Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Obs and gynae > zero to finals > Flashcards

zero to finals Flashcards

1
Q

what can be used if there are contraindications to HRT

A

clonidine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

what is an agonist of alpha 2 adrenergic receptors adn imidazoline receptors

A

clonidine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

inidcations for HRT

A

premature ovarian insuffiency, vasomotor symptoms, low mood decreased. libido poor sleep joint pain, osteoporosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

best way to delvier oestrogen

A

patches

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

best way of providing progesterone

A

intrauterine device eg Mirena coil

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

should stop what 4 weeks before major surgery

A

oestrogen containing contraceptive or HRT

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

oestrogenic side effects

A

Nausea and bloating
Breast swelling
Breast tenderness
Headaches
Leg cramps

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

progestogenic side effects

A

Mood swings
Bloating
Fluid retention
Weight gain
Acne and greasy skin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

what are the most common ovarian cyst

A

follicular cyst

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

when do folliculaar cysts tend to disappear

A

after a few menstrual cycles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

corpus leteum cysts are often seen in

A

early pregnancy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

dermoid cysts are particularly associated with

A

ovarian torsion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

what increases the risk of ovarian cancer

A

the more ovulations

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

what is the tumour marker to remeber for ovarian cancer

A

ca- 125

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

cyst greater than – need referral to gynae

A

5cm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

ovarian torsion may show

A

whirlpool sign, free fluid in pelvis and oedema of the ovary

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

the outer area of the cervix. visible on speculum exmantintion should eb

A

stratified squamous epithelium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

vault prolapse is when

A

the top of the vagina descends into the vagina

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

antidepressant that can be given for stress incontinece

A

duloxetine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

first line for urge inconcinence

A

bladder retraining

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

medication for urge incontince

A

anti cholinergics eg oxybutyin, tolterodine and solifenacin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

alternative to anti cholinergics for urge incontince

A

Mirabegron

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

management for atrophic vaginitis

A

topical eostrogen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

most common bacterial cause of barthoins abscess

A

e. coli

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

word catheter and marsupialisation are surgeries for

A

bartholins cyst

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

lichen sclerosis is thought to be what

A

autoimmune condition

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

mainstay of treatment for lichen sclerosus

A

topical steriods

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

upper vagina, cervixm uterus and fallopian tubes develop from the

A

paramesonephric ducts (mullerian ducts)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

vaginal agenesis refers to an

A

absent vagina

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

in androgen insensitivity syndrome there are what instead of ovaries

A

testes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

how does androgen insensitivity often present

A

infancy with inguinal hernia containing testes or at puberty with primary amenorrhoea

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

cervical cancer tends to peak in what age group

A

reproductive years

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

most common cause of cervical cancer

A

HPV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

how does HPV promote the development of cnacer

A

it inhibits tumour supressor genes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

how is CIN diagnosed

A

at colposcopy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

smear sample looking for precancerous changes called

A

dyskaryosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

how often is smears in under 50

A

every 3 years

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

how often is smears in over 50

A

every 5

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

when do you get first smear

A

25

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

colposcopy if use acetic acid adn iodine solution

A

abnormal cells will turn white with the acid and with the iodine abnormal cells will not stain and healthy will stain a brown

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

usually management for CIN

A

LLETZ (large loop excision of the transformation zone) or cone biopsy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

bavacizumab can be used for

A

metastatic or recurrent cervical cancer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q
A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

current NHS vaccine for HPV is

A

Gardasil

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

HPV what causes cervical cancer

A

16 and 18

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

most endometrial cancers are what kind of cancers

A

ADENOCARCINOMAS!!!

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

KEY RF FOR ENDOMETRIAL CANCER ARE

A

OBESITY AND DIABETES

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

any woman presenting iwth postmenopausal bleeding has what until proven otherwise

A

endometrial cancer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

endometrial hyperplasia may be trated with

A

progestogens eg Intrauterine Mirena or oral progestogen eg medroxyprogesterone or levonorgestrel

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

what appears to be protective against endometrial cancer in post menopasual woman by being anti oestrogenic

A

smoking

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

pipelle biopsy is highly sensitivie for

A

endometrial cancer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

what may be used to slow the progression of endoemtrial cancer

A

progesterone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

usual management for endometrial cancer

A

TAH and BSO - total abdominal hysterectomy with bilateral salpingo-oophorectomy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

what cancer often presents late due to non specific symptoms and so has often already spread beyond the pelvis

