Yes Book (Pneumonia) Flashcards

1
Q

What is pneumonia?

A

Inflammation of the lung parenchyma caused by various micro-organisms

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2
Q

What are the classifications of pneumonia?

A

Community Acquired Pneumonia (CAP)
Healthcare associated Pneumonia (HCAP)
Hospital Acquired Pneumonia (HAP)
Ventilator Acquired Pneumonia (VAP)

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3
Q

What are the risk factors for Pneumonia?

A
Age >65 
Alcoholism 
Malnutrition 
Immunosupressive disorders
Multiple medical comorbidities 
Underlying cardiopulmonary disease
Residence in a long term care facility 
Corticosteroid therapy 
Antibiotic therapy
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4
Q

How do you prevent pneumonia?

A

Influenza vaccine yearly
Pneumoccocal vaccine every 5 years
Encourage smoking cessation
Encourage reduced or moderate alcohol intake
Promote coughing and expectoration of secretions
Reposition frequently and promote lung expansion exercises
Promote frequent turning, early ambulation, and mobilization
Promote frequent oral hygiene
Elevate head of bed at least 30 degrees
Promote nutritious diet
Monitor patients receiving antibiotic therapy for signs and symptoms of pneumonia
Use strict hand hygiene and gloves

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5
Q

What is Community acquired pneumonia?

A

Occurs in the community setting or within 48 hours of hospitalization.

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6
Q

What is the most common cause of community acquired pneumonia

A

S. Pneumoniae is the most common cause of CAP in people younger then 60 without comorbidity and those 60 and older with comorbidity.

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7
Q

What is a type of Community acquired pneumonia (CAP) that affects older adults and those with comorbid illnesses (COPD, Alcoholism, Diabetes)

A

H. Influenzae.

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8
Q

How is m.pneumonae spread?

A

Mycoplasma pneumonia is spread by infected respiratory droplets through person to person contact.

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9
Q

What is the most common viral pathogen in immunocompromised patients?

A

Cytomegalovirus is the most common pathogen in immunocompromised adults, followed by herpes simplex virus, adenovirus, and respiratory syncytial virus.

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10
Q

What are the defining factors of healthcare-associated pneumonia

A

Causative pathogens are often multiple drug resistant (MDR)

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11
Q

What are the defining factors of hospital-acquired pneumonia

A

Develops 48 hours after admission; does not appear to be incubating at time of admission.

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12
Q

What are the predisposing factors of hospital-acquired pneumonia?

A
Impaired host defenses
Variety of comorbid conditions 
Supine positioning and aspiration 
Coma 
Malnutrition 
Prolonged hospitalization 
Hypotension
Metabolic disorders
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13
Q

What are the most common organisms causing hospital acquired pneumonia?

A

Enterobacter species, escherichia coli, H.influenzae, klebsiella species, proteus, serratia marcescens, pseudomonas aeruginosa, methicillin sensitive or methicillin resistant staphylococcus aureus (MRSA) and S. Pneumoniae

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14
Q

What are the defining factors of ventilator associated pneumonia?

A

It is a subtype of HAP. Patient has been endotracheally intubated and has recieved mechanical ventilator support for at least 48 hours;

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15
Q

What leads to pneumonia in the immunocompromised host?

A

Commonly develop pneumonia from organisms of low virulence.
Pneumocystis pneumonia (PCP) caused by pneumocystis jiroveci
Funal pneumonia
Myobacterium tuberculosis
May be caused by the organisms also seen in CAP or HAP

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16
Q

What is aspiration pneumonia?

A

Pulmonary consequences resulting from entry of endogenous or exogenous substances into the lower airway.
Most common form is bacterial from aspiration of bacteria normally in upper airway
Other substances may be aspirated - gastric contents, exogenous chemical contents or irritating gases.

17
Q

What are the clinical manifestations of Streptococcal (Pneumococcal) pneumonia?

A

Sudden onset of chills, rapidly rising fever, pleuritic chest pain aggravated by deep breathing and coughing

18
Q

What are the manifestations of pneumonia?

A
  • Patient is severely ill, tachypnea (25-45 bpm) SOB, use of accessory muscles.
  • Some patients experience URI, onset of symptoms can be gradual and nonspecific.
  • Predominant symptoms: Headache, low-grade fever, pleurtic pain, myalgias, rash, pharyngitis.
  • after a few days mucoid or mucopurlent sputum expectorated.
  • Severe cases: Cheeks are flushed, cyanosis of lips and nail beds, orthopnea.
  • Appetite is poor, diaphoretic, easily tired.
  • Purulent sputum - rusty, blood-tinged seen with streptococcal, staphylococcal, and klebsiella pneumonia.
  • Purulent sputum or slight changes in respiratory symptoms may be the only signs seen in patients with COPD
19
Q

What does the nurse assess for in the patient with suspected pneumonia

A

Pleuritic type pain, tachypnea, use of accessory muscles for breathing, coughing and purulent sputum.
Fever, chills, night sweats, fatigue.
In older adults: Unusual behavior, altered mental status, dehydration, excessive fatigue
History - especially recent respiratory tract infection
Chest X-Ray
Sputum examination and culture sensitivity
Blood in C&S

20
Q

What are the potential complications to pneumonia?

A
Continuing symptoms after initiation of therapy. 
Sepsis 
Respiratory failure 
Atelectasis 
Pleural effusion 
Confusion
21
Q

What are the planning/goals associated with pneumonia?

A

May include improved airway patency, increased activity, maintenance of adequate nutrition, an understanding of the treatment protocol and preventative measures, and absence of complications

22
Q

What increases the risk of MDR?

A

Age >65y
Alcoholism
Antibiotic use within 3 mo
Multiple coexisting illnesses (Comorbidities)

23
Q

What are the macrolides?

A

Erythromycin
Azithromycin
Clarithromycin

24
Q

When is a macrolide contraindicated

A

With allergy, use cautiously in patients with hepatic impairment.

25
Q

What are the side effects of macrolides?

A
Abdominal cramping
anorexia
Diarrhea 
Vomitting 
allergic reactions ranging from rash to anaphylaxis 
super infection
26
Q

What do the nurse monitor in the patient taking macrolides?

A

Monitor for liver function
Provide frequent small meals if GI problems occur
Monitor for irritation, burning, itching at the IV site.

27
Q

What are the fluroquinolones?

A

Ciproflaxcin
Moxifloxacin
Levoflaxacin
Gemifloxacin

28
Q

What are the contraindications of fluroquinolones?

A

Allergy
Pregnancy and lactation
Use caution in patients with renal impairment/seizures

29
Q

What are the adverse effects of fluroquinolones?

A

Headache, nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, abdominal discomfort, allergy skin reactions.
Increased BUN, AST, ALT
Photosensitivity, blurred vision

30
Q

What are the nursing implications surrounding fluroquinolones?

A

Administer oral drug 1 h ac or 2 h pc with a glass of water.
Ensure that patient is well hydrated to reduce nephrotoxicity.
Caution: Hepatic disease (Cirrhosis)
Avoid exposure to light during and after several days of taking the drug.
May cause dizziness or lightheadness.

31
Q

What are the beta lactams?

A
Penicillins - Ampicillin 
Amoxicillin clavunate 
Cephalosporin, cefazolin 
Carbapenem - impenem 
Monobactam - Aztreonam
32
Q

What are the contraindications to the use of BLactams?

A

Contraindicated with allergies to PCN and cephalosporins

33
Q

What are the adverse effects of b.lactams?

A

Stomatitis, gastritis, nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, pseudomembranous colitis, abdominal pain, super infection, rash, fever, wheezing, anaphylaxis.

34
Q

What are the nursing implications of beta lactams?

A

Advise patient to take with food.

Advise patient to take full course of medication.

35
Q

What are the aminoglycosides?

A

Gentamycin
Tobramycin
Amikacin
Streptomycin

36
Q

Why are peak & trough levels necessary when taking aminoglycosides?

A

To maintain therapeutic serum levels.

37
Q

What are the adverse effects of aminoglycosides?

A

Use cautiously in older adults with decreased renal function. It may cause aminoglycoside-induced nephrotoxicity. (May be reversible if drug is discontinued) and ototoxicity (Hearing loss, vertigo, dizziness, tinnitus.)

38
Q

What is the nurses responsibility when administering aminoglycosides?

A

Monitor renal functioning. Prolonged IV therapy (Greater then 1 week) increases the risk of toxicity.