Yeoman Practice Test 2012 Flashcards

1
Q
What is the appropriate SSIC for Military Personnel?
1000
2000
3000
4000
A

1000

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2
Q
What is the appropriate SSIC for Telecommunications?
1000
2000
3000
4000
A

2000

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3
Q
What is the appropriate SSIC for Operations and Readiness?
2000
4000
3000
5000
A

3000

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4
Q
What is the appropriate SSIC for Logistics?
3000
2000
5000
4000
A

4000

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5
Q
What is the appropriate SSIC for General Administration and Management?
5000
1000
4000
6000
A

5000

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6
Q
What is the appropriate SSIC for Medicine and Dentistry?
5000
6000
7000
8000
A

6000

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7
Q
What is the appropriate SSIC for Financial Management?
5000
6000
7000
8000
A

7000

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8
Q
What is the appropriate SSIC for Ordnance and Material?
5000
6000
7000
8000
A

8000

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9
Q
What is the appropriate SSIC for Personnel Action Requests?
1221
1306
1650
7220
A

1306

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10
Q
What is the most appropriate SSIC for Officer Promotions?
1400
1410
1420
1430
A

1420

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11
Q
What is the appropriate NEC for a Submarine Nuclear Operator Machinist's Mate?
3355
3375
3375
3395
A

3355

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12
Q
What form is used to liquidate travel after returning from TEMADD travel?
DD 1351/2
DD 1306/7
NP 1320/6
NP 1306/7
A

DD 1351/2

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13
Q
What is the form used to prepare TEMADD orders?
DD 1306/7
NP 1320/16
SF 1331/21
NP 1626/7
A

NP 1320/16

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14
Q
What size star is worn on Personal Awards?
1/8"
3/16"
5/16"
Various
A

5/16”

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15
Q
What size stars are used for unit or campaign awards?
1/8"
3/16"
5/16"
Various
A

3/16”

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16
Q
Failure to obey any regulation subjects the offender to charges under what UCMJ article?
107
91
86
92
A

92

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17
Q
Which of the following UCMJ articles explains the commanding officer’s nonjudicial punishment?
31
15
92
134
A

15

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18
Q
Which is a class "C" fire?
Wood
Electrical
Liquid
Metal
A

Electrical

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19
Q
Which is a class "A" fire?
Wood
Electrical
Liquid
Meta
A

Wood

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20
Q
Which is a class "D" fire?
Wood
Electrical
Liquid
Metal
A

Metal

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21
Q
Which is a class "B" fire?
Wood
Electrical
Liquid
Meta
A

Liquid

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22
Q

Mid tour awards are authorized to assist personnel in improving their advancement opportunities.
TRUE
FALSE

A

FALSE

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23
Q
How many lines are authorized for a citation in portrait format?
25
22
16
7 1/2
A

22

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24
Q
How many points is a Navy Cross worth towards advancement?
5
10
2
3
A

5

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25
Q
What is the instruction for the Correspondence Manual?
SECNAVINST M-5216.5
OPNAVINST M-5215.3
SECNAVINST M-5215.6
BUPERSINST M-5251.2
A

SECNAVINST M-5216.5

SECNAV M-5216.5

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26
Q
How do you express dates when dating a standard letter?
January 1, 2006
01 JAN 2006
1 Jan 06
1 JAN 06
A

1 Jan 06

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27
Q
How do you express dates in the text of a standard letter?
1 January 2006
January 1, 2006
1 Jan 06
1 JAN 06
A

1 January 2006

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28
Q
How do you express dates in a business letter?
1 January 2006
January 1, 2006
1 Jan 06
1 JAN 06
A

January 1, 2006

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29
Q
What instruction lists Standard Subject Identification Codes?
MILPERSMAN
BUPERSINST 5216.1
OPNAVINST 5200.3
SECNAVINST 5210.2
A

SECNAVINST 5210.2

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30
Q
What is the most appropriate SSIC for Enlisted Advancements?
1400
1410
1420
1430
A

1430

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31
Q
What is the most appropriate SSIC for Officer Fitness Reports?
1611
1616
1626
1650
A

1611

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32
Q
What is the most appropriate SSIC for Enlisted Evaluations?
1611
1616
1626
1650
A

1616

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33
Q
What is the most appropriate SSIC for Enlisted Discipline Records?
1611
1616
1626
1650
A

1626

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34
Q
What is the most appropriate SSIC for Decorations, Medals, and Awards?
1611
1616
1626
1650
A

1650

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35
Q
What is the most appropriate SSIC for Personal Affairs and Benefits Records?
1740
1754
1770
1780
A

1740

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36
Q
What is the most appropriate SSIC for Family Support Programs?
1740
1754
1770
1780
A

1754

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37
Q
What is the most appropriate SSIC for Casualties and Survivors Benefits?
1740
1754
1770
1780
A

1770

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38
Q
What is the most appropriate SSIC for Educational Benefits Records?
1740
1754
1770
1780
A

1780

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39
Q
What is the most appropriate SSIC for General Retirement Records?
1800
1830
1900
1910
A

1800

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40
Q
What is the most appropriate SSIC for Fleet Reserve Records?
1800
1830
1900
1910
A

1830

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41
Q
What is the most appropriate SSIC for General Separation Records?
1800
1830
1900
1910
A

1900

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42
Q
What is the most appropriate SSIC for Enlisted Separation Records?
1800
1830
1900
1910
A

1910

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43
Q
What is the most appropriate SSIC for Communications Security (COMSEC)?
2280
2700
3120
3500
A

2280

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44
Q
What is the most appropriate SSIC for General Afloat Communication Records?
2280
2700
3120
3500
A

2700

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45
Q
What is the most appropriate SSIC for Operating Procedures, Tasks, & Employment Records?
2280
2700
3120
3500
A

3120

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46
Q
What is the most appropriate SSIC for General Training and Readiness Records?
2280
2700
3120
3500
A

3500

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47
Q
What is the most appropriate SSIC for General Contracting Records?
4200
4400
5200
5800
A

4200

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48
Q
What is the most appropriate SSIC for General Supply/Material Records?
4200
4400
5200
5800
A

4400

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49
Q
What is the most appropriate SSIC for General Organizational Functions?
4200
4400
5400
5800
A

5400

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50
Q
What is the most appropriate SSIC for General Laws and Legal Matters?
4200
4400
5400
5800
A

5800

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51
Q
What is the most appropriate SSIC for Radiological Medicine Records?
6470
7220
8080
9210
A

6470

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52
Q
What is the most appropriate SSIC for Military Pay Records?
6470
7220
8080
9210
A

7220

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53
Q
What is the most appropriate SSIC for General Artillery Records?
6470
7220
8080
9210
A

8080

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54
Q
What is the most appropriate SSIC for Naval Nuclear Propulsion Information?
6470
7220
8080
9210
A

9210

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55
Q
What is the most appropriate SSIC for Clothing and Uniform Records?
10120
11101
12550
13100
A

10120

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56
Q
What is the most appropriate SSIC for Family Housing Records?
10120
11101
12550
13100
A

11101

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57
Q
What is the most appropriate SSIC for General Pay and Administration Records?
10120
11101
12550
13100
A

12550

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58
Q
What is the most appropriate SSIC for General Aircraft Records?
10120
11101
12550
13100
A

13100

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59
Q
What is the appropriate NEC for a Submarine Nuclear Supervisor Machinist's Mate?
3355
3365
3375
3395
A

3365

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60
Q
What is the appropriate NEC for a Submarine Nuclear Operator Electrician's Mate?
3353
3385
3354
3366
A

3354

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61
Q
What is the appropriate NEC for a Submarine Nuclear Supervisor Electrician's Mate?
3353
3385
3354
3364
A

3364

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62
Q
What is the appropriate NEC for a Surface Nuclear Operator Electronics Technician?
3383
3385
3353
3366
A

3383

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63
Q
What is the appropriate NEC for a Surface Nuclear Supervisor Electronics Technician?
3383
3393
3353
3366
A

3393

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64
Q
What is the appropriate NEC for a Surface Nuclear Operator Engineering Laboratory Technician?
3383
3385
3386
3356
A

3386

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65
Q
What is the appropriate NEC for a Surface Nuclear Supervisor Engineering Laboratory Technician?
3383
3385
3386
3396
A

3396

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66
Q
What form is used to request Special Liberty?
DD 1306/7
NP 1320/16
NP 1336/3
NP 1626/7
A

NP 1336/3

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67
Q
What form is used to place a Sailor on report?
DD 1306/7
NP 1320/16
NP 1336/3
NP 1626/7
A

NP 1626/7

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68
Q
What filing system is utilized at major commands?
Local
Lock & Key
Master
Centralized
A

Centralized

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69
Q
SSIC 1000 covers what area of MILPERSMAN?
General
Administration
Pay
Bibliography
A

General

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70
Q
What is the SSIC for Leave and Liberty
1050
1070
7000
7050
A

1050

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71
Q
SSIC 1070 covers what area of MILPERSMAN
Personnel Records
LOI
Additional Information
Awards
A

Personnel Records

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72
Q
When filing instructions they are filed by
subject ID number
Consecutive number
Issuing authority
All of the above
A

All of the above

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73
Q
What is the instruction that provides authority and procedures for Records of Disposition Program
SECNAVINST 5215.5C
SECNAVINST 7000
OPNAV 5212.5C
SAIPANINST 5215.5D
A

SECNAVINST 5215.5C

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74
Q
What is used to calculate the mileage between duty stations?
JFTR
Enlisted Transfer Manual
Navy Passenger Transportation Manual
Defense Table of Official Distances
A

Defense Table of Official Distances

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75
Q
Which manual contains instructions governing the administration of Navy Personnel
Navy Enlisted Performance Manual
Directives Issuance System Manual
BUPERSINST 1430.16
MILPERSMAN
A

MILPERSMAN

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76
Q
Which manual describes the methods of wearing medals, decorations, and ribbons?
Uniform Regulations 
Social Usage and Protocol Handbook
Awards Manual
Advancement Manual
A

Uniform Regulations

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77
Q
Lieutenant periodic FITREPS are due on which date?
31 January
31 August
31 October
30 November
A

31 January

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78
Q
Ensign periodic FITREPS are due on which date?
31 January
31 May
30 June
31 August
A

31 May

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79
Q
CWO5/4/3 FITREPS are due in what month?
November
March
September
April
A

March

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80
Q
A directive containing authority or information having continuing reference value, or requiring continuing action is known
Notice
Bulletin
Instruction
Change Transmittal
A

Instruction

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81
Q
Which of the following is considered a Unit Award?
National Defense
Sea Service Deployment Ribbon
Navy "E" Ribbon
None of the Above
A

Navy “E” Ribbon

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82
Q

Article 112 of the UCMJ is known as what?
Robbery
Drunk on duty
Absent without leave
Drunken or reckless operation of a vehicle

A

Drunk on duty

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83
Q
Article 86 of the UCMJ is known as what?
Absent without leave
Missing movement
Robbery
Drunk on duty
A

Absent without leave

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84
Q
Article 87 of the UCMJ is known as what?
Absent without leave
Missing movement
Contempt toward officials
Disrespect toward a superior commissioned officer
A

Missing movement

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85
Q
Article 88 of the UCMJ is known as what?
Missing movement
Contempt toward officials
Absent without leave
Drunk on duty
A

Contempt toward officials

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86
Q

Article 91 of the UCMJ is known as what?
Insubordinate conduct toward Warrant Officer, Noncommissioned Officer, or Petty Officer

Failure to obey lawful order

Disrespect to superior commissioned officer

Drunk on duty

A

Insubordinate conduct toward Warrant Officer, Noncommissioned Officer, or Petty Officer

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87
Q
What margins would you NEVER use when typing a business letter?
1 inch
2 inches
3/4 inch
1 1/2 inches
A

3/4 inch

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88
Q
Which of the following is correct when using a complimentary close?
Very Respectfully
Very Respectfully,
Sincerely
Sincerely,
A

Sincerely,

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89
Q

A point paper should be kept to a minimum of how many page(s)?
1
2
3
as few as possible to get the point across

A

1

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90
Q

On a Memorandum of Agreement, where do you type “MEMORANDUM OF AGREEMENT”?
Top left hand margin same line as the date
Centered, second line below the date line
Centered, one line below the Letter Head
Top left hand margin one line below the date

A

Centered, second line below the date line

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91
Q
How many action addressees should you have before you drop the "To Line" and use a Distribution Block?
3
4
5
more than 1
A

5

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92
Q
When typing a classified letter, how would the subject line appear?
Subj: (U) CLASSIFICATION MARKINGS
(U) Subj: CLASSIFICATION MARKINGS
Subj: CLASSIFICATION MARKINGS (U)
None of the above
A

Subj: CLASSIFICATION MARKINGS (U)

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93
Q
When typing a joint letter, the senior official signs where?
Left side
Center of page
Right side
Left side above the other signatures
A

Right side

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94
Q
Which of the following SSIC numbers represents a secondary subject?
5000
5200
5210
5211
A

5210

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95
Q
What article is false official statement?
111
112
108
107
A

107

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96
Q

What is the proper way to mark an enclosure to be sent under separate cover?
Enclosure: (1) SECNAVINST 5216.5D (sep cover)
Enclosure: (1) SECNAVINST 5216.5D(s/c)
Encl: (1) SECNAVINST 5216.5D (sep cover)
Encl: (1) SECNAVINST 5216.5D (s/c)

A

Encl: (1) SECNAVINST 5216.5D (sep cover)

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97
Q
What manual gives the guidelines to take a sworn affidavit or oath?
Manual for courts-martial
UCMJ
JAGMAN
MILPERSMAN
A

JAGMAN

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98
Q
Who can conduct a preliminary inquiry investigation?
Convening Authority
Commanding Officer
Executive Officer
Board of Inquiry
A

Convening Authority

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99
Q
From which of the following would you request a port call?
SATO
PSD
NAVPTO
None of the above
A

NAVPTO

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100
Q
What publication(s) gives detailed instructions for preparing and distributing of the DD214?
MILPERSMAN
BUPERSINST 1900.8
NAVMILPERSCOMINST 1900.1
Both a and b
A

BUPERSINST 1900.8

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101
Q
The authorizing official on a DD214, Certificate of Release or Discharge from Active Duty, must be of what minimum rank of what?
CO or XO only
O1 or GS11 and above
E9 or GS9 and above
E7 or GS7 and above
A

E7 or GS7 and above

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102
Q
What copy(ies) of the DD214, will be provided to the member?
Original only
Copies 2 and 4
Original and copy 4
Copy 3 only
A

Original and copy 4

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103
Q

The DD214 will be issued to all but which of the following personnel?
E4 separated after 120 days of active duty for training
E6 re-enlisted for 6 years
E7 released for active duty
E8 discharged to accept appointment to CWO

A

E6 re-enlisted for 6 years

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104
Q
Article 107 of the UCMJ is known as what?
Drunk on duty
Failure to obey lawful order
False official statement
Missing movement
A

False official statement

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105
Q

Article 134 of the UCMJ is known as what?
General article
Conduct unbecoming an officer and gentleman
Frauds against the united states
Perjury

A

General article

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106
Q
Who appoints the Command Security Manager?
Executive Officer
Secretary of the Navy
Commanding Officer
Security Officer
A

Commanding Officer

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107
Q
What SSIC would you use for Officer Separations
1920
1910
1811
1110
A

1811

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108
Q
What SSIC would you use for Physical Standards
6510
6110
7210
10110
A

6110

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109
Q
The last digit of a SSIC number is known as what?
Primary
Secondary
Tertiary
Stationary
A

Tertiary

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110
Q
In what directive would you find the guidelines for issuing identification cards for members of the uniformed services and family member?
BUPERSINST 1750.10A
SECNAVINST 1750.1
BUPERSINST 1610.10
MILPERSMAN
A

BUPERSINST 1750.10A

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111
Q
What color is the armed forces of the United States ID card for retired personnel?
Blue
Red
Green
Brown
A

Blue

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112
Q

Children under the age of 10 cannot be issued an ID card?
True
False

A

False

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113
Q
A temporary DD Form 1173 can be issued for how many days?
90 days
120 days
180 days
None, not authorized
A

90 days

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114
Q
Who is authorized to carry a DD Form 2?
Active duty personnel
Reserve personnel
Retired personnel
All of the above
A

All of the above

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115
Q
Re-issue of ID cards are not authorized for which of the following?
Lost, stolen or mutilated
Name change
Change in facial features
Promotion to E3
A

Promotion to E3

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116
Q
What directive outlines the process for segregating the Navy's filing system?
SECNAVINST 5210.11D
SECNAVINST 5216.12
SECNAVINST 5215.1
OPNAVINST 3120.32
A

SECNAVINST 5210.11D

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117
Q
How many major subject identification codes does the Navy use in the SSIC manual?
11
12
13
14
A

13

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118
Q
What SSIC group includes subjects relating to logistics?
2000-2999
3000-3999
4000-4999
5000-5999
A

4000-4999

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119
Q

SSICs are required on all Navy and Marine Corps letters, messages, directives, forms and reports
True
False

A

True

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120
Q
Which of the following SSIC numbers represents a secondary subject?
5000
5200
5210
5211
A

5210

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121
Q
What SSIC group includes subject relating to promotion and advancements?
1600-1699
1200-1299
1700-1799
1400-1499
A

1400-1499

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122
Q
What SSIC would you use if typing awards?
1610
1650
1710
1750
A

1650

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123
Q
What major subject group would you look under to find a SSIC for ship's design?
1000-1999
4000-4999
8000-8999
9000-9999
A

9000-9999

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124
Q
What major subject group would you look under to find a SSIC for civilian personnel?
10000-10999
12000-12999
13000-13999
16000-16999
A

12000-12999

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125
Q
What type of training do you receive during daily operation and maintenance situations?
GMT
OJT
NMT
"A" school
A

OJT

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126
Q
For you to become eligible for advancement, what person must recommend you?
CO
XO
Division Officer
Department Head
A

CO

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127
Q
What date commemorates the birthday of the United States Navy?
5 Sep 1774
13 Oct 1775
4 Jul 1776
14 Feb 1778
A

13 Oct 1775

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128
Q
What ship was the first warfare submarine?
TURTLE
IRONSIDES
HOLLAND
WASP
A

TURTLE

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129
Q
What is the oldest U.S. Navy ship still in commission?
LEXINGTON
CONSTELLATION
BONHOMME RICHARD
CONSTITUTION
A

CONSTITUTION

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130
Q
Which of the following is not a DOD military department?
Army
Coast Guard
Navy
Air Force
A

Coast Guard

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131
Q
Which of the following officers is ultimately responsible for the safe navigation of the ship?
Navigator
Operations officer
Executive officer
Commanding Officer
A

Commanding Officer

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132
Q
When a naval ship is inport or at anchor, the union jack is flown from what location?
The Gaff
The Jackstaff
The Aftermast
The Flagstaff
A

The Jackstaff

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133
Q
Aboard ship, a man overboard is indicated by what emergency/warning flag?
Code Alfa
Bravo
November Charlie
Oscar
A

Oscar

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134
Q
What is punitive article 86?
Desertion
Missing movement
Absence without leave
Conspiracy
A

Absence without leave

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135
Q
What article is failure to obey an order or regulation?
92
93
94
95
A

92

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136
Q
What article is wrongful use or possession of a controlled substance?
110
111
112
112a
A

112a

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137
Q
The Advancement Manual?
BUPERSINST 1430.17
BUPERSINST 1430.16
SECNAVINST 1430.17
SECNAVINST 1430.16
A

BUPERSINST 1430.16F

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138
Q
What is contained in Part I of the Directives Issuance System Manual?
Definitions
Criteria
Responsibilities
All of the above
A

All of the above

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139
Q

EDVR stands for Enlisted Data and Verficiation Report.
TRUE
FALSE

A

FALSE

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140
Q
What naval officer wears a five-pointed star insignia?
Medical
Supply
Line
Corps
A

Line

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141
Q
What naval officer wears a gold oak leaf with a silver acorn in the center insignia?
Medical
Supply
Line
Corps
A

Medical

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142
Q
What naval officer wears a sprig of three oak leaves and three acorns signia?
Medical
Supply
Line
Corps
A

Supply

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143
Q
Who appoints an officer to a new grade?
Chief of Naval Operations
Secretary of the Navy
Congress
President
A

President

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144
Q

ENS may be frocked to LTJG.
TRUE
FALSE

A

FALSE

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145
Q
What is the highest promotion summary can an ENS receive?
Promotable
Must Promote
Early Promote
all of the above
A

Promotable

146
Q
What is the highest promotion summary can a LTJG receive?
Early Promote
Must Promote
Promotable
all of the above
A

Promotable

147
Q
What promotion summary can a LDO receive?
Early Promote
Must Promote
Promotable
any of the above
A

any of the above

148
Q
When may a member change his/her home of record?
anytime
change in duty station
reenlistment
never
A

never

149
Q
What is the form number for a Leave Chit?
NAVPERS 3065
DD FORM 3065
NAVCOMPT 3065
None of the above
A

NAVCOMPT 3065

150
Q
What is the total number of accured leave that can be authorized?
30
60
90
120
A

120

151
Q
Which of the following punitive articles is a general article?
86
92
112
134
A

134

152
Q

What publications governs the rules and regulations of a petty officer’s actions?
US Navy Regulations and MCM only
US Navy Regulations and SORM only
US Navy Regulations, MCM and SORM
Military Requirements for Petty Officer Third Class

A

US Navy Regulations, MCM and SORM

153
Q
When you break a job down into tasks, you are performing what phase of supervision?
Directing
Planning and organizing
Rewarding and discipline
Setting goals
A

Planning and organizing

154
Q
The personnel qualification standard (PQS) is designed to qualify a Sailor for a specific watch station at what level?
Minimum
Maximum
Intermediate
Expert
A

Minimum

155
Q
A petty officer receives general authority from what document?
SORM
US Navy Regulations
UCMJ
Letter of appointment
A

US Navy Regulations

156
Q
Authority to assign EMI maybe delegated to which of the following?
Department Head
Division Officer
E7
E6
A

E6

157
Q
For males, hair should be tapered from the lower hairline upward at what length?
1/2 inch
3/4 inch
1 inch
1 1/2 inch
A

3/4 inch

158
Q
Who writes and signs the manual of the Judge Advocate General?
President
SECNAV
CNO
Office of the Judge Advocate General
A

Office of the Judge Advocate General

159
Q
The Navy correspondence manual is which of the following directives?
SECNAVINST 5215.1
SECNAVINST 5216.5D
BUPERSINST 5215.1
BUPERSINST 5216.5D
A

SECNAVINST 5216.5D

SECNAV M5216.5

160
Q
When writing to higher authority on a personal matter affecting the command, prepare your letter on what?
CO's personal letter head
Plain bond paper
High quality paper
Personal stationary
A

Plain bond paper

161
Q
When a commanding officer delegates signature authority, how does the signature block appear?
"acting"
"for"
By direction
None of the above
A

By direction

162
Q
What number of days do you have before you must reply to a congressional communication?
1 day
3 days
5 days
7 days
A

5 days

163
Q

What is the proper way to mark an enclosure to be sent under separate cover?
Enclosure: (1) SECNAVINST 5216.D (sep cover)
Enclosure: (1) SECNAVINST 5216.5D (s/c)
Encl: (1) SECNAVINST 5216.5D (sep cover)
Encl: (1) SECNAVINST 5216.5D (s/c)

A

Encl: (1) SECNAVINST 5216.5D (sep cover)

164
Q
How many lines from the date do you start typing your letter?
1
2
3
4
A

2

165
Q
When creating your own letter head, what line do you start on?
Line 2 centered
Line 3 centered
Line 4 centered
Never, you do not create your own
A

Line 4 centered

166
Q
What color of ink is used to sign official correspondence?
black only
blue only
black or blue-black
red or green
A

black or blue-black

167
Q
What directive gives policy on how official files must be destroyed or forwarded to records center?
SECNAVINST 1650.1F
SECNAVINST 5212.5C
SECNAVINST 5213.11D
SECNAVINST 5200.18
A

SECNAVINST 5212.5C

168
Q
How are classified files destroyed at shore commands?
Burning
Shredding
Scrapped
Throw it overboard at sea
A

Burning

169
Q
What publication contains instructions on the shipping procedures for classified records?
Security Manual
MILPERSMAN
Navy Regulations
Records Disposition Manual
A

Security Manual

170
Q
What is required to make a reports tickler file an effective tool?
Daily attention
Quarterly attention
Semi-annually attention
Annually
A

Daily attention

171
Q
What is the term used when an individual travels to a command that isn't the individual's permanent duty station?
PCS
TEMADD
TEMDU
TEMDUIN
A

TEMADD

172
Q

A Passenger Reservation Request is required on all members regardless of rank for travel OUTCONUS?
True
False

A

True

173
Q
What level of security clearance and access may be granted using the NAC as the investigative basis?
Confidential only
Confidential and Secret
Secret only
Official use only
A

Confidential and Secret

174
Q
Which of the following is an example of a campaign or a service award?
Good Conduct Medal
Air Medal
Navy "E"
Navy and Marine Corps Medal
A

Good Conduct Medal

175
Q
How many years of continuous good conduct are required before a person becomes eligible to wear gold service stripe
12
10
8
6
A

12

176
Q

Which of the following are precautions you should follow when lifting heavy objects?
Keep the load close to the center of your body
Pull the load toward you; then lift gradually
If too heavy to lift alone, get help
All of the above

A

All of the above

177
Q
How many different tags are authorized for use in identifying defective instruments or pieces of equipment?
One
Two
Three
Four
A

Three

178
Q
Which of the following publications contain information on Navy safety?
OPNAVINST 4450.2
OPNAVINST 5100.19
NAVPERS 4450.2
NAVPERS 5100.19
A

OPNAVINST 5100.19

179
Q

Military Sealift Command ships use which of the following titles?
United States Naval Ships (USNS)
United State Charter Ships (USCS)
Unites States Coast Guard Ships (USCGS)
United States Transportation Service Ships (USTSS)

A

United States Naval Ships (USNS)

180
Q
According to grooming standards for men, how many rings per hand may be worn? (excluding wedding and engagement rings?
One
Two
Three
As many as they wish
A

One

181
Q
According to grooming standards for women, what is the maximum length of fingernails (as measured) from the tip of the finger?
1 inch
1/2 inch
3/4 inch
1/4 inch
A

1/4 inch

182
Q
How many movements are used to perform the ABOUT FACE command?
Five
Two
Three
Four
A

Two

183
Q
When the command CLOSE RANKS is given to members in formation, the fourth rank moves how many paces forward
One
Two
Three
Four
A

Three

184
Q
In normal situations, how many paces from the person being saluted, should the hand salute be rendered?
Two
Four
Six
Eight
A

Six

185
Q
What numbers of rotations is required when locking a security container with a combination lock?
Three times
Four times
Five times
Six Times
A

Four times

186
Q
How often should locks be changed or rotated?
Annually
Quarterly
Monthly
Weekly
A

Annually

187
Q
What form is used as the cover sheet for Top Secret Classified information?
Standard Form 701
Standard Form 703
Standard Form 704
Standard Form 705
A

Standard Form 703

188
Q
What form is used as the cover sheet for Secret Classified Information?
Standard Form 701
Standard Form 703
Standard Form 704
Standard Form 705
A

Standard Form 704

189
Q
What form is used at the cover sheet for Confidential Classified Information
Standard Form 701
Standard Form 703
Standard Form 704
Standard Form 705
A

Standard Form 705

190
Q
How is a burn bag containing Top Secret/ Secret material handled until the contents are destroyed?
Handled only
Stored only
Accounted only
All of the above
A

All of the above

191
Q
How many types of security clearances are there?
1
2
3
4
A

3

192
Q
Who publishes the Manpower Authorization, OPNAV Form 1000/2?
BUPERS
CNO
CINCLANTFLT
COMNAVSURFLANT
A

CNO

193
Q
Which is the following is correct when typing block one of Eval/ FITREP form?
John J. Doe
DOE, John J.
DOE, J. J.
DOE, JOHN J
A

DOE, JOHN J

194
Q
When a member has two designators in block 3 of the Eval/ FITREP form, how should it appear?
(SW/AW)
SW-AW
SW/AW
(SW-AW)
A

SW/AW

195
Q
Who may be a delegated reporting senior for reports on members in pay-grades E-5 through E-9?
LT or GS9 and above
LCDR and GS11 and above
Any officer and GS9 and above
XO only
A

LCDR and GS11 and above

196
Q

Commanding officers are required to do a close out report upon a member’s death
True
False

A

False

197
Q

What form of wording is used for a formal invitation?
It is written in the third person, present tense
It is written in the second person, past tense
It is written in the third person, past tense
It is written in the originators choice

A

It is written in the third person, present tense

198
Q
What is used on invitations instead of the letters R.S.V.P. in the lower left corner?
Please Reply
A force of a reply is requested
Please Respond Very Promptly
Please Respond
A

Please Reply

199
Q
How are invitations always written?
Longhand
Shorthand
Never, must be engraved
Typewritten
A

Longhand

200
Q
What is always repeated when accepting an invitation?
Date
Time
Place
All of the above
A

All of the above

201
Q
How should you determine the order in which the various parts of a letter will be arranged?
Most important item first
Most important item last
Keep the reader in mind
Shortest paragraph always goes first
A

Keep the reader in mind

202
Q
When typing a basic letter which of the following formats is correct?
From, To, Via, Encl, Ref, Subj
From, Via, To, Encl, Ref, Subj
From, To, Via, Subj, Ref, Encl
From, To, Via, Subj, Encl, Ref
A

From, To, Via, Subj, Ref, Encl

203
Q

When numbering pages, you don’t number a single-page letter or the first page of multiple-page letter.
True
False

A

True

204
Q
When typing a first endorsement on a 3 page letter, what is the number of your first page?
1
2
4
None, you don't number the first page
A

4

205
Q
Who can impose NJP?
CO
XO
Department Head
All the above
A

CO

206
Q
What manual gives the guidelines to take a sworn affidavit or oath?
MCM
UCMJ
JAGMAN
MILPERSMAN
A

JAGMAN

207
Q
Who can conduct a preliminary inquiry investigation?
Convening Authority
Commanding Officer
Executive Officer
Board of Inquiry
A

Convening Authority

208
Q
What is the purpose of a notice?
Long term for re-occurring events
Short term for specified events
Change policy
Up date policy
A

Short term for specified events

209
Q
What paragraph is the cancellation paragraph for a notice?
2nd
3rd
4th
Last
A

Last

210
Q
What paragraph is the cancellation paragraph for an instruction?
2nd
3rd
4th
Last
A

2nd

211
Q
What is the maximum time a notice can remain in effect?
30 days
3 months
6 months
1 year
A

1 Year

212
Q
What is a 5215?
Correspondence Manual
Collateral duties list
List of effective instructions/notices
Social roster
A

List of effective instructions/notices

213
Q
What does ODCR stand for?
Officer Data Card Report
Officer Distribution Control Report
Officer Damage Control Report
Officer Data Control Response
A

Officer Distribution Control Report

214
Q
What instruction governs the format and procedures for validating the ODCR?
SECNAVINST 7220.10
SECNAVINST 1301.11
BUPERSINST 1301.40
BUPERSINST 7220.1
A

BUPERSINST 1301.40

215
Q
What color of ink do you use to make corrections on the ODCR?
Red
Blue
Black
None, you don't make corrections
A

Red

216
Q
The officer's name will not exceed how many characters on the ODCR?
24
23
22
21
A

21

217
Q
Where do you send the ODCR if there is a discrepancy on the UIC?
BUPERS
EPMAC
CNO
CINCLANTFLT
A

EPMAC

218
Q
Where do you send a correction to an officer's fitness report found on the ODCR?
BUPERS
EPMAC
CNO
CINCLANTFLT
A

BUPERS

219
Q
How many security classifications does the Navy use to identify classified materials?
1
2
3
4
A

3

220
Q

To get a security clearance, you must be a United States citizen
True
False

A

True

221
Q

Classified material is assigned a security classification for which of the following reasons?

To ensure personnel are aware of the classified nature of the material

To ensure the material receives the degree of protection required

To assist in extracting, paraphrasing, downgrading, and declassifying actions

All the above

A

All the above

222
Q

If you need to find the rules for transmitting classified material, you should refer to what SECNAV instruction?

  1. 3
  2. 3A
  3. 36
  4. 30A
A

5510.36

223
Q
What term defines classified material that is lost, stolen, captured, salvaged, or seen by unauthorized personnel?
Unsecured
Abandoned
Compromised
Downgraded
A

Compromised

224
Q
What instruction governs the preparation of military awards/decorations?
NPTUINST 1650.5
SECNAVINST 1650.1F
BUPERSINST 1650.7
OPNAVINST 1650.10
A

SECNAVINST 1650.1F

SECNAVINST 1650.1H

225
Q
Which of the following personnel can recommend an E5 for an award?
YN1
YNC
CMC
LT
A

LT

226
Q
Who approves and signs the Medal of Honor award?
President
Secretary of Defense
Secretary of the Navy
Chief of Naval Operations
A

President

227
Q
If you receive your 6th personal naval military decoration, what color of star is worn?
Gold
Bronze
Silver
None
A

Silver

228
Q
How many NAMs can each CO award each year?
1 for every 10 personnel
1 for every 50 personnel
1 for every 75 personnel
unlimited
A

unlimited

229
Q
What is the personal awards recommendation form number?
OPNAV 1306/3
OPNAV 1650/3
OPNAV 5520/20
OPNAV 7220/10
A

OPNAV 1650/3

230
Q
What awards can be presented to foreign national personnel?
Legion of Merit
Navy Cross
Navy and Marine Corps Achievement Medal
Navy and Marine Corps Commendation Medal
A

Navy and Marine Corps Achievement Medal

231
Q
Which of the following awards is not a personal military decoration?
Meritorious Unit Award
Navy Achievement
Navy Commendation
Purple Heart
A

Meritorious Unit Award

232
Q
Naval writing standards and sample letters may be found in which of the following publications?
MILPERSMAN
SECNAVINST 5216.5D
SECNAVINST 5210.11D
SECNAVINST 5215.1C
A

SECNAVINST 5216.5D

SECNAV M5216.5

233
Q
Who is responsible for administering the Navy program for worldwide movement of Navy-sponsored passengers?
PSA
CNO
SECNAV
CO
A

CNO

234
Q
What publication governs the Navy Personnel Security Program?
OPNAVINST 5510.1H
SECNAVINST 5550.1F
BUPERSINST 5210.10
SECNAVINST 5510.30A
A

SECNAVINST 5510.30A

235
Q
The Sea Service Deployment Ribbon falls under which category of award?
Military decorations
Personal award
Campaign service award
Unit award
A

Campaign service award

236
Q
Which of the following security clearances is authorized to handle or see classified material?
Confidential
Secret
Top Secret
All of the above
A

All of the above

237
Q
What is the general rule when allowing access to classified material?
Need to know
Must be CO or XO approved
Only senior personnel have access
Anyone with top secret can have access
A

Need to know

238
Q
The security manager must be at what rank?
LT/GS7 and above
XO or CO only
E7/GS9 and above
Any officer or GS11 and above
A

Any officer or GS11 and above

239
Q
What level of classification if compromised would be considered exceptionally grave damage to national security?
NATO for official use only
Top Secret
Secret
Confidential
A

Top Secret

240
Q
What level of classification if compromised would be considered serious damage to national security?
NATO for official use only
Top Secret
Secret
Confidential
A

Secret

241
Q
What publication would you refer to for instructions for verification and submission of changes to the officer data card?
NAVPERS 15839 VOL II
NAVPERS 15839 VOL I
Both a and b
MILPERSMAN
A

NAVPERS 15839 VOL II

242
Q
Who is responsible for reviewing the ODC for accuracy?
YNC
XO
CO
The officer
A

The officer

243
Q
Where is the officer data card sent if corrections are required
BUPERS
EPMAC
CHNAVPERS
SECNAV
A

CHNAVPERS

244
Q
Which side of the officer service record would you file the fitness report?
Left
Right
None
Officer files in his service record
A

None

245
Q
What section of the MILPERSMAN would you refer to for information about personnel name change?
1050-070
1000-130
1301-140
1070-600
A

1000-130

246
Q
When determining leave between PCS stations, in what order do you compute the travel time?
Leave, proceed, travel
Travel, leave, proceed
Proceed, travel, leave
Travel, proceed, leave
A

Travel, proceed, leave

247
Q
Documents shall be submitted to what Navy Personnel Command code for filing in officers permanent personnel record?
PERS 313C
PERS 311
PERS 312
PERS 40
A

PERS 312

248
Q
Which of the following is a brief summary of information and fact, which will provide the reader with a concise statement
Memorandum
Basic Letter
Point Paper
Message
A

Point Paper

249
Q
What must be an officer in command do upon learning of a casualty?
Notify Next of Kin
Notify his chain of command
Notify BUPERS by message
Notify local chaplain
A

Notify BUPERS by message

250
Q

The DD214 will be issued to all but which of the following personnel?
E4 separated after 120 days of active duty for training
E6 re-enlisted for 6 years
E7 released from active duty
E8 discharged to accept appointment to CWO

A

E6 re-enlisted for 6 years

251
Q

When typing the DD214, what is placed in the unused space in a large block?
Type in a diagonal line “NO FURTHER ENTRIES THIS BLOCK”
Type in a diagonal line “N F E T B”
Type in a diagonal line “X’s”
Nothing, leave unused space blank

A

Type in a diagonal line “X’s”

252
Q

When making corrections in the shaded area on a DD214, you must initial all copies?
True
False

A

False

253
Q
What directive(s) contains procedures involved with officer separations?
OFFTRANSMAN
MILPERSMAN
Navy Transportation Manual
JFTR
A

MILPERSMAN

254
Q
In accordance with the MILPERSMAN, how is a request for retirement submitted by the officer's?
Letter
Message
Email
Officer Detailer submits request
A

Letter

255
Q
Who approves an officer's retirement request?
SECDEF
SECNAV
CNO
CHNAVPERS
A

SECNAV

256
Q
When are CDR Fitreps due?
April
August
September
October
A

April

257
Q
When are LCDR Fitreps due?
July
August
September
October
A

October

258
Q
When are CWO3 and CWO4 Fitreps due?
March
April
May
June
A

March

259
Q
Which of the following administrative comments are prohibited on a Fitrep or Eval?
Previous failure of selection
NJP proceedings
Change of name, designator or rating
Civil court actions
A

Previous failure of selection

260
Q
How many days after due date must Fitrep/Eval reports be mailed for active duty members?
Within 15 days
Within 10 days
Within 20 days
Within 30 days
A

Within 15 days

261
Q
When is mid-term counseling due for E5's?
March
May
September
November
A

September

262
Q
When are E7/E8 Fitreps due?
August/September
August
September
July/August
A

September

263
Q
Which of the following is not a type of report?
Regular
Concurrent
NOB
Operational Commander
A

Operational Commander

264
Q

Reports on E4 and below maybe entirely or partially handwritten.
True
False

A

False

265
Q
If there is no Senior Rater, what must be typed in the Senior Rater Block?
Repeat the Raters Name
Reporting Seniors Name
None Available
Nothing, leave blank
A

None Available

266
Q
Vessels may not discharge unpulped trash within what minimum distance from the U.S. coastline?
20nm
25nm
30nm
35nm
A

25nm

267
Q
Which of the following personnel can be victims of sexual harassment?
Men only
Women only
Men and Women
None of the above
A

Men and Women

268
Q
Which of the following terms defines the horizontal openings for access through decks?
Hatches
Doors
Manholes
Scuttles
A

Hatches

269
Q
What is the additional ship control space used by the squadron commander or admiral called?
Signal Bridge
Main Control
Flag Bridge
Bridge Wing
A

Flag Bridge

270
Q
How many years of service must a person complete to be eligible to wear one service stripe?
5
2
3
4
A

4

271
Q
What requirements must a petty officer have to be designated as the damage control petty officer (DCPO)?
PO2 and above
Complete the PQS
Complete fire-fighting school
designated by the LCPO
A

Complete the PQS

272
Q
What officer is designated as the ship's damage control officer?
Executive Officer
Officer of the Deck
Engineer Officer
Operations Officer
A

Engineer Officer

273
Q
When handling lines or taking part in underway replenishment, you must always wear what article of safety equipment?
Inherently buoyant life jacket
Inflatable life jacket
Safety glasses
Ear plugs
A

Inherently buoyant life jacket

274
Q
What publication establishes policy governing voluntary retirement of officers on the active duty list and voluntary retire
SECNAVINST 1811.3
SECNAVINST 1920.1
MILPERSMAN
MILPERSMAN and DOD PAYMAN
A

SECNAVINST 1811.3

275
Q
Final approval of request for transfer to Fleet Reserve and for further transfer to the Retire List rest with what official?
President
CNO
SECNAV
CHNAVPERS
A

CHNAVPERS

276
Q
Who may constitute a Summary Courts-Martial?
LT
YNCM
CMAA
CMC
A

LT

277
Q
By policy how many members are on a Special Courts-Martial board?
1
2
3
4
A

3

278
Q
How are charges reflected on the charge sheet?
Roman numerals
Arabic numerals
Both a and b
None of the above
A

Roman numerals

279
Q
Who is responsible for authenticating the Special Courts-Martial record of trial?
Military Judge
Trial Counsel
Defense Counsel
Convening Authority
A

Military Judge

280
Q
Who will authenticate the Special Courts-Martial record of trial should the judge be unable to do so?
The Trial Counsel
Defense Counsel
Military Judge
Convening Authority
A

The Trial Counsel

281
Q

A casualty is broadly defined as a person whose services are lost to the Navy due to what reasons?
Death
Illness, injury, wounds of a serious nature
MIA, captured, detained in a foreign country
All of the above

A

All of the above

282
Q
Personal effects of deceased members must be inventoried, cleaned and shipped to primary next of kin within what tim
5 days
10 days
2 weeks
3 weeks
A

2 weeks

283
Q
Who has the primary responsibility of notification of next of kin in the even of a naval disaster?
Commanding officer
CINCPAC/ CINCLANT
CNO
BUPERS
A

BUPERS

284
Q
What form is used to identify formal charges and refer a case to trial by court-martial?
Report Chit/ NAVPERS Form 1626/7
A formal letter from CA to JAG
The Charge Sheet/ DD Form 458
A formal letter from CO who held NJP
A

The Charge Sheet/ DD Form 458

285
Q
What article of the UCMJ is the basis for power to convene a Special Courts- Martial?
Article 15
Article 23
Article 24
Article 37
A

Article 23

286
Q
What article of the UCMJ is the basis for Commanding Officer's to hold NJP?
Article 15
Article 23
Article 24
Article 37
A

Article 15

287
Q

The purpose of the summary court-martial is to exercise justice promptly for relatively minor offenses involving enlisted
True
False

A

False

288
Q

What action is taken with the Charge Sheet if an accused objects to trial by SCM?
Return to the CA for disposition of the case
Advise member of the right and continue
Officer annotates on Charge Sheet that member objects and continues
Nothing, member cannot refuse trial by SCM

A

Return to the CA for disposition of the case

289
Q
What is the most formal fact finding body?
Single individual investigation
Courts of inquiry
Boards of investigation
JAG Manual Investigation
A

Courts of inquiry

290
Q
Who signs the appointing order for a court of inquiry or formal investigation?
Military Judge
Military Judge and all board members
Any commissioned officer o4 and above
Convening Authority
A

Convening Authority

291
Q
How often should the Reports Control Office publish and distribute a list of recurring reports prepared by the command?
Monthly
Quarterly
Semi-annually
Annually
A

Annually

292
Q
What are the basic resources of a manager?
People, Materials
Money
Space and Time
All of the above
A

All of the above

293
Q
Information for the recall of reserve officers, retired officers and retention of retired officers can be found in what chapter
2
6
8
11
A

11

294
Q
Information for the Issuance of orders and special requirements can be found in what chapter of the OFFTRANSMAN?
2
6
8
11
A

2

295
Q
When a member is not entitled to or waives an administrative board, the member should be separated within how many
3
5
10
15
A

15

296
Q
What publication governs the policy and provisions of the Survivor Benefit Plan?
SECNAVINST 1750.4
MILPERSMAN
BUPERSINST 1750.11
NAVMILPERSCOMINST 1750.1 (series)
A

BUPERSINST 1750.11

297
Q
What SSIS section of the MILPERSMAN would you refer to about Casualties and Survivor's Benefits?
MILPERSMAN 1070
MILPERSMAN 1770
MILPERSMAN 1910
MILPERSMAN 1920
A

MILPERSMAN 1770

298
Q
When updating an officer's permanent personnel record, documents shall be submitted to what PERS code?
PERS 300 A
PERS 312 A
PERS 312 C
PERS 322 B
A

PERS 312 C

299
Q
A personnel casualty report must be submitted by immediate message and within what time frame after the casualty?
4 hours
6 hours
12 hours
24 hours
A

4 hours

300
Q
Except in time of war or national emergency declared by congress or the president, not more than how many retired fla
3
8
15
24
A

15

301
Q
A retired officer recalled for a period greater than 180 days must be approved by what official?
SECNAV
CHNAVPERS
BUPERS
CNO
A

SECNAV

302
Q
What publication(s) gives detailed instructions for preparing and distributing of the DD214?
MILPERSMAN
BUPERSINST 1900.8
NAVMILPERSCOMINST 1900.1
Both a and b
A

BUPERSINST 1900.8

303
Q
The authorizing official on a DD214, Certificate of Release or Discharge from Active Duty, must be of what minimum ra
CO or XO only
O1 or GS11 and above
E9 or GS9 and above
E7 or GS7 and above
A

E7 or GS7 and above

304
Q
What copy (ies) of the DD214 will be provided to the member?
Original only
Copies 2 and 4
Original copy and 4
Copy 3 only
A

Original copy and 4

305
Q

When typing the DD214, what is placed in the unused space in a large block?
Type in a diagonal line “NO FURTHER ENTRIES THIS BLOCK”
Type in a diagonal line “N F E T B”
Type in a diagonal line “X’s”
Nothing, leave unused space blank

A

Type in a diagonal line “X’s”

306
Q

When making correction in the shaded area on a DD214, you must initial all copies?
True
False

A

False

307
Q
What publication would you refer to for information about the Diary Message Reporting System?
DMRSMAN 1080#1 UM-02
MILPERSMAN
ENLTRANSMAN
Both b and c
A

DMRSMAN 1080#1 UM-02

308
Q

If “minimize” is in effect for 14 days or more, how do you prepare and submit DMRS transactions?

Message, minimize does not effect DMRS transactions

letter

E-mail

Registered mail

A

letter

309
Q
When submitting DRMS transactions, what PLA is used?
EPMAC NEW ORLEANS LA//31//
EPMAC //31//
EPMAC DIARY NEW ORLEANS LA//31//
DIARY EPMAC NEW ORLEANS//31//
A

EPMAC DIARY NEW ORLEANS LA//31//

310
Q

The administrative assistant’s basic responsibilities may include which of the following duties?

Report on the effectiveness of administrative policies, procedures, and regulations of the command

Review all correspondence prepared for the signature of the executive officer

Schedule interviews of visitors with the executive officer

All of the above

A

All of the above

311
Q
A person wishing to take the Scholastic Aptitude Test (SAT) should apply through which of the following programs?
Basic Skills Program
DANTES
PACE
TA
A

DANTES

312
Q
At what rank will officers be assigned a precedence number?
ENS
LTJG
LT
LCDR
A

LTJG

313
Q

When submitting correction for the Register for active duty personnel, submit corrections by message to PERS 85.
True
False

A

False

314
Q
What officers are assigned both lineal and precedence numbers?
Active duty
Reservists
TAR
All of the above
A

TAR

315
Q
What instruction(s) gives detailed information for travel of Officers and Enlisted dependents?
DOD 4500.9R Part I
OPNBAVINST 4650.15
JFTR
Both a and b
A

Both a and b

316
Q
Who is responsible for implementing DOD/Navy Passenger Transportation policy and overall traffic management progr
SATO
NAVPTO
PSD
All of the above
A

NAVPTO

317
Q
What is the SSIC 1321 specifically used for?
Assignment and distribution
Orders for officers
Orders for enlisted
Personnel request for officers
A

Orders for officers

318
Q
What is the SSIC 1626 specifically used for?
Discipline of enlisted personnel
Discipline of officers
Shore patrol and police matters
confinement
A

Discipline of enlisted personnel

319
Q
What is the SSIC 1421 specifically used for?
Advancement in rate
Temporary promotion
Selection board requirements
Reduction in rank/rate
A

Temporary promotion

320
Q
What publication was developed for the purpose of providing PLAs, AIGs, and CAD assignments to the US Navy, Marin
SNDL
NTP-3 SUPP-1(L)
NTP-4
All of the above
A

NTP-3 SUPP-1(L)

321
Q
What is used at the end of a PLA when the office code is unknown?
ADMOFF
OIC
CO
JJJ
A

JJJ

322
Q
Who develops and is responsible for promulgating the NTP-3 SUPP-1(L)?
SECNAV
COMNAVCPUTELCOM
CNO
BUPERS
A

COMNAVCPUTELCOM

323
Q
What publication issues regulations and guidance governing the conduct of all members of the US Navy?
Navy Regulations Manual
SORM
UCMJ
JAGMAN
A

SORM

324
Q

Delegation of authority should be delegated to the lowest level of competence commensurate with the subordinates ass
True
False

A

True

325
Q
Who has the authority to assign EMI to be performed during working hours?
CO/XO/DH
CPO/LPO
Petty Officer in Charge
All of the above
A

All of the above

326
Q

Ribbons will be worn in what order of precedence?

Military decorations, unit awards, campaign service awards

Unit awards, personal awards, campaign service awards

Personal awards, campaign service awards, military decorations

military decorations, campaign service awards, unit awards

A

Military decorations, unit awards, campaign service awards

327
Q
The combat action ribbon falls under which category of award?
military decorations
personal award
campaign service award
unit award
A

military decorations

328
Q
Which of the following awards may also be awarded to armed forces of a friendly foreign nation?
purple heart
NCM
MSM
NAM
A

NAM

329
Q

Which of the following awards are not authorized for wear on the Navy uniform?
Air Force Small Arms Expert Ribbon
Coast Guard “E” Ribbon
Army Reserved Component Achievement Medal
Airman Medal

A

Air Force Small Arms Expert Ribbon

330
Q
What attachment device is worn on the Battle "E" for four or more awards?
EEE
EEEE
1 wreathed E
EEE and 1 wreathed E
A

1 wreathed E

331
Q
Although correspondence must be neat in appearance, what number of legible ink changes are permitted on a page?
1
2
3
none
A

2

332
Q
Normally, when should routine correspondence be answered?
48 hrs
5 working days
10 working days
when complete
A

10 working days

333
Q
What is the time frame for answering Freedom of Information and Privacy Act requests?
48 hrs
5 working days
10 working days
when complete
A

10 working days

334
Q
What directive defines the security requirements for file cabinets that contain classified material?
OPNAVINST 5510.1H
SECNAVINST 5510.30A
SECNAVINST 5216.5
SECNAVINST 5510.36
A

SECNAVINST 5510.36

335
Q
What does the first digit of a SSIC number reflect
General
Primary
Secondary
Tertiary
A

General

336
Q
How should unclassified and classified records be destroyed if you are at sea?
shredding
burning
pulping
throw overboard
A

burning

337
Q
What is the maximum number of digits contained in a SSIC?
4
14
5
7
A

5

338
Q
What directive outlines the organizational structure of the Department of the Navy and issues the principles and policies
SORM
UCMJ
JAGMAN
US Navy Regulations
A

US Navy Regulations

339
Q
How many sections are there to the EDVR?
8
10
11
12
A

12

340
Q
What is NAVPERS 1070/600?
Officer Service Record
Enlisted Service Record
History of assignments
Administrative remarks
A

Enlisted Service Record

341
Q
What is NAVPERS 1070/66?
Officer Service Record
Enlisted Service Record
History of assignments
Administrative remarks
A

Officer Service Record

342
Q
Who is responsible for FSR?
Commanding Officer
Enlisted Member
Executive Officer
Both a and b
A

Both a and b

343
Q
What is the maximum of unconditional and conditional (TOTAL) agreements to extend an enlistment per enlistment?
12 months
36 months
48 months
60 months
A

48 months

344
Q
How many special section are there in the EDVR?
1
2
3
4
A

2

345
Q
Who assigns the Activities Code?
CNO
SECNAV
EPMAC
BUPERS
A

CNO

346
Q

The Date of Report represents the day of the month the ODCR was reported?
TRUE
FALSE

A

TRUE

347
Q
What Activity Category Code is 109?
Assignment for Duty
Limited Duty
Deserter
Temporary Active Duty
A

Deserter

348
Q
What Activity Category Code is 105?
Assignment for Duty
Limited Duty
Deserter
Temporary Active Duty
A

Limited

349
Q
Which of the following SSIC numbers represents a general subject?
5000
5200
5210
5211
A

5000

350
Q
Which of the following SSIC numbers represents a primary subject
5000
5200
5210
5211
A

5200

351
Q
How long are Fitreps held by the Reporting Senior?
2
3
5
indefinitely
A

5 Years

352
Q
How long are Fitreps/Evals held by the Reporting Senior?
2
3
5
indefinitely
A

5 Years

353
Q
What form is used to recommend a personal award?
SECNAV 1650/3
OPNAV 1650/3
NAVPERS 1650/3
DD FORM 1650/3
A

OPNAV 1650/3

354
Q
What amount of time may an officer and enlisted reports be extended?
2 weeks
1 month
3 months
6 months
A

3 months

355
Q

An evaluation period will never exceed 15 months.
TRUE
FALSE

A

TRUE

356
Q
How many copies are made for enlisted FITREPS and EVALS?
1
2
3
4
A

3

357
Q

A report is required upon a member’s death?
TRUE
FALSE

A

FALSE

358
Q
What manual contains the qualifications and restrictions for members assigned to a courts-martial?
JAGMAN
MILPERSMAN
UCMJ
MCM
A

MCM

359
Q

Handwritten addresses are authorized for official mail.
TRUE
FALSE

A

FALSE

360
Q
Personal mail will be returned to sender if it has not been signed for in how many days.
3
2
5
10
A

5

361
Q

Reading of the Plan of the Day is optional by all hands.
TRUE
FALSE

A

FALSE