A

ovarian

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

epithelial cell tumours are the most common ovarian cancer and out of these what is the most common

A

serous

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

krukenberg tumour refers to a metastasis in the ovary ususally from the

A

stomach

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

kruckenberg tumours have a characteristic

A

signet ring cells on histology

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

factors that reduce risk of ovarian caner

A

CCP, breastfeeding and pregnancy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

ovarian mass may press on what nerve

A

obturator causing referred hip or groin pain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

before referral for ovarian cancer what should you do

A

Ca125 blood test

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

most vulval cancer are

A

squamous cell carcinomas

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

around 5% of women with — get vulval cancer

A

lichen slerosus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

vulvar cancers most frequently affects the

A

labia majora

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

is bacterial vaginosis sexually transmitted

A

no

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

what is the friendly bacteria in th vagina

A

lactobacilli

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

most common bacteria associated with bacterial vaginosis

A

gardnerella vaginalis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

standard presenting feature of bacterial vaginosis is

A

fishy smelling dischage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

bacterial vaginosis occurs with a pH greater than

A

4.5

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

clue cells on microscopy means

A

bacterial vaginossi

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

antibiotic of choice for treating bacterial vaginosis

A

Metronidazole

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

what to avoid if taking metronidazole

A

alcohol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

thick white discharge that does not typically smell

A

candidiasis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

warning if using antifungal cream or pessaries

A

they can damage latex condoms adn prevent spermicides working so alternative contraceptive is required for at least 5 days after use

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

what test are used to diagnose chlamydia

A

Nucleic acid amplification test (NAAT)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

first line for chlaymdia is

A

doxycycline

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

what is doxycycline contraindicated in

A

pregancny and breastfeeding

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

what is a condition affecting the lymphoid tissue around the site of infectin with chlamydia

A

lymphogranuloma venerum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

what infects mucous membranes with a columnar epithelium

A

gonorrhoea

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

yellow or green discharge

A

gonorrhoea

80
Q

what is used to detect chlamydia and gonorrhoea

A

NAAT

81
Q

NAAT can detect wether there is gonoccal infection or not but what is needed to see the specific bacterial and their antibiotic sensitivies

A

charcoal swab for microscopy

82
Q

antiotic for gonorrhoea

A

IM ceftriaxone or oral ciprofloxacin

83
Q

what is the parametrium

A

connective tissue around the uterus

84
Q

what can exclude PID

A

abscence of pus cells

85
Q

what is a complication of PID

A

Fitz hugh curtis syndrome

86
Q

vaginal discharge frothy and yellow- green and may have a fish smell

A

trichomoniasis

87
Q

strawberry cervix called colpitis macularis

A

trichomniasis

88
Q

vaginal ph is also above 4.5 in

A

trichomoniasis and bacterial vaginosis

89
Q

treatment for trichomoniasis

A

metronidazole

90
Q

ulcers or blistering lesions affecting the genital area

A

genital herpes

91
Q

what is used to treat genital herpes

A

aciclovir

92
Q

what occurs whenn HIV is not treated

A

aids

93
Q

what is HIV

A

RNA retrovirus

94
Q

what HIV is the most common type

A

1

95
Q

HIV destroys what cells

A

CD4 T helper cells

96
Q

if someone with HIV takes a antibody test how long can it take before the test can become positive

A

45 days- unless you do a point of care test with the result showing in minites

97
Q

usual starting regime for HIV

A

two NRTIs ( tenofovir plus emtricitabine) plus a third agent ( bictergravir)

98
Q

what is given as prophylaxis to all HIV postivie patietns with a CD4 count under 200 to protect against peumocystis jirovecii pneumonia

A

co- trimoxazole

99
Q

what is an infusion that can be given during. labour and delivery in those with HIV

A

IV Zidovudine

100
Q

what does Trepnoema pallidum cause

A

syphilis

101
Q

development of gummas in

A

tertiary syphillis

102
Q

Condylomata lata (grey wart-like lesions around the genitals and anus)

A

secondary syphilis

103
Q

argyll robertson pupil is a specific finding in

A

neurosyphilis

104
Q

what is the standard treatment for syphilis

A

IM benzathine benzylpenicillin

105
Q

what contraception should you avoid if got breast cancer

A

an hormonal contraceptions so go for copper coil or barrier methods

106
Q

if got cervical or endmetrial cancer what contraception to avoid

A

intrauterine system ie Mirena

107
Q

in wilsons disease you should avoid what contraception

A

copper coil

108
Q

why should the progesterone injection be stopped before 50 years of age

A

risk of osteoporosis

109
Q

how lo after is fertility said to return after giving birth

A

21 days after

110
Q

lactational amenorrhoea is consideref effective for up to

A

6 months after birth

111
Q

what contraception can be started at any time after birth

A

progesterone only pilll and implant

112
Q

what contraception should be avoided if breastfeeding

A

combined contraceptive

113
Q

what can be inserted either within 48hrs of birth or more than 4 weeks after birth but not inserted in between

A

copper coil or intrauterine system eg Mirena

114
Q

what are the only method of contraception that protect against STIs

A

barrier methods

115
Q

the COCP is licensed for use up to the age of

A

50

116
Q

what is the primary mechanism of action of the COCP

A

preventing ovulation

117
Q

Nice recommend using a pill with what first line

A

Levonorgestrel or norethisterone

118
Q

what is first line for pre menstrual syndrome

A

Yasmin and other cocps containing drospirenone

119
Q

dianette contains

A

cyproterone acetate

120
Q

what is common in first 3 months of using COCP

A

unscheduleed bleeding

121
Q

no additional contraception is needed if the pill is started up to day – of the menstrual cycle

A

5

122
Q

when should you use extra contraception eg condoms for the first 7 days of consistne use of pill

A

if starting pill after day 5 of the menstrual cycle or switching from a progesterone only pill unless swithcing from deogestrel

123
Q

missing a pill is when

A

been 48hrs since the last pill was taken

124
Q

what to do if missed a pill

A

take the missed pill asap even if it means taking two pills on the same day

125
Q

when need emergency contraception

A

if on day 1-7 of packet and forgotten to take pill

126
Q

cocp should be stopped how long. before a major operation

A

4 weeks

127
Q

how is the progesterone only pill taken

A

continously

128
Q

absolute contraindication to progesterone only pill

A

active breast cancer

129
Q

traditional progestene only pill cannot be delayed more than

A

3 hours

130
Q

the desogestrel only pill (eg Cerazette) can be taken up to how many hours late

A

12

131
Q

what progesterone only pill inhibits ovulation

A

desogestrel

132
Q

if dont start progesterone only pill on day 1-5 of menstrual cycle what needs to be done

A

pregnancy needs to be excluded and additional contraception is required for 48hrs

133
Q

additional contraception is required if start after day 5 on menstrual cycle. how long is additional contraception required for for cocp and progesterone only

A

COCP- 7 days
progesterone only - 48hrs

134
Q

progesterone only injection is also known as

A

depot medroxyprogesterone acetate (DMPA)

135
Q

how often is DMPA given

A

every 12/13 weeks

136
Q

after stopping the progesterone injection how long may it take for fertility to return

A

12 months

137
Q

Depo -provera is the IM injection and what si the subcutaenous injection device that can be self injected by the patient (progesterone injections)

A

sayana press

138
Q

what contraception can cause osteoporosis

A

DMPA

139
Q

if start progesterone injections after day 5 hw many days of extra contraception is needed

A

7

140
Q

2 side effects that are unique to progesterone injections are

A

weight gain and osteoporosis

141
Q

progesterone only implant lasts for how long

A

3 years

142
Q

what is the progesterone implant used in the UK

A

Nexplanon

143
Q

inserting the progesterone implant after day 5 of menstrual cycle requires how many days of extra contraception

A

7

144
Q

what is a form of long acting reversible contraception

A

coils

145
Q

what are the intrauterine devices

A

copper coil and levonorgestrel intrauterine system

146
Q

levonorgestrel intrauterine system contains what that is slowly released into the uterus

A

progesterone

147
Q

PID is a contraindication for what contraception

A

coils

148
Q

what is done in those under 25 before coil inserted

A

screening for chlamydia and gonorrhoea

149
Q

before the coil is removed women need to do what for 7 days prior

A

abstain from sex or use condoms

150
Q

contraception contraindicated in wilsons

A

copper coil

151
Q

copper coil can be used as emergency contraception if inserted up to how many days after an episode of unprotected intercourse

A

5

152
Q

when should copper coils be inserted

A

It can be inserted at any time in the menstrual cycle and is effective immediately

153
Q

copper coil is liccensed for how long after insertion

A

5-10

154
Q

Levonorgestrel intrauterine system , most are licensed for 5 excpet what is licensed for 3

A

Jaydess

155
Q

when is the mirena coil only licensed for 4 years

A

if on hrt

156
Q

the LNG - IUS can be inserted

A

can be inserted up to day 7 of the menstrual cycle without any need for additional contraception. If it is inserted after day 7, pregnancy needs to be reasonably excluded, and extra protection (i.e. condoms) is required for 7 days.

157
Q

coil that can be used for heavy menstrual bleeding and endometrial protection for women on hrt

A

mirena

158
Q

what are often discovered incidentally during smear tests in women with an intrauterine device (coil)

A

actinomyces- like organisms

159
Q

what are the 3 options for emergency contraception

A

Levonogestrel - 72hrs
Ulipristal -120hrs
copper coil- 5 days

160
Q

what is the most effective emergency contraception

A

copper coil

161
Q

what is the thing with oral emergency contraception

A

the sooner it is taken the more effective it is

162
Q

when does ovulation occur

A

14 days before the end of the cycle

163
Q

what does levonorgestrel work by doing

A

preventing or delaying ovulation

164
Q

N+V is common side effect from levonorgestrel but what should be done if vomitting occurs within 3 hours of taking the pill

A

dose should be repeated

165
Q

ulipristal acetete is a

A

selective progesterone receptor modulator

166
Q

brand name of uliprstal

A

ella one

167
Q

how long after taking levonorgestrel or ulispristal can the combined or profesterone only pill be started

A

levo- immediately but extra contraception for 7 days if cocp or 2 days if progesterone only
uli- wait 5 dyas and then 7 for cocp and 2 for progesterone only

168
Q

female sterilisation procedure is called

A

tubal occlusion

169
Q

male sterilisation procedure is called

A

vasectomy

170
Q

what is the most accurate marker of ovarian reseve

A

anti mullerian hormone

171
Q

what is a scan to assess the shape of the uterus and the patency of the fallopian tube s

A

Hystersalpingogram

172
Q

drug that can stimulate ovulation

A

clomifene

173
Q

what is intra uterine insemination

A

involves collecting and separating out high-quality sperm, then injecting them directly into the uterus to give them the best chance of success

174
Q

what is intracytoplasmic sperm injectin

A

involves injecting sperm directly into the cytoplasm of an egg.

175
Q

ectopic pregnancy typically presents around how many weeks gestation

A

6-8

176
Q

what needs to happen to all ectopic pregnancies

A

need to be terminated

177
Q

what is medical management for an ectopic

A

methotrexate

178
Q

after woman has methotrxate for ectopic how long should they not get pregnant for

A

3 months

179
Q

first line for ectopic pregnancy

A

laparascopic salpingectomy

180
Q
A
181
Q

time limit between early and late miscarriage

A

12 weeks

182
Q

medical management for a miscarriage after 6 weeks

A

misoprostol

183
Q

misoprostol is an

A

prostaglandin analogue

184
Q

surgical management for a miscarriage

A

vacuum aspiration

185
Q

a cause for recurrent miscarriage

A

anti phospholipid syndrome

186
Q

management for anti phospholipid syndrome and miscarriage

A

low dose aspirin or LMWH

187
Q

abortion can be done up to

A

24 weeks if gretaer risk to mother

188
Q

mifepristone is what kind of drug

A

anti- progestogen

189
Q

what drug is given first for abortion

A

mifepristone then misoprostol 1-2 days after

190
Q

other criteria for hypemesis gavidarum

A

More than 5 % weight loss compared with before pregnancy
Dehydration
Electrolyte imbalance

191
Q

how is a hydatidiform mole like a pregnancy

A

it grows inside the uterus but is a tumour

192
Q

complete mole

A

A complete mole occurs when two sperm cells fertilise an ovum that contains no genetic material (an “empty ovum”)

193
Q

partial mole

A

two sperm cells fertilise a normal ovum (containing genetic material) at the same time. now has 3 sets of choromosomes

194
Q

in what kind of mole may fetal material form

A

partial

195
Q

can the moles metastasise

A

yes

196
Q

manageement of moles in preg

A

evacuation of the uterus to remove the mole

Obs and gynae (3 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions