Zone of Forgetting Flashcards

1
Q

A change in rxn condition that has no affect on Le Chatelier’s Principle

A

Addition of a catalyst; only affects the rate at which equilibrium is reached, not the position itself

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2
Q

Gases become ___ soluble when heated and most salts become ___ soluble when heated.

A

Gases become less soluble when heated and most salts become more soluble when heated.

(directly proportional)

Gases become more soluble when temperature is decreased and most salts become less soluble when temperature is decreased.

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3
Q

Rate is to kinetics as low stability is to

A

thermodynamics

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4
Q

increase in products inhibits transcription

A

transcriptional negative feedback regulation

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5
Q

inhibitor binds to non-active site to influence enzyme activity

A

allosteric regulation

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6
Q

product-suppressed gene that created it

A

product gene suppression regulation

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7
Q

inherited in a recessive fashion means

A

female can have one copy and just carry. Y can have disease if mom is a carrier

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8
Q

uses mRNA as a template to make proteins

A

reverse transcriptase

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9
Q

disease skips a generation

A

recessive

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10
Q

disease does not skip a generation

A

dominant

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11
Q

cDNA is

A

copy DNA

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12
Q

exons =

A

coding

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13
Q

introns =

A

non-coding

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14
Q

exons get strung together to make

A

proteins

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15
Q

peptide bonds form two

A

amino acids

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16
Q

type of bonding of disulfide bonds

A

covalent; S-S

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17
Q

glycosidic linkage joins two

A

sugars

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18
Q

situationships -> weak attractive forces between molecules close in proximity to one another

A

Van der Waals forces

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19
Q

cysteine contains a ____ side chain

A

thiol

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20
Q

serine contains a ____ side chain

A

hydroxyl

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21
Q

charge of lysine

A

+1

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22
Q

contains a polar hydroxyl group and a non-polar aromatic ring; very important for tyrosine derived hormones

A

tyrosine

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23
Q

will visualize the thiols in a rxn and nothing else making it impossible to see if a rxn occurred

A

anti-thiol antibodies

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24
Q

binds to biotin then passes through column leading to separation and detection

A

advin, streptavidin

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25
Q

separation of proteins based on size

A

western blot

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26
Q

separates molecular identity based on mass to charge ratio

A

mass spectroscopy

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27
Q

thiolates are the deprotonated form of

A

thiols

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28
Q

increase in pKA, ____ in acid strength

A

decrease

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29
Q

decrease in pKA, ____ in acid strength

A

increase

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30
Q

one or more hydroxyl groups attached to benzene

A

phenol

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31
Q

gains electrons (bonds) and is reduced

A

oxidizing agent (OIL RIG)

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32
Q

loses electrons (bonds) and is oxidized

A

reducing agent (OIL RIG)

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33
Q

adding -H is

A

reduction (being oxidized)

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34
Q

removing -H is

A

oxidation (being reduced)

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35
Q

increase catalytic sites will ____ total enzyme concentration

A

increase

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36
Q

the catabolic breakdown of fatty acids

A

beta oxidation

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37
Q

yield of ATP from one round of beta-oxidation

A

14 ATP

FADH2 = 1.5 ATP
NADH = 2.5 ATP
Acetyl CoA = 10 ATP

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38
Q
A

beta oxidation of fatty acids

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39
Q

glucogenic AA incorporate into the Krebs cycle through

A

conversion into krebs intermediate or pyruvate; ultimately converted to glucose

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40
Q

ketogenic AA enter Krebs through

A

conversion into acetyl-CoA a precursor to citrate

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41
Q

independent variable

A

(x) cause

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42
Q

dependent variable

A

(y) effect

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43
Q

the main source of energy for cells and vital part of aerobic respiration

A

tricarboxylic acid cycle: TCA

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44
Q

Determining the concentration factor of a proteasome and substrate requires calculating

A

the ratio of the substrate to the proteasome

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45
Q

equation to calculate kcat

A

kcat= Vmax/[E]

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46
Q

Excitation of bound electrons occurs with

A

absorption of UV light by organic molecules

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47
Q

Column chromatography using silica gel will separate based on _____. The ______ ______ compound will elute first.

A

Column chromatography using silica gel will separate based on polarity. The least polar compound will elute first.

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47
Q

The half-life of a radioactive material is

A

the time it takes for half of all the radioactive nuclei to decay into their daughter nuclei.

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47
Q

The tertiary structure is the structure of the ____ protein.

A

fully folded

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47
Q

The phosphate furthest away from the ribose in ATP is called

A

gamma

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47
Q

Phosphorylation to a non-charged amino acid will result in a _____ charged molecule

A

negatively

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48
Q

Less unfolding of a protein means more

A

stability

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48
Q

What are the structural features possessed by storage lipids?

A

Three fatty acids ester-linked to a single glycerol

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49
Q

In an electrochemical cell, oxidation, a loss of electrons, always occurs at the ______, and ______ occurs at the cathode.

A

anode, reduction

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50
Q

Half reactions of Zn and Cu in electrochemical cell

A
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51
Q

If Keq > 1, then ΔG° < 0 because

A

ΔG° = –RT(lnK).

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52
Q

adding acid to reactants containing a base with decrease reactant concentration and shift equilibrium to the

A

left

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53
Q

the coordination number is the number of atoms bonded to

A

a central atom

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54
Q

NH3 is a stronger Lewis base than H2O because

A

the nitrogen atom is less electronegative than the oxygen atom.

This results in the oxygen atom having a stronger attraction for its lone pairs of electrons, making them less available for donation and H2O less Lewis basic than NH3.

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55
Q

second ionization energy of alkaline earth metals is

A

small

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56
Q

The dissolution of CaCO3 is CaCO3(s) ⇌ Ca2+(aq) + CO32–(aq) and the solubility product constant expression is Ksp = [Ca2+] [CO32–] . Equal amounts of Ca2+ and CO32– are produced when CaCO3 dissolves in solution, so the expression reduces to

A

x2 = 4.9 × 10–9, which is equal to 49 × 10–10. Taking the square root, x = 7.0 × 10–5 M.

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57
Q

The systolic blood pressure, which is the pressure exerted on the blood vessel walls when the heart is contracting, was 130 mmHg. Blood flow will be heard if

A

the blood pressure during systole is greater than the pressure in the cuff. Consequently, when the pressure in the cuff is greater than 130 mmHg, blood flow will not be heard.

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58
Q

Purines base pair with

A

pyrimidines. Purines do not base pair with purines, and pyrimidines do not base pair with pyrimidines.

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59
Q

One DNA strand begins at the 5ʹ-end and ends at the 3ʹ-end, and the complementary DNA strand is oriented

A

in the opposite direction (3ʹ to 5ʹ).

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60
Q

Sugar phosphate backbones form the

A

exterior of the double helix.

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61
Q

A glass rod is rubbed with a silk scarf producing a charge of +3.2 × 10–9 C on the rod. (Recall that the magnitude of the proton and electron charges is 1.6 × 10–19 C.) The glass rod has:

A

The number of charges in excess can be computed as +3.2 × 10−9 C/1.6 × 10−19 C = +2.0 × 1010. This means that the rod has an excess of positive charge created by removing a number of 2.0 × 1010 electrons from the material, as it is not possible to add protons in a manner described in this option.

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62
Q

Because one guanine must match with one cytosine in DNA base pairing, there will be _____ amounts of each.

A

equal

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63
Q

The strength of a bond is directly proportional to its

A

bond energy, with shorter bonds being stronger than longer bonds. Based on the data provided in the passage, the C–H bond has the largest bond energy and, thus, the shortest bond length.

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64
Q

The value of ΔH° can be calculated using the data provided using Hess’s Law

A

(the sum of ΔH°f products) – (the sum of ΔH°f reactants).

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65
Q

At STP, the volume of N2(g) produced by the complete decomposition of 1 mole of nitroglycerin would be closest to which of the following?

4C3H5N3O9(l) → 12CO2(g) + 10H2O(g) + 6N2(g) + O2(g)

A

According to the balanced reaction given in the passage, for every 4 moles of nitroglycerin consumed, 6 moles of N2(g) are produced. Therefore, for every 1 mole of nitroglycerin, 1.5 moles of N2(g) are produced. At STP, the molar volume of an ideal gas is 22.4 L*mol–1, which means that 1.5 moles of N2 will occupy 33.6 L.

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66
Q

there is no difference in electronegativity between the identical atoms and therefore there is no

A

polarity

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66
Q
A
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67
Q

The power consumed is

A

P = ΔPE /time = mgh/Δt

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68
Q

The work done is defined as

A

W = 0.5kx2

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69
Q

The relative intensities of the two sound waves are 20 dB and 40 dB, respectively. Their difference is 20 dB, meaning that the decimal log of the ratio of their intensities

A

is 2, which means that the ratio of their intensities is 10^2 = 100.

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70
Q

The lenses have a negative focal length, which means they are diverging lenses. Such lenses form

A

virtual and reduced images of objects situated at distances larger than the focal length.

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71
Q

what takes place in a battery-powered resistive circuit when the current is flowing?

A

The chemical energy of the battery elements is used as electrical energy to set the charge carriers in motion through the resistor, where they experience drag from the crystal lattice of the resistive conductor and dissipate their energy as heat from the resistor.

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72
Q

Protein secondary structure is characterized by the pattern of hydrogen bonds between:

A

Secondary structure includes turns, helices, and beta sheets, all of which are established by hydrogen bonds between backbone amide protons and carbonyl oxygens.

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73
Q
A

The equivalent resistance is equal to ​the fraction with numerator 1 and denominator 1 over 20 normal Omega plus 1 over 60 normal Omega equals the fraction with numerator 1 and denominator 4 over 60 normal Omega equals the fraction with numerator 1 and denominator 1 over 15 normal Omega equals 15 normal Omega​.

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74
Q

GI cells are highly

A

proliferative and undergo continuous mitosis

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75
Q

Adipocytes do not undergo continuous

A

mitosis, but they do change in size based on environment

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76
Q

Nerve cells are post-mitotic cells that do not typically undergo

A

cell division in adult mammals.

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77
Q

Early in development, cardiac muscle cells are

A

proliferative. However, as an organism reaches adulthood, mitotic capacity of such cells is decreased.

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78
Q

Disulfide bonds link cysteine residues intra- or intermolecularly and are not involved in

A

linking of nucleotides in DNA molecules.

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79
Q

Within DNA molecules, hydrogen bonds do not connect nucleotides within DNA backbone. They connect the

A

two antiparallel strands by making interactions between complementary base pairs.

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80
Q

Peptide bonds link amino acids with a polypeptide chain and do not participate in

A

DNA.

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81
Q

The DNA backbone is formed by

A

phosphodiester linkage between deoxyribonucleotide molecules.

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82
Q

purines have a _________ structure, while pyrimidines have a _______ structure

A

purines have a double-ring structure (adenine and guanine), while pyrimidines have a single-ring structure (cytosine, thymine, and uracil)

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83
Q

In solution, a strong acid with readily donate ______ and a strong base will readily ________ from other compounds

A

In solution, a strong acid with readily donate protons and a strong base will readily deprononate from other compounds

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84
Q

to compensate for the decreased ETC-mediated ATP, glycolytic flux must be

A

increased

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85
Q

Phosphofructokinase is the main regulatory enzyme of glycolysis and, as such, it is regulated both _______ as well as by a ___________ by the final glycolytic product, ATP.

A

Phosphofructokinase is the main regulatory enzyme of glycolysis and, as such, it is regulated both allosterically as well as by a negative feedback loop by the final glycolytic product, ATP.

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86
Q

Osmosis refers to the movement of

A

water, not ions such as chlorine, from a low solute to a high solute solution.

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87
Q

Diffusion refers to the movement of a solute from an area of ________ ________ to an area of ________ ________ . However, when chlorine moves from pond water into the algae cell, it is moving from an area of low concentration to an area of high concentration.

A

Diffusion refers to the movement of a solute from an area of high concentration to an area of low concentration. However, when chlorine moves from pond water into the algae cell, it is moving from an area of low concentration to an area of high concentration.

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88
Q

Active transport mechanisms use energy in the form of ATP to transport solutes such as chlorine from an area of ________ ________ to an area of ________ ________ . In this instance, chlorine is being transported from the pond water, where it has a low concentration, to the cytoplasm of an algae cell, where it has a high concentration.

A

Active transport mechanisms use energy in the form of ATP to transport solutes such as chlorine from an area of low concentration to an area of high concentration. In this instance, chlorine is being transported from the pond water, where it has a low concentration, to the cytoplasm of an algae cell, where it has a high concentration.

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89
Q

Facilitated diffusion utilizes transport proteins to promote the diffusion of a solute like chlorine from an area of ________ ________ to an area of ________ ________ . However, when moving from the pond water into an algae cell, chlorine is moving from an area of low concentration to an area of high concentration.

A

Facilitated diffusion utilizes transport proteins to promote the diffusion of a solute like chlorine from an area of high concentration to an area of low concentration. However, when moving from the pond water into an algae cell, chlorine is moving from an area of low concentration to an area of high concentration.

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90
Q

inhibiting voltage-gated potassium channels with would delay the repolarization phase of the action potential. This would lead to prolongation of the

A

action potential.

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91
Q

At a pH below a protein’s isoelectric point (pI), the charge is

A

positive

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92
Q

At a pH above a protein’s isoelectric point (pI), the charge is

A

negative

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93
Q

The passage indicates that β-catenin can activate expression of Wnt target genes. To do this, Wnt target genes need to be transcribed. The figure also shows that β-catenin activates transcription factors for Wnt target genes. This suggests that β-catenin acts in

A

the nucleus. Typically, proteins that act in the nucleus contain a nuclear localization sequence, which is one possible mechanism by which proteins can enter the nucleus. Thus, according to the passage, β-catenin could contain a nuclear localization sequence.

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94
Q

Ubiquitination marks proteins for degradation by a

A

proteasome

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95
Q

The reversible interconversion of glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate and 1,3-bisphosphoglycerate during glycolysis and gluconeogenesis is catalyzed by the enzyme

A

glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate dehydrogenase

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96
Q

Histon acetylation is a post-translational modification and therefore it can be detected by

A

western blots

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97
Q

RT-PCR is a method to analyze changes in protein expression at transcriptional levels and are not appropriate for studies of

A

protein modification.

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98
Q

Southern blots are not an appropriate method to study post-translational modifications such as protein acetylation. They are primarily utilized to study

A

DNA molecules.

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99
Q

Northern blots are used to study

A

RNAs, not protein modifications

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100
Q

the hormone vasopressin is released during periods of dehydration, which increases expression of aquaporins in the

A

collecting ducts.

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101
Q

________ are misfolded variants of a protein that can cause misfolding when interacting with normally folded variants of the same protein. Upon infection, prions lead to disease in a host organism.

A

Prions

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102
Q

endocytosis (active transport) causes the plasma membrane of the cell to form a pocket around the target particle. The pocket pinches off into a intracellular vesicle containing the particle and merges with lysosome in newly formed compartment called an

A

endosome

cells that take in viruses through endocytosis do so through the use of endosomes

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103
Q

Function of proteases

A

Proteases degrade proteins

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104
Q

Under anaerobic conditions, only ___ net moles of ATP are generated from each mole of glucose.

A

2

Therefore, after consumption of 5 moles of glucose, 10 net moles of ATP are generated. Since each mole contains about 6 × 1023 molecules, it follows that under anaerobic conditions, consumption of 5 moles of glucose yields 6 × 1024.

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105
Q

Both human sperm and egg cells are ______, meaning that they contain one copy of each chromosome. This contrasts with most somatic cells, which are _______, meaning they contain two copies of each chromosome.

A

Both human sperm and egg cells are haploid, meaning that they contain one copy of each chromosome. This contrasts with most somatic cells, which are diploid, meaning they contain two copies of each chromosome.

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106
Q

Actin is a protein that forms

A

cytoskeletal microfilaments.

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107
Q

Tubulin is a cytoskeletal protein that makes up

A

microtubules, not microfilaments.

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108
Q

Ribosomes are responsible for

A

protein synthesis.

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109
Q

Krebs cycle enzymes are typically positioned in the

A

mitochondria, not lysosomes.

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110
Q

RNA and DNA polymerases are typically positioned in the

A

nucelus

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111
Q

Lysosomes are organelles with an acidic lumen that is enriched with

A

digestive enzymes

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112
Q

Centrosomes are organelles that serve as the

A

primary microtubule organizing center of a cell. As such, melanosomes most likely move along microtubules produced by and radiating from, the centrosome.

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113
Q

Kinetochores are proteins positioned at the

A

centromere of a chromosome. Kinetochores can attach microtubules, but do not produce microtubules.

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114
Q

The Golgi apparatus is an organelle often positioned near the

A

centrosome, which produces microtubules. However, the Golgi apparatus is not the primary site for the generation of microtubules.

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115
Q

Microfilaments are ______ _______ distinct from microtubules. Microfilaments do not produce microtubules.

A

cytoskeletal elements

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116
Q

Cytotoxic T lymphocytes (CTLs) are responsible for

A

killing cells in the body that may have been infected with a pathogen (such as a virus) or have become cancerous. One way in which CTLs target virus-infected cells is by binding to viral antigens presented on the surface of such cells.

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117
Q

Where in the human male reproductive system do the gametes become motile and capable of fertilization?

A

Epididymis

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118
Q

During the cross-bridge cycle, ATP is needed to allow myosin detachment from an actin filament. Consequently, when ATP is unavailable, the myosin head remains attached to an

A

actin filament. This maintains the muscle in a contracted state.

119
Q

A ___ ___ schedule of reinforcement provides the reinforcer after a consistent number of target behaviors.

A

fixed ratio

120
Q

A ___ ___ schedule of reinforcement provides the reinforcer after a varying number of target responses, which varies around a predetermined average.

A

variable ratio

121
Q

A ___ ___ schedule of reinforcement provides the reinforcer when the target behavior is performed for the first time after a consistent interval of time has elapsed.

A

fixed interval

122
Q

A ___ ___ schedule of reinforcement provides the reinforcer when the target behavior is performed for the first time after a varying interval of time has elapsed.

A

variable interval

123
Q

A source monitoring error is when memory derived from one source is

A

misattributed to another source.

124
Q

Dissociative amnesia is a dissociative disorder where individuals cannot recall

A

important autobiographical information, usually related to a trauma or stressor

125
Q

Operant conditioning is a form of learning which occurs when

A

changes in behavior occur due to previously experienced outcomes for that behavior. Behaviors which are rewarded increase in frequency. Thus, if increases in dopamine activity increase reward-seeking motivation, this would have an impact on operant learning.

126
Q

Classical conditioning is a form of learning which occurs when

A

a previously neutral stimulus acquires the capacity to evoke a response that was originally evoked by another stimulus.

127
Q

Latent learning is learning which takes place in the absence of

A

reinforcement or punishment.

128
Q

Relative poverty refers to social disadvantage by income or wealth as compared to

A

the social advantages linked to income or wealth in a society.

129
Q

Marginal poverty stems from unstable employment conditions for an individual in which they cannot

A

achieve minimum standards of living.

130
Q

Absolute poverty is an economic condition in which individuals cannot

A

meet their basic needs.

131
Q

The socioeconomic gradient in health refers to the graded relationship between

A

social class and health, in which each “step” up on the hierarchy of social stratification tends to be associated with better health.

132
Q

The fundamental attribution error refers to the tendency to attribute other people’s behavior to internal, stable traits, rather than

A

situational factors.

Ranking personality factors (which are internal and stable) above environmental factors (which are situational) is an example of making the fundamental attribution error.

133
Q

Social desirability is the tendency for participants to give responses which they think are

A

more socially acceptable, instead of choosing responses which are reflective of their true feelings.

134
Q

Conflict theory focuses on

A

social inequalities.

Stratification indicates that certain communities experience unequal access to resources and opportunities in a society. Therefore, disparities in access to SUD treatment among different social groups as discussed in the passage would be most consistent with a conflict perspective.

135
Q

Gentrification refers to the

A

displacement of low-income residents in a neighborhood due to increasing property value.

136
Q

Research on social loafing and related phenomenon support that

A

participants working alone will generate more alternatives than those working in groups.

137
Q

According to Freud, infants in the first year of life are in

A

the oral stage of development.

138
Q

This supports groupthink being defined by processes of

A

conformity and failures to critically evaluate alternatives and options.

139
Q

Interference is when some information in memory interferes with

A

the encoding, consolidation, or retrieval of other information.

140
Q

Functionalism makes a distinction between

A

manifest, or intended, and latent, or unintended, functions of social practices which sustain social stability.

141
Q

Medicalization refers to the process

A

in which issues experienced in a society are defined and treated by medical experts.

142
Q

The Hawthorne effect, named after an observational study of workers in the Hawthorne factory, refers to the tendency for

A

observational research participant behavior to change when they know they are being observed. This best describes the phenomenon described in the prompt.

143
Q

Self-fulfilling prophecy is the tendency to

A

behave in ways that confirm expectations.

144
Q

The Thomas theorem argues that individual beliefs have

A

real consequences.

145
Q

Impression management refers to direct attempts by an individual to control how

A

they are perceived by others.

146
Q

Exchange mobility refers to a process in which certain individuals experience a

A

decline in their socioeconomic status while others experience an increase, which does not change the ratio of individuals in upper and lower socioeconomic groups.

147
Q

Horizontal mobility describes a process in which an individual changes

A

some aspect of their socioeconomic status, such as from employed to unemployed, but maintains the same relative status.

148
Q

Downward mobility refers to a

A

decline in socioeconomic status.

149
Q

Upward mobility refers to an

A

improvement in socioeconomic status.

150
Q

Equation for total amount charge held by capacitor

A

Q=VC
Q is charge
V is voltage
C is capacitance

151
Q

Equation for total amount of energy held by capacitor

152
Q

Due to the Doppler effect, the frequency that a person hears before being passed by an ambulance is ______ than the actual frequency of the sound emitted, while the person hears a frequency _____ than the actual frequency after the ambulance passes

A

larger, lower

153
Q

Equation for power (with relation to work)

A

P=force*velocity=work/time

154
Q

The slope of the velocity-time graph is the acceleration and an exponential velocity-time slope corresponds to a linear acceleration-time slope; a linear velocity-time slope corresponds to a

A

constant acceleration-time slope

155
Q

The relative thermodynamic stability of isomeric organic compounds can be inferred from

A

heat of combustion

The heat of combustion of an organic compound is a measure of the energy released when the compound is combusted with oxygen. More stable isomeric compounds will have lower heats of combustion.

156
Q

If we were to label a molecule with radioactive tritium on a site that exchanges hydrogens for protons in the solvent, then the molecule would lose its

A

radiolabel

157
Q

when finding the limiting reagent, calculate and compare the number of

158
Q

In a reaction, the products minus the energy of the reactants represent

A

Gibbs free energy, not the activation energy of the reaction. It represents the thermodynamic favorability of the reaction.

159
Q

The activation energy or energy of activation is the energy needed for the reaction to proceed towards the creation of the products and energetic hurdle is represented by

A

the activated complex minus the energy of reactants

160
Q

Energy of a photon in terms of its frequency

161
Q

By definition, a steroid hormone receptor binds

A

steroids. These four 6-6-6-5-membered, fused ring structures is a steroid.

162
Q

An oxidizing agent will accept electrons and be

163
Q

When two amino acids are joined via a peptide bond, what is the mass of the byproduct of this reaction? (Note: Assume that the amino acids were not modified by protecting groups.)

A

Peptide bonds are formed via dehydration reaction. The product of dehydration is water.

When a peptide bond forms between two amino acids, there is a loss of water (18 amu).

164
Q

Without intial velocity measured under steady state conditions, the assumptions that underlie Michaelis–Menten enzyme kinetics

165
Q

pH must remain ____ to achieve reliable data for michaelis menten enzyme kinetics

166
Q

It is necessary for the concentration of enzyme to be lower than that of a _____ to achieve reliable data for michaelis menten enzyme kinetics

167
Q

Which experimental condition is NOT necessary to achieve reliable data for Michaelis–Menten enzyme kinetics?

A

The reaction is allowed to reach equilibrium before measurements are taken.

168
Q

Which atom is most likely involved in the coordination of calcium ions?

A

An atom must be a Lewis base to coordinate with calcium ions. Oxygen can serve as a Lewis base and carries a negative charge which can allow it to coordinate with positive calcium ions.

169
Q

Heme cofactors are five-membered nitrogen-containing rings and can be categorized as

A

porphyrin consisting of 4 pyrroles

170
Q

resistivity is equal to

A

1/conductivity

171
Q

Methylation transfers the methyl functional group from one substrate to another. Which enzyme can do this?

A

transferase

172
Q

Hydroxylation is the addition of an alcohol into another compound. Which enzyme catalyzes this reaction?

A

This is an oxidation-reduction reaction.

An oxidoreductase catalyzes reduction and oxidation reactions.

173
Q

On the MCAT, pK is analogous to

A

pKa and can be represented by pH

174
Q

cooperative enzymes display _____ curves which have steeper slopes

175
Q

When pH increases, there are less protons in solution and acidic functional groups will lose their protons. Their deprotonation will ______ their stability

176
Q

According to the DNA base paring rules, if G is not present on the original strand,

A

its C complement should not be present on the complement sequence

177
Q

Ion exchange column tells us the charge it wants to hold on to such that cation exchange will elute

A

negatively charged species and retain positively charged species

178
Q

Isoelectric points tells us the pH at which proteins are neutral. Above the pI, they will be

A

negatively charged and below the pI they will be positively charged

179
Q

A common column material used in size-exclusion chromatography is dextran, a polysaccharide of glucose. Which type of interaction most likely occurs between proteins and the dextran column material?

A

Hydrogen bonding

the oxygens and hydroxyl groups in glucose are capable of hydrogen bonding to the side chains that are exposed to different proteins.

180
Q

The frequency of a wave is a characteristic of the wave source, not of the medium surrounding the source. Therefore, frequency is not

A

changed by the medium through which the wave propagates.

181
Q

Volume flow rate =

A

area*velocity

182
Q

equation for velocity using frequency and wavelength

A

velocity=(frequency)(wavelength)

183
Q

What is the continuity equation?

184
Q

Calcium and magnesium are in the second column, or Group 2, on the periodic table, which is the

A

alkaline earth metals

185
Q

According to the VESPR theory, an octahedral geometry occurs with an ____ molecule

186
Q

Carbon has several allotropes in its standard state, such as diamond and graphite. These are

A

covalent network solids that contain strong covalent bonds.

187
Q

Patm =

A

Pfluid=Pfluidgh

188
Q

gravity constant

A

9.8 m/s^2 or 10 m/S^2

189
Q

anaerobic means

A

without oxygen

190
Q

The electron transport chain relies on oxygen to function. Under anaerobic condition, the ETC will be off so

A

phosphorylation of ADP would not occur

191
Q

Power =

192
Q

Greater Ca2+ pumping activity would improve

A

contractile strength

193
Q

The movement and subsequent binding of calcium to troponin is what allows for binding of actin and the myosin heads ultimately producing a

A

contraction

194
Q

The base pairs that are purines are

A

adenine and guanine

195
Q

The base pairs that are pyrimidines are

A

cytosine, uracil, and thymine

196
Q

DNA base pairs

A

A-T and G-C

197
Q

RNA base pairs

A

A-U ad G-C

198
Q

Convergent evolution occurs when

A

fairly unrelated organisms evolve to meet similar environmental needs and is associated with analogous structures.
Example 1: Wings of a bat and butterfly. The bat and butterfly are distant relatives but both need the ability to fly in their environments.

Example 2: Dolphins and sharks are genetically different, the dolphin being a mammal and the shark being a fish. Both of them, however, have developed similar structures to be able to survive in a similar environment.

199
Q

Ligase is an enzyme that binds two DNA fragments via

A

phosphodiester bonds

200
Q

Primase generates an RNA primer to match a fragment of DNA at the beginning of

A

DNA replication.

201
Q

Helicase “unzips” the strands of DNA at the beginning of

A

replication

202
Q

Topoisomerase relieves the

A

overwinding of DNA strands ahead of the DNA replication fork by breaking, swiveling, and rejoining DNA strands.

203
Q

Hydrolases cleave bonds using water, like

A

proteases cleave peptide bonds using water

204
Q

Cells that are undergoing apoptosis will stop their

205
Q

Cancer cells are able to avoid

206
Q

The “anatomy” of an operon as expected in prokaryotes

A

a single mRNA transcribed from a single promoter sequence within the operon

207
Q

A positive inotrope (medication that increases the force of cardiac contractions) is mediated by intracellular calcium levels. An increase in intracellular calcium levels will positively affect

A

contractility

208
Q

Na+K+ ATPase is a transmembrane protein that uses one molecule of ATP to transport

A

3 Na+ out of the cell and 2 K+ into the cell

209
Q

Histone acetyltransferases promote transcription by

A

decreasing the attractive interaction between lysine residues in the histones of DNA

210
Q

When someone first starts fasting, glycogenolysis and gluconeogenesis are initiated to maintain blood glucose levels and provide energy. During prolonged fasting, such as when the body perceives starvation,

A

fatty acid oxidation and ketogenesis are engages to provide sustained energy.

211
Q

the acidic amino acids

212
Q

The adrenal medulla produces the neurotransmitter adrenaline, and it is located in the adrenal gland which sits over the kidney. This structure is part of the

A

sympathetic nervous system of the autonomic system.

213
Q

The Krebs cycle produces

A

ATP and NADH. ATP can be used for several processes in the cell, whereas NADH supplies energy for the electron transport chain.

214
Q

equation for osmotic pressure

215
Q

osmotic pressure and molarity are _______ proportional

216
Q

During hypoxia, due to the scarcity of oxygen, NADH is

A

not reoxidized by the electron transport chain. Therefore, to replenish NADH molecules for sustaining glycolysis, NADH must be reoxidized to NAD+ by lactic fermentation.

217
Q

phosphoglucose isomerase is an enzyme involved in

A

glycolysis

218
Q

Palindromic binding sequence is the same as reading the sequence in

219
Q

Succinyl-CoA synthetase is responsible for the synthesis of succinate from

A

succinyl-CoA. Thus, over expression of Succinyl-CoA synthetase will increase succinate levels

220
Q

Parent-specific transmission of traits are due to gene imprinting, which is an

A

epigenetic process

221
Q

The rate of a typical enzymatic reaction is increased by which of the following changes?

A

Increase in temperature from 20°C to 37°C

222
Q

Fewer plasma proteins will decrease the osmotic pressure. This means less fluid will move out of the interstitial space/tissue and into the capillaries, resulting in

A

more fluid remaining in the tissues.

223
Q

Increased level of fatty acids will result in an increase in the osmotic pressure of the intestine and prevent water absorption, thus causing

224
Q

Increased osteoblast activity would keep the calcium in the bones, whereas increased osteoclast activity will free calcium to reach the blood. Thus, low osteoblast activity and

A

high osteoclast activity is the best way to increase calcium levels in blood.

225
Q

An increase in the levels of a product results in an inhibition of the enzyme that produced the product

A

feedback inhibition

226
Q

According to Piaget’s theory of cognitive development, five-year-olds are in the preoperational stage of development, in which they are presumed to be limited

A

by egocentrism (viewing the world only from their own perspective).

227
Q

The subjectively vivid, compelling memories of details associated with reception of news about emotionally arousing events are referred to as

A

flashbulb memories.

228
Q

Intrusions of false information into episodic memories of events (referred to as false memories) that are consistent with the accurate information suggests that episodic memory for first learning about the event is being combined with

A

semantic memory about information learned later. This is an example of the reconstructive nature of memory.

229
Q

Emotional arousal seems to focus a person’s attention on

A

the central features of an event.

230
Q

Every time a volunteer in a sleep study begins to exhibit rapid eye movements (REM), the experimenter wakes the person up. On the following night, when his or her sleep is uninterrupted, the person will most likely:

A

have more REM sleep than usual.

231
Q

Social capital or the benefits provided to an individual by social networks is not included in

A

socioeconomic status (SES)

232
Q

A PET scan is the most suitable for measuring

A

localized neural activity

233
Q

Group polarization is the tendency for a group’s consensus to be

A

more extreme than it was prior to group discussion.

234
Q

A conflict perspective focuses on the social institutions that maintain

A

social inequalities

235
Q

NMDA receptors are glutamate-responsive ion channels that promote action potential formation upon activation. Consequently, increased expression of NMDA receptors in the hippocampus will increase the likelihood of action potential formation, increasing

A

excitability.

236
Q

Self-verification refers to the tendency to seek out (and agree with) information that is consistent with

A

one’s self-concept.

237
Q

Self-serving bias involves making situational attributions for

A

personally experienced negative outcomes and dispositional ones for positive outcomes

238
Q

Self-efficacy is one’s belief about one’s ability to

A

perform behaviors that should lead to expected outcomes

239
Q

A self-fulfilling prophecy is a

A

belief that leads to its own fulfillment

240
Q

Serotonin is involved in the regulation of both

A

mood (specifically, aggression) and appetite (it is also used to regulate intestinal movements).

241
Q

A drive is a motivational state caused by

A

psychological or physiological needs. Disruptions to homeostasis (a state of physiological equilibrium) cause drives.

242
Q

Self-determination theory focuses on the

A

innate need for psychological growth

243
Q

Expectancy-value theory focuses on how motivation varies depending on

A

how a person evaluates their likelihood of success at an activity

244
Q

Symbolic interactionism, which is interested in micro-level interactions among social actors, is more directly related to studying

A

social practices and rituals.

245
Q

Motion parallax is a form of

A

depth perception cue. Motion parallax is a monocular depth cue where objects closer to an observer appear to move faster than distant objects when the observer is moving, creating a sense of depth.

246
Q

Sensory interaction is the idea that one sensory modality (e.g., vision) may

A

influence another (e.g., balance).

247
Q

Molarity =

A

moles/liter

248
Q

the structure of flavin, found in four of the five cofactors

249
Q

a five-membered aromatic heterocycle containing one nitrogen atom

250
Q

transferring the methyl group from the cofactor to the substrate will

A

not change total mass of molecule

251
Q

Progesterone is a ____ hormone

252
Q

Steroids are a class of lipids that are derived from

A

cholesterol

253
Q

In ______ ________ proteins are separated from a mixture based on their affinity for a specific ligand. Beads in the chromatography column contain a ligand that the protein of interest binds with high specificity and affinity. Proteins with a lower affinity for the ligand will elute first leading to separation of the mixture.

A

affinity chromatography

  1. Bind
  2. Wash
  3. Elute
254
Q

Extracting proteins from a membrane requires the membrane to be dissolved using a

A

detergent. Detergents facilitate the mixture of hydrophobic and hydrophilic compounds, allowed by their large hydrophobic and hydrophilic regions.

255
Q

The smaller the Kd value (dissociation constant)

A

the more tightly the ligand is attached and the higher the affinity between ligand and receptor.

256
Q

If Kd is unchanged after purification, this would strongly suggest

A

the protein has not been denatured

257
Q

Why are high temperatures required for fusion?

A

enable reactants to approach within range of the strong nuclear force.

possibility of fusion increases as the distance between fuel particles decreases

temperature is the avg KE of a group of particles so raising temperature will increase KE (and speed)

258
Q

Ring type on histidine’s side chain

A

imidazole ring-containing side chain

259
Q

Ammonium acetate is

260
Q

lipophilic, means that a molecule will not dissolve as readily in the

A

aqueous layer

261
Q

Ki is the concentration of inhibitor that gives a reaction rate of half the maximum

A

reaction rate

262
Q

The Hill coefficient is a measure of cooperativity in a binding process.

1=
> 1 =

A

1= independent binding
> 1 = positive cooperative binding

263
Q

salt bridge

264
Q

pi-stacking

265
Q

An ice cube at 0°C and 1 atm is heated to form steam at 100°C and 1 atm. Ignoring heat loss to the surroundings, what part of the process uses the most heat?

(Note: Specific heat of water = 1 cal/g°C. Heat of fusion = 80 cal/g. Heat of vaporization = 540 cal/g.)

A

Vaporizing all the water requires 540 cal/g, which is a greater heat requirement than specific heat or heat of fusion.

266
Q

Based on the passage, which of the following is closest to the pressure exerted on the chest by a 10 × 5 cm rectangular paddle during defibrillation?

(Note: 1 Pa = 1 N/m2.)

A

Pressure is the ratio of the force applied perpendicular to a surface and the area of the surface. Because the normal component of the force is 100 N and the area is 10 cm × 5 cm = 50 cm2 = 0.005 m2, the pressure is (100 N)/(0.005 m2) = 20 kPa.

267
Q

If the defibrillator described in the passage were fully charged and the entire charge were discharged through a patient in 10 ms, which of the following is closest to the average electrical current that would flow through the paddles?

268
Q

If the 25 μF capacitor in the defibrillator in Figure 1 is replaced with a 30 μF capacitor, what new power supply setting would produce the same amount of charge?

269
Q

value of planck’s constant

270
Q

value of planck’s constant * speed of light (3.0*10^8)

271
Q
A

The work generated by the person while pushing the cart is equal to the area under the force-distance line (area of a triangle), according to the definition of work. The area is equal to 1/2 × (100 N - 0 N) × (20 m - 0 m) = (100 N × 20 m)/2 = 1000 J.

272
Q

Entropy increases if solid reactants produce gas products, making ΔS

273
Q

Which states are not included in the Keq

A

(s) and (l)

274
Q

Acid–base reactions do not involve

A

oxidation state changes.

275
Q

To correct nearsightedness, the laser beam is directed onto the central part of the cornea, resulting in

A

a flattening of the cornea. This means that the radius of curvature of the cornea is increased.

276
Q

Equation for electric field

277
Q

Keq can be used to calculate

A

the concentration of products/reactants

278
Q

Each double bond contains 1 π-bond and each triple bond contains

A

2 π-bonds.

279
Q

A buffer has a buffering capacity that is

A

±1 pH unit away from the pKa,

280
Q

Small insects walk on the free surface of water because, at the air–water interface, all hydrogen bonds in water face downward, causing the molecules of the water surface to bond together. Due to cohesion, the polar water molecules do not cling to nonpolar molecules (such as oils) like those found in the insect feet. The insects do not sink through the free surface of water provided their weight is smaller than the

A

surface tension.

280
Q

Sodium does not readily form a divalent cation, essential for

A

DNA polymerase catalytic activity

281
Q

The gravitational potential energy is

A

mass × gravitational acceleration × height.

286
Q

The definition of current is flow of charge per unit time. Thus, charge equals

A

current multiplied by time

286
Q

When threshold is met at the axon hillock, voltage-gated sodium channels

A

open, generating an action potential.

286
Q

Conductors contain both atom-bound electrons and

A

free electrons. Free electrons arrange themselves on the surface of conductors, and their collective electric field produced inside the conductor cancels any external electric field. The resulting electric field inside the conductor is zero.

287
Q

A single nucleotide mutation is known as a

A

point mutation

288
Q

If UUA (not a stop codon) is changed to UAA (stop codon), then the synthesis of that protein will be

A

stopped prematurely d/t earlier stop signal, leading to truncated (shortened) product.

289
Q

The altered nucleotide does not cause a change in the amino acid that is encoded

A

silent mutation

290
Q

The altered nucleotide leads to substituting one amino acid for another in the protein sequence

A

Missense mutations

291
Q

The altered nucleotide creates a premature stop codon sequence

A

Nonsense mutations

292
Q

PEPCK, or phosphoenolpyruvate carboxykinase, is a key enzyme in

A

gluconeogenesis (glucose synthesis) in the liver and kidney, catalyzing the conversion of oxaloacetate to phosphoenolpyruvate.

293
Q

Testes are responsible for

A

testosterone production and spermatogenesis

294
Q

The blood-testes barrier is a physical barrier between blood vessels and the seminiferous tubules of the testes where sperm production occurs.

The barrier prevents

A

antibodies and immune cells from entering the testes since the immune system could target them as foreign cells because they are unlike any other cells in the body.

295
Q

Rods are highly photosensitive and densely clustered around the

A

periphery of the retina outside of the fovea. They require little light to pick up signals from outside the central field of vision.

296
Q

Rods are not capable of distinguishing color so their signal is perceived as

A

monochromatic or black and white

297
Q

Sensory stimulation, or sensation, takes place in the peripheral nervous system which includes the photosensory retina in the cells in the eyes. Sensory processing takes place in the CNS which includes the visual cortex of the brain known as the

A

occipital lobe

298
Q

Nicotinic acetylcholine receptors affect muscle

A

force contraction and overall muscle force