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1
Q

refers to the failure of chromosomes or chromatids to properly separate during anaphase (only occurs in meiosis I or meiosis II)

A

Nondisjunction

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2
Q

X-linked recessive diseases are very rare in

A

women

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3
Q

Glycogen is stored in the _______, so most of glucagon’s action occurs there

A

Liver

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4
Q

loss of CO2, increase in O2 in the blood, increased blood pH, increased hemoglobin affinity for O2

A

Hyperventilation

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5
Q

oxygen deprivation

A

hypoxia (hypo-under, oxia- oxygen)

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6
Q

to be considered an organic compound, there must be a _____ between a C and H atom in the molecular structure

A

covalent bond

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7
Q

________ increases H2O and Na+ reabsorption from the kidney while exchanging K+ and Na+ ions

A

Aldosterone

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8
Q

is needed to export mRNA from the nucleus to the cytoplasm, and it is a post-transcriptional modification

A

polyadenylation

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9
Q

Glycosylation is what kind of modification?

A

It is a post-translational modification

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10
Q

involves direct uptake of genetic material from the environment and is not mediated by viruses

A

Transformation

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11
Q

a horizontal gene transfer process in bacteria in which plasmid DNA are transferred from one bacterium to another through a pilus. Viruses aren’t involved

A

Conjugation

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12
Q

a form of horizontal gene transfer in bacteria in which bacteriophages transmit genomic material

A

transduction

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13
Q

how bacteria produce asexually

A

binary fission

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14
Q

These cells in adults do not divide

A

Neurons

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15
Q

state that a cell will enter if it doesn’t need to divide

A

G0 phase

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16
Q

Triglycerides are composed of

A

1 glycerol molecule and 3 fatty acid molecules

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17
Q

Guanine and Adenine are

A

Purines (GAP)

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18
Q

Cytosine, Uracil and Thymine are

A

Pyrimidines (CUT the Py)

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19
Q

____ mutations are implicated in more tumors than are mutations in any other gene

A

p53

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20
Q

In ________, proteins migrate toward a positively-charged pole

A

SDS-PAGE

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21
Q

What do enzymes do?

A

They catalyze reactions by lowering the activation energy. This allows the reaction to proceed more rapidly.

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22
Q

Purines are _-ring structures

A

2-ring (#2-PU-stinky)

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23
Q

Pyrimidines are _-ring structures

A

1-ring

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24
Q

are forms of secondary structure that exist as a result of hydrogen bonding between amino acid backbone atoms

A

alpha helices and beta sheets

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25
Q

SN2 mechanisms are favored by polar, aprotic solvents, such as

A

acetone or DMSO

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26
Q

do not contain O-H or N-H bonds

A

aprotic

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27
Q

contain O-H or N-H bonds

A

protic

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28
Q

begins synthesis of a new strand of copied DNA

A

primase

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29
Q

the enzyme that connects (binds together) Okazaki fragments on the lagging strand of DNA being replicated

A

Ligase

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30
Q

repairs pieces of mis-replicated DNA

A

DNA Polymerase

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31
Q

opens the double helical strand of DNA to begin replication

A

helicase

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32
Q

V=Vmax [S]/ (Km+S)

A

Michaelis-Menten Equation

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33
Q

When does Km=S?

A

at 1/2 Vmax

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34
Q

the only amino acid that is not chiral

A

Glycine

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35
Q

Only _ amino acids are used by eukaryotic cells

A

L (for living)

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36
Q

Prokaryotic cells do use _ amino acids on occasion

A

D

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37
Q

In males, LH stimulated ____ cells to produce testosterone

A

Leydig

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38
Q

the hormone responsible for stimulating the mammary glands to produce milk

A

Prolactin (produce milk-Prolactin)

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39
Q

a thyroid hormone responsible for lowering blood calcium concentrations

A

Calcitonin

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40
Q

the transfer of active humoral immunity in the form of ready-made antibodies, from one individual to another

A

Passive immunity

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41
Q

Gel electrophoresis separates cells based on?

A

Size

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42
Q

Translation occurs at the _______

A

Ribosomes

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43
Q

the ____ is primarily composed of endothelial cells with tight junctions that prevent the movement of most solutes

A

blood-brain barrier

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44
Q

Synapses and dendrites are characteristics of

A

neurons

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45
Q

Neural cells spend more time in which phase?

A

G0 phase- since they are not growing

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46
Q

Gastrointestinal cells spend less time in ____ phase since they divide twice per day

A

G0

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47
Q

non-growing state

A

G0 phase

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48
Q

Cell differentiation occurs primarily through different?

A

Gene expression levels

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49
Q

DNA ______ also plays a role in gene expression

A

methylation

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50
Q

The alpha-helical structure of a protein is held together by what?

A

Hydrogen bonding between carbonyl oxygen and amino hydrogen atoms

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51
Q

contains Sulfur and is the only amino acid that can form disulfide bridges?

A

Cysteine

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52
Q

Long chain fatty acids are those with how many carbons in their tail?

A

Between 13 and 21

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53
Q

is classified as a triterpene. These are hydrocarbons, but they do not contain oxygen, so they cannot possibly be classified as carbohydrates

A

Squalene

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54
Q

Formula of Glucose

A

C6H12O6

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55
Q

Complementary C and G nucleotides are held together by ____ hydrogen bonds, while A and T nucleotides are connected by ___H-bonds.

A

3, 2

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56
Q

generally consist of a hydrophobic portion within the lipid bilayer and two hydrophilic portions that face the cytosol and extracellular space. These proteins are highly physiologically important and actually provide about 50% of drug targets

A

Transmembrane proteins

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57
Q

a peptide hormone that promotes a decrease in blood glucose levels

A

insulin

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58
Q

bones that are strong and provide protection to vital organs. Examples include the sternum, scapula, and ribs

A

flat bones

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59
Q

is first released in the oral cavity

A

salivary amylase

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60
Q

is released in the stomach, where it works in a very acidic environment (think of how Pepsi has an acidic bubble to it.)

A

pepsin

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61
Q

an enzyme that is involved in protein digestion in the small intestine

A

Carboxypeptidase

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62
Q

What does the sodium-potassium pump do?

A

It pumps 3 Na+ ions out of the cell, and 2 K+ ions into the cell.

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63
Q

uses labeled antibodies to distinguish particular proteins in tissue samples

A

Immunohistochemistry

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64
Q

used to detect specific RNA molecules among a mixture of RNA

A

Northern blot

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65
Q

used in molecular biology for detection of a specific DNA sequence in a sample of DNA

A

Southern blot

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66
Q

Sodium and ammonium always form ______ salts

A

soluble

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67
Q

five-membered rings that consist of 4 carbons and one oxygen atom

A

Furanose

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68
Q

six-membered rings that consist of 5 carbons and 1 oxygen atom

A

Pyranose

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69
Q

The keto form is always more stable than the ____ form

A

enol

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70
Q

mRNA is directly involved in which process?

A

translation

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71
Q

X-linked diseases can’t pass from

A

male to male

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72
Q

in a pedigree, squares represent _____ and circles represent _____

A

males, females

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73
Q

X-linked diseases are often transmitted by ____

Males inherit their __ chromosome from their fathers

A

carrier mothers.

Y chromosome

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74
Q

a form of inheritance in which neither allele is completely expressed over the other

A

incomplete dominance

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75
Q

refers to a pattern in which both alleles are fully expressed

A

codominance

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76
Q

Genes that are far apart are less likely to be

A

linked

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77
Q

a prolonged increased in heart and breathing rates during a snow skiing trip is likely due to

A

hypoxia (caused by low blood hemoglobin to supply oxygen for exercise at the low oxygen pressure)

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78
Q

this is the substance that holds oxygen in the muscles and organ.
If it is found in the urine it indicates damaged _____ or _______

A

myoglobin

muscles or organs

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79
Q

the part of the brain that controls heart rate

A

brain stem

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80
Q

part of the brain that controls muscle coordination

A

cerebellum

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81
Q

part of the brain that controls appetite

A

hypothalamus

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82
Q

What is something that distinguishes eukaryotic cells from prokaryotic cells?

A

eukaryotic cells contain membrane-bound organelles such as mitochondria

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83
Q

When does the centromere split and the sister chromatids separate?

A

anaphase II of meiosis II

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84
Q

functions of mammalian skin:

A

touch sensation, protection from disease, and protection from internal injury

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85
Q

What does inbreeding do?

A

the chances of getting a pair of deleterious recessive genes increases enormously when the mate is a relative. It decreases genetic diversity and doesn’t have an effect on spontaneous mutations.

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86
Q

increasing blood pressure will affect the

A

glomerular filtration rate

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87
Q

is a messenger RNA

A

coding RNA, which is translated

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88
Q

tRNA, siRNA, miRNA are

A

noncoding RNA, which are not translated into protein

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89
Q

restriction enzymes are known as

A

Endonucleases

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90
Q

ribonucleases degrade

A

RNA

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91
Q

two factors that can determine blood pressure are

A

cardiac output and the resistance to blood flow

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92
Q

increases blood flow to the muscles during exercise and to the skin during blushing

A

vasodilation

93
Q

is important in maintaining blood pressure during a hemorrhage

A

vasoconstriction

94
Q

sperm motility requires

A

large amounts of ATP

95
Q

functions of this organ are: absorption of fats in the small intestine, production of bile, and detoxification of poisons

A

liver

96
Q

are heritable changes in the sequence of the nucleic acid component of chromosomes

A

mutations

97
Q

the 3-D structure of a protein can be disrupted by

A

heating or by changing the pH

98
Q

causes Na+ reabsorption by the kidney tubules

A

Aldosterone

99
Q

bacterial cells and human cells are alike in the ability to produce ATP via ATP synthase

A

only bacterial cells have cell walls, human cells do not.

most bacterial chromosomes are circular, but human chromosomes are linear

100
Q

bones forming will do what to the calcium in the blood?

A

it will decrease calcium in the blood

101
Q

bones being broken down will

A

increase calcium in the blood

102
Q

a key factor that determines a ____ is the ability to successfully breed and produce fertile offspring

A

species

103
Q

this cycle involves the hypothalamus, pituitary, and the ovaries

A

the menstrual cycle

104
Q

a butterfly-shaped organ located in the base of your neck. It releases hormones that control metabolism—the way your body uses energy

A

thyroid gland

105
Q

if a dsDNA molecule has bases with a ratio of 3:1, the dsDNA daughter ratio would have a ratio of?

A

3:1 as well

106
Q

nervous tissues arise from the

A

ectoderm

107
Q

a reduction in gene-pool diversity because of a sharp reduction in population size

A

genetic bottleneck

108
Q

p^2+2pq+q^2

p+q=1

A 
p^2= frequency of homozygous dominant
2pq= frequency of heterozygous 
q^2= frequency of homozygous recessive
109
Q

when a more extreme phenotype is favored

A

directional selection

110
Q

this occurs because of physical barriers

A

allopatric speciation

111
Q

occurs when reproductive isolation is due to physical barriers that separate a population

A

sympatric speciation

112
Q

these cells are generally diploid. this means they have 2 chromatids for each chromsome

A

somatic cells

if they have 26 chromosomes, they’ll have 52 sister chromatids

113
Q

reflects the proportion of individuals in a group carrying a genotype

A

penetrance

114
Q

reflects the strength with which the phenotype is expressed

A

expressiveness

115
Q

a form of directional selection in which phenotypic features are preferentially selected for during the mating process even if such features have no correlation with fitness (peacock feathers for ex.)

A

sexual selection

116
Q

communication between individuals of the same species

A

intraspecific

117
Q

communication between different species

A

interspecific communication

118
Q

high blood glucose levels lead to

A

insulin secretion

119
Q

What does insulin do?

A

it decreases blood glucose levels

120
Q

reduced activity of GLUT4 transporters, upregulation of gluconeogenesis, increased proteolysis

A

effects of glucagon

121
Q

high levels of insulin lead to

A

increased triglyceride synthesis

122
Q

primary driving force behind protein folding is the _____ by the hydrophobic residues in the protein core

A

increased entropy

123
Q

in the reaction coordinate diagram, peaks are referred to as ______ and valleys are referred to as

A

transition states, reaction intermediates

124
Q

ATP hydrolysis has a negative and is spontaneous

A

negative delta G

125
Q

the proton gradient is established by directly coupling the movement of protons to the oxidation of

A

NADH to NAD+

126
Q

when channels open, sodium ions flow into the neuron causing it to

A

depolarize

127
Q

Steroid hormones and methylation can affect gene _______, but peptide hormones can not affect this.

A

gene expression

128
Q

at the peak of an action potential, the membrane potential is around __ mV.

A

+40 mV.

At this voltage, Na ceases to flow into the cell, and K channels open to allow K to flow out of the cell.

129
Q

the specialized part of the cell body that connects to the axon. Action potentials are summated here before traveling down the axon

A

the axon hillock

130
Q

houses the auditory cortex, which processes auditory information

A

temporal lobe

131
Q

controls fine motor movements (playing an instrument)

A

basal ganglia

132
Q

part of the auditory pathway that transmits signals to the medial geniculate nucleus

A

inferior colliculus

133
Q

_____ are responsible for myelinating nerve axons in the Central Nervous System, while ______ perform similar functions in the Peripheral Nervous system

A

Oligodendrocytes-CNS (O-C)

Schwann cells- PNS (PS)

134
Q

work=

A

force x distance

135
Q

the electron transport chain only provides ATP ______

A

aerobically (with oxygen)

136
Q

defined as a process where distantly related organisms independently evolve similar traits to adapt to similar needs. A dolphin and a shark are an example.

A

convergent evolution

137
Q

the evolution of homologous structures is always an example of

A

divergent evolution

think of an elephant and a wooly mammoth. Came from same ancestor but diverged apart like a path in the woods that splits into two.

138
Q

is an enzyme that can catalyze the joining (ligation) of two large molecules by forming a new chemical bond,

A

ligase

139
Q

is an enzyme involved in the replication of DNA and is a type of RNA polymerase

A

DNA primase

140
Q

refers to any of the enzymes that use the energy derived from the hydrolysis of nucleoside triphosphates to unwind the double-stranded helical structure of nucleic acids.

A

helicase

141
Q

refers to a class of enzymes, which alter the supercoiling of double-stranded DNA

A

topoisomerase

142
Q

these have to do with hydrolase activity

A

proteases

143
Q

What is a trait of cancer cells?

A

the inhibition of apoptosis

144
Q

An _____ containing two genes in prokaryotic cells is transcribed from a single promoter upstream of the first gene in the operon

A

operon

145
Q

The Na+ K+ pump is an example of

A

primary active transport

146
Q

What does the sodium-potassium pump do?

A

It pumps 3 Na+ out of the cell, and pumps 2 K+ into the cell per molecule of ATP hydrolyzed.
If there were two molecules, the totals would double.

147
Q

What does fasting lead to?

A

the breakdown of glycogen, gluconeogenesis, and continued fasting leads to the production of ketone bodies sustained by fatty acid oxidation

148
Q

the adrenal medulla secretes what in response to short-term stress

A

epinephrine and norepinephrine

Reactions to short-term stress are mediated by the sympathetic branch of the autonomic nervous system

149
Q

this type of inhibition involves binding of an inhibitor to a site other than the substrate binding site

A

allosteric inhibition

150
Q

supplies energy for many cellular processes, such as muscle contraction

A

ATP

151
Q

this is used in the electronic transport chain

A

NADH

152
Q

osmotic pressure is directly proportional to

A

solute concentration

153
Q

this isn’t made in fasting states

A

Glycogen

When fasting, you are breaking down these storage forms.

154
Q

insulin is unlikely to be present when

A

fasting

155
Q

insulin-

glucagon-

A

fed

fasted

156
Q

red blood cells don’t have:

A

a nucleus and no DNA as well

157
Q

the citric acid cycle and oxidative phosphorylation take place where?

A

in the mitochondria and the mitochondrial membrane

158
Q

Where does glycolysis occur?

A

in the cytosol

159
Q

red blood cells require large amounts of ___ for normal functioning

A

NADPH

160
Q

these factors refer to someone’s personality

A

dispositional

161
Q

these factors can be out of someone’s control. The weather, what others do.

A

situational factors

162
Q

________ occurs in the liver mostly and a little in the kidneys

A

Gluconeogenesis

163
Q

phosphoglucose isomerase is an enzyme involved in

A

glycolysis

164
Q

If you are given a target sequence:

CCCCGGGC, which part is palindromic?

A

Only CCCGGG is palindromic.

165
Q

Complex II of the electron transport chain is known as:

A

Succinate dehydrogenase (SDH)

166
Q

Complex I of ETC

A

NADH Dehydrogenase or NADH Ubiquinone Oxidoreductase

167
Q

Complex III of ETC

A

Cytochrome bc1 Complex or Cytochrome C Reductase

168
Q

Complex IV of ETC:

A

Cytochrome c Oxidase

169
Q

these genes are expressed in a parent-specific manner

A

imprinted genes

170
Q

How do RNA viruses replicate?

A

By using Reverse Transcriptase

171
Q

What does the glomerulus do?

A

It prevents the entry of large molecules like proteins into the filtrate

172
Q

a series of small tubes inside the kidneys that funnel urine into the renal pelvis for drainage into the ureter

A

the collecting duct

173
Q

_____ of the nephron in the kidney regulates sodium, potassium, calcium, and pH in the kidney

A

the distal tubule

174
Q

What is the principle function of the Loop of Henle?

A

The principal function of the loop of Henle is in the recovery of water and sodium chloride from urine.

175
Q

the optimum pH varies from one enzyme to another, but the optimum ______ is normally __ degrees

A

The optimum temperature is 37 degrees Celsius

176
Q

specialized cells for secretion that are present in the respiratory tract

A

epithelial cells

177
Q

villi atrophy results in a decrease in the surface area of the small intestine, leading to a decrease in

A

nutrient absorption

178
Q

an excess of unabsorbed fats in the intestine inhibits normal water and electrolyte reabsorption, resulting in increased:

A

osmotic pressure and diarrhea

179
Q

to increase blood calcium levels, what would need to be happening?

A

Osteoclasts (breaking down bone) would need to be working and osteoblasts (building bone) would need to be working less.

180
Q

in this inhibition, the inhibitor reversibly bind the enzyme’s active site

A

competitive inhibition

181
Q

a cellular control mechanism in which an enzyme’s activity is inhibited by the enzyme’s end product

A

feedback inhibition

182
Q

Blood is filtered into Bowman’s space within Bowman’s capsule and the moves sequentially through the:

A

proximal tubule, loop of Henle, distal tubule, and the collecting duct

183
Q

meiosis only occurs in ____ cells

A

germ cells

184
Q

When does crossing over occur?

A

In prophase I of meiosis

185
Q

Neurons and muscle cells are typically in a state of

A

G0 (non-growing state)

186
Q

Skin cells are exposed to the environment and constantly grow and repair so they are more likely to undergo

A

mitosis at a faster rate

187
Q

the point at which a cells is committed to mitosis occurs in

A

G1 phase of the cell cycle

188
Q

B cells are part of the

A

immune system

189
Q

have no endoplasmic reticulum, have circular dsDNA, have a cell wall, and have a plasma membrane

A

Prokaryotes

190
Q

these cells are part of cell-mediated immunity

A

T cells

191
Q

Methylation _____ the expression of the corresponding DNA sequence

A

inhibits

192
Q

damage to the midbrain would disrupt

A

visual and auditory processing

193
Q

known as the startle reflex in infants

A

Moro reflex

194
Q

this reflex occurs when the bottom of a baby’s foot is stroked and the big toe bends up and the other toes fan out

A

Babinski reflex

think of when you ski, your toes bend in and out with the movement of the skis

195
Q

this brain imaging technique is used to compare blood flow to different regions of the brain

A

fMRI

196
Q

this brain technique can be used to visualize blood vessels or hemorrhage

A

CT scan

197
Q

an excitatory neurotransmitter causes _____ of its target neuron, and an inhibitory neurotransmitter causes _____ of other neurons

A

depolarization of its target neuron, hyperpolarization

198
Q

Vmax=

A

kcat [Et]

199
Q

the turnover number is also known as the

A

kcat

200
Q

inactive precursors to enzymes that require proteolytic cleavage prior to becoming active

A

Zymogens

201
Q

A graph showing cooperativity would have which shape?

A

Sigmoidal or S-shaped

202
Q

A Hill coefficient greater than 1 reflects

A

positive cooperativity

203
Q

Magnesium is a necessary _____ for hexokinase

A

cofactor

204
Q

Which form of inhibition has a Km that doesn’t change?

A

Noncompetitive

205
Q

C
U
N

A

Vmax:

Km:
+
-
=

-
-

206
Q

this inhibitor is an inhibitor of the enzyme-substrate complex

A

uncompetitive inhibitor

207
Q

enzymes that bind together two smaller components

A

ligases

208
Q

these enzymes transfer functional groups from one molecule to another

A

Transferases

209
Q

increases triglyceride synthesis, decreases fatty acid oxidation, reduces blood glucose levels and increases glycogenesis

A

Insulin

210
Q

this hormone triggers ovulation in females

A

Luteinizing Hormone

211
Q

LH binds to its receptors in _____ cells, stimulating testosterone synthesis and secretion

A

Leydig

212
Q

a hormone that acts on neighboring cells

A

a paracrine hormone

213
Q

these hormones act on the cell that secreted them

A

autocrine hormones

214
Q

these hormones travel and act on distant sites

A

Endocrine hormones

215
Q

this gland secretes the thyroid-stimulating hormone

A

anterior pituitary gland

216
Q

this gland secretes melatonin, which is the hormone that regulates sleep patterns

A

pineal gland

217
Q

cyclic AMP, cyclic GMP, and calcium ions acts as

A

second messengers

218
Q

ATP is NOT considered a

A

second messenger. It is the cell’s main source of energy.

219
Q

transCription occurs in the ____, and translation occurs at the ______

A

nuCleus, ribosomes

220
Q

pancreatic beta cells affect the ability to produce ____, and alpha cells produce _____

A

insulin, and glucagon

221
Q

travel from the endocrine gland where they are produced through the blood to their target tissue

A

hormones

222
Q

What are released at neural synapses?

A

Neurotransmitters

223
Q

In order to regulate glucose levels, glycogen is made, stored, and broken down in the

A

liver

224
Q

these muscles contain striated muscle fibers

A

skeletal and cardiac muscles

225
Q

the heart is made of which muscle

A

cardiac

226
Q

the primary muscle type of the uterus, arteries, veinss, and the small intestine is

A

smooth muscle

227
Q

During muscle contraction, bridges between actin and myosin form, break, and reform leading to

A

a shortening of muscle sarcomeres

228
Q

____ the hormone responsible for triggering ovulation, and ___ is the pregnancy hormone

A

LH, and HCG

Biology Biochem 2 (1 decks)

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