Musca domestica

B: Oestrus Ovis

C: Stomoxy calicitrans

D: Hypoderma bovis

A

C: Stomoxy calicitrans

93
Q

Life cycle of fleas is

A: Anamorphosis

B: Incomplete metamorphopsis

C: Epimorphosis

D: Metamorphosis

A

D: Metamorphosis

94
Q

The honey bee belongs to

A: Lepidoptera

B: Hymenoptera

C: Diptera

D: Siphonaptera

A

B: Hymenoptera

95
Q

Species of Simuliidae family are

A: Sand flies

B: Mosquitoes

C: Blackflies

D: Tsetse flies

A

C: Blackflies

96
Q

You cannot find pupal stage in the life cycle of

A: Lice

B: Mosquitos

C: Fleas

D: Flies

A

A: Lice

97
Q

Blood feeding behavior of tsetse flies can be seen amongst

A: Larvas

B: Males

C: Females

D: Both sexes

A

D: Both sexes

98
Q

The name of the sheep ked is

A: Psoroptes ovis

B: Melophagus ovinus

C: Lucilia sericata

D: Argas periscus

A

B: Melophagus ovinus

99
Q

Where can you find two sets of antennae?

A: Crustacea

B: Arachnida

C: Myriapoda

D: Insecta

A

A: Crustacea

100
Q

Copepods, Descapoda and crabs belonges to

A: Arachnida

B: Insecta

C: Crustacea

D: Hexapoda

A

C: Crustacea

101
Q

Which is hard thick

A: Culex pipines

B: Stomoxys calicitrans

C: Argas reflexus

D: Dermacentor reticulatus

A

D: Dermacentor reticulatus

102
Q

Which is NOT among the three basic types of selection

A: Stabilzing

B: Directional

C: Bilateral

D: Disruptive

A

C: Bilateral

103
Q

Who raised the possibility of heritability concerning acqired traits?

A: Lamarck

B: Wegener

C: Hardy-Weinberg

D: Darwin

A

A: Lamarck

104
Q

What can be explan the heritability of aquired traits?

A: Four chromosomal changes

B: Mutation

C: Endosymbiotic theory

D: Epigenetics

A

D: Epigenetics

105
Q

Which of the following increases the genetic variation in a population?

A: Selection

B: Mutation

C: Genetic drift

D: Assorative mating

A

B: Mutation

106
Q

What kind of isolating mechanism is exemplified by seasonal differences between eastern and western hedgehogs?

A: Immunological

B: Mechanical

C: Ethological

D: Ecological

A

D: Ecological

107
Q

What does parasitsm generally evolve toward

A: Commensalism

B: Symbiosis

C: Higher pathogenicity

D: Uneven distribution

A

A: Commensalism

108
Q

What kind of transmission is usally characteristic of diarrhogenic pathogens?

A: Vector-borne

B: Vertical

C: Waterborne

D: Attendant-borne

A

C: Waterborne

109
Q

What kind of transmission is usally characteristic for pathogens causing abortion

A: Waterborne

B: Vector-borne

C: Vertical

D: Attendant-borne

A

C: Vertical

110
Q

Which of the following may reduce the pathogenicity of a diarrhogenic agent?

A: Introducing uncontaminated drinking water

B: Customs in traiding

C: Customs in travelling

D:Frequent hunting

A

A: Introducing uncontaminated drinking water

111
Q

Of which disease is the shedding of large amounts of pathogens characteristic?

A: Attendant-borne

B: Waterborne

C: Vector-borne

D: Directly transmitted

A

B: Waterborne

112
Q

The general physical place in the invironment where a certain kind of organism resides is

A: Habitat

B: Niche

C: Fundamental niche

D Realised Niche

A

A: Habitat

113
Q

The potential range of all biotic and abiotic conditions under which an organism can make a living is called its

A: Fundamental niche

B: Realised niche

C: Niche

D: Habitat

A

A: Fundamental niche

114
Q

Interaction with other spescies forces species to live in their..

A: Funfamental niche

B: Realised niche

C: Niche

D: Habitat

A

B: Realised niche

115
Q

Realised is ……. fundamental niche

A: In no relation to the

B: More limited then

C: Less limited then

D: Equally limited as

A

B: More limited then

116
Q

Beneficial for the first, and harmfull for the second participating population is true for…

A: Mutualism

B: Commensalism

C: Amensalism

D: Predation

A

D: Predation

117
Q

Neutral for the first and beneficial for the second participating pupulation is true for…

A: Detritivory

B: Parasitism

C: Herbivory

D: Amensalism

A

A: Detritivory

118
Q

Harmfull for both participating population is true for…

A: Predation

B: Commensalism

C: Competition

D: Amensalism

A

C: Competition

119
Q

The process as a population extincts due to the competition with an other population is called..

A: Competetitive exclution

B: Resource partitioning

C: Character displlacement

D: Niche segregation

A

A: Competetitive exclution

120
Q

Dominance of intraspecific over interspecific competittion enhances….directly

A: Competitive exclusion

B: Character displacement

C: Coexistence

D: Niche segregation

A

C: Coexistence

121
Q

The typical frequency distribution pattern of parasites whitin the host population is:

A: Even

B: Uneven

C: Overdispersed

D: Random

A

C: Overdispersed

122
Q

Which model describes most appropriately the population growth?

A: Clements hypothesis

B: Exponential modell

C: Logistic modell

D: Gleason hypothesis

A

C: Logistic modell

123
Q

Exponential growth model…

A: Does not presume an ideal population

B: Does not consider carrying capacity of the environment

C: Considers interaction between populations

D: Considers the carrying capacity of the environment

A

B: Does not consider carrying capacity of the environment

124
Q

Which factor is density-independent?

A: Earthquake

B: Competition

C: Predation

D: Parasitism

A

A: Earthquake

125
Q

Which does not belong to population dynamics?

A: Generation time

B: Age structure

C: Cost-benefit analysis

D: Exponential modell

A

C: Cost-benefit analysis

126
Q

For which strategy is small body, lots of offspring and a short lifetime span characteristic?

A: K-selected

B: k-selected

C: R-relected

D: r-selected

A

D: r-selected

127
Q

Which one is decomposer?

A: Fungus

B: Ant

C: Moss

D: Tick

A

A: Fungus

128
Q

Can the phytoplankton be primary producer?

A: Yes, because it is photosyntetic

B: No, because it is heterotrophic

C: No, because it is aitotrophic

D: No, because it is not photosynthetic

A

A: Yes, because it is photosyntetic

129
Q

Which ddoes not include antibiotic (physical) environment?

A: Ecosystem

B: Biome

C: Biosphere

D: Population

A

D: Population

130
Q

Which is NOT the effect of agriculture?

A: Algabloom

B: Thinning of ozone layer

C: Biomagnification

D: Monocultures

A

B: Thinning of ozone layer

131
Q

Which trophic level is the most importaint in recycling biological elements?

A: Decomposer

B: Primary producers

C: Primary consumers

D: Top predators

A

A: Decomposer

132
Q

…. are respocible for forming of a behaviour

A: Innate and learned traits togheter

B:Genetic factors

C: Learned traits

D: Environmental factors

A

A: Innate and learned traits togheter

133
Q

What is habituation?

A: Fixed-action pattern

B: Getting used to something

C: Symbolic action

D: Ritualisation

A

B: Getting used to something

134
Q

Fixed-action pattern….

A: Is learned trait

B: Can be observed only in birds

C: Is trigged by a key stimulus

D: Is not affected by evolution

A

C: Is trigged by a key stimulus

135
Q

Which is not operant conditioning?

A: Learning in Skinner box

B: Self-recognition in mirror

C: Trial and error learning

D: Choosing between bad and good tasting food

A

B: Self-recognition in mirror

136
Q

The agressive behaviour of male sticklebacks with other males is…

A: Altruism

B: Fixed-action pattern

C: Supernormal stimulus

D: Habituation

A

B: Fixed-action pattern

137
Q

Which is NOT true for behaviour ecology?

A: Examines the adaptive value of a behaviour

B: Considers evolutionary factors

C: Performs cost-benefit analyses

D: Examines the mechanisms of behaviour forms

A

D: Examines the mechanisms of behaviour forms

138
Q

What is cooperative hunting?

A: Aggression

B:Habituation

C: Social behaviour

D: Alturism

A

C: Social behaviour

139
Q

During ritualisation…..

A: Agression icreases

B: There is a symbolic action

C: There is a fight for life

D: Only the alpha-male is benefited

A

B: There is a symbolic action

140
Q

Which decreases the agressive fight?

A: Territorial behaviour

B: Predation

C: Parasitism

D: Fitness

A

A: Territorial behaviour

141
Q

During courtship of sticklebacks….

A: The main goal is not reproduction

B: There are no genetically determined traits

C: Apperance of the female is a key stimulus

D: Altrism can be observed

A

C: Apperance of the female is a key stimulus

142
Q

Of which is development indirect?

A: Class Monogenea

B: Class Turbellaria

C: Fasciole Hepatica

D: Non of these

A

B: Class Turbellaria​

143
Q

In which class is the circulation closed?

A: Cephalopoda

B: Secernentea

C: Scaphopoda

D: Gastropoda

A

A: Cephalopoda

144
Q

What is the approximate size of a Trypanosome?

A: 10-40µm

B: 50-100µm

C: 1-2µm

D: 0,5-1µm

A

A: 10-40µm

145
Q
A

Zoology (1 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions