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yellow book Flashcards

1
Q

If the pH and the BiCarb are both in the same direction then it is?

A

metabolic

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2
Q

If the pH is up it is?

A

Alkalosis

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3
Q

As the pH goes so goes my patient except for?

A

potassium

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4
Q

If the pH is down it is?

A

acidosis

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5
Q

If the pH is up my patient with show signs and symptoms of?

A

Increase… like tachycardia,diarrhea and borborygmi

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6
Q

If the pH is down my patient will show signs and symtoms of?

A

Decrease… like decreased output, bradycardia and constipation

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7
Q

If my pH is up my potassium (K+) is ?

A

down

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8
Q

If my pH is down my potassium (K+) is?

A

up

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9
Q

If my patient is overventilating I should choose?

A

respiratory alkalosis

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10
Q

If my patient is underventilating I should choose?

A

respiratory acidosis

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11
Q

If my patient has prolonged gastric vomiting or suction I choose?

A

metabolic alkalosis

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12
Q

If it is not lung or prolonged vomiting or suctioning I choose?

A

metabolic acidosis

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13
Q

Kussmal Respirations

A

Metabolic Acidosis ( Remember MacKussmal)

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14
Q

Before measuing ABGs you should check what?

A

Allen’s test. Should be positive. Pt makes a fist and pressure is applied to the ulnar and the radial arteries Ulnar pressure is released and color should return in 7 seconds (means it’s positive and OK to take ABG’s).

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15
Q

Definition of Compensation

A

PH is normal! It is never compensated if it is abnormal.

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16
Q

If PH normal

A

look in the direction it is going. Closer to Acidic? (7.35) acidosis.

Then look at Bicarb & figure out which is abnormal. If Bicarb is out of range, it’s metabolic acidosis.
If C02 is abnormal, it’s Respiratory Acidosis :)

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17
Q

If your pt is acidotic and you need to pick a symptom

A

Pick the symptom where everything is DOWN. ( And vice Versa)

Ex: 2 degree Morbitz Type 2 BLOCK.

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18
Q

If you don’t know what causes an acid base balance, pick

A

metabolic acidosis

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19
Q

If in doubt in ABGs, always pick

A

Headache, nausea, weakness & numbness+ tingling. It can be either up or down.

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20
Q

High pressure alarms are triggered when?

A

They cannot push air in

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21
Q

High pressure alarms are caused by what three types of obstructions?

A

Kinking, Water in dependant loops and mucus in the airway.

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22
Q

If kinking in the tube is present you?

A

unkink

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23
Q

If water is present in the dependant loops you?

A

Open system and empty water.

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24
Q

If mucus is present you?

A

Turn them, cough and have them deeo breath first. If ineffective you then suction.

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25
Q

Don’t suction unless

A

Coughing & deep breathing is deemed inappropriate.

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26
Q

In order to suction, you must be able to hear

A

mucus in the lung

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27
Q

Low pressure alarms are triggered when?

A

it is easy to push are in

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28
Q

Low pressure alarms are normally caused by?

A

disconnection

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29
Q

If the tubing is disconnected you?

A

reconnect

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30
Q

If O2 sensor line is disconnected you?

A

reconnect

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31
Q

In a vented client respiratory alkalosis means the vent setting may be too?

A

high

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32
Q

In a vented client respiratory acidosis means the vent may be too?

A

low

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33
Q

What do you do if the patients disconnected tube is on the floor?

A

Bag them, (call for help) get new tube and then reconnect.

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34
Q

First question to ask if the low pressure alarm sounds

A

where is the tubing?

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35
Q

HOLD

A

H- High Pressure
O- Obstruction
L- Low
D- Disconnections

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36
Q

Never put anything in YOUR scope of practice

A

on anyone else

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37
Q

Make sure your answer is

A

patient focused
TAKE CARE OF YOUR PATIENT!
Don’t answer based on staff, building, machine, etc.
PATIENT FIRST.

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38
Q

What does wean mean?

A

decrease gradually

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39
Q

What do you do if the patients disconnected tube is on the chest?

A

Reconnect … if its above the waist its ok.

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40
Q

Remember is PSYCH if you are asked to Prioritize, Don’t forget

A

MASLOW!

  1. Physiological
  2. Safety
  3. Comfort - Includes pain
  4. Psychological
  5. Social
  6. Spiritual
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41
Q

When prioritizing, always use Maslow + ABCs

A

For one patient. Don’t if you have more than one patient.

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42
Q

What is the biggest problem in abuse?

A

denial

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43
Q

To treat denial you need to?

A

confront them

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44
Q

Definition of Denial

A

Refusal to accept reality of their problem

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45
Q

How do you confront?

A

Point out the difference between what they say and what they do.

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46
Q

What is the one circumstance that you as a nurse would support denial?

A

loss and grief

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47
Q

always go

A

med surgery first then psych

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48
Q

what is dependency?

A

When the abuser gets a significant other so make decisions for them or do thing for them.

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49
Q

what is codependency?

A

When the significant other gets positive self esteem from doing things or making decisions for an abuser.

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50
Q

To treat dependency/codependency you ?

A

Set limits and enforce them.

Say NO and follow through.
Agree in advance on what requests are allowed, then enforce the agreement.

Work on self esteem of the codependent.

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51
Q

what is manipulation?

A

When the abuser gets the significant other fo do things for them that is not in the best interest of the significant other. This can be dangerous and harmful to the significant other.

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52
Q

How do you treat manipulation?

A

set limits and enforce

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53
Q

Why is manipulation easier to treat then dependency/codependency?

A

Because no one likes being manipulated.

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54
Q

DABDA

A 
D- Denial
A- Anger
B- Bargaining
D- Depression
A- Acceptance
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55
Q

Psych Needs, In order

A

Denial
Depend
Manipulation

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56
Q

To address a patient’s psychological needs, they must be:

A

STABLE, safe, comfortable.

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57
Q

pain

A

Never killed anyone. NOT the top priority, especially if there are physiological needs in the question that make the patient unstable

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58
Q

What is Wernickes (Korsakoffs) Syndrome?

A

Psychosis induced by vitamin B1 (Thiamine) deficiency.

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59
Q

Symptom of Wernickes Korsakoffs syndrome?

A

Amnesia with confabulation.

= Loss of memory with making up stories to fill in the gaps.

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60
Q

Vitamin B1 helps breakdown?

A

alcohol

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61
Q

So without B1 what happens?

A

Alcohol isn’t metabolized correctly goes to the brain and causes Wernickes

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62
Q

Primary symptom of Wernickes?

A

Amnesia with confabulation (making up stories).

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63
Q

Is Wernickes preventable?

A

yes- take vitamin B1

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64
Q

Is Wernickes arrestable?

A

yes- take vitamin B1

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65
Q

Is Wernickes reversible?

A

no

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66
Q

What is the goal of patients dementia/organic brain syndrome?

A

maintain function, never improve

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67
Q

What is aversion therapy?

A

when you try and make the patient hate something

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68
Q

Antabuse onset and duration is?

A

2 weeks

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69
Q

Teach a patient taking Antabuse to avoid what?

A

alcohol

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70
Q

On top of alcohol a patient taking Antabuse should also avoid what other 7 things?

A 
Alcohol
Aftershave, Cologne, Perfumes
Insect Repellent
Elixirs
Vanilla Extract
Vinaigrettes
Handsanitizer 
Alcohol Prep Pads
Vanilla Icing
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71
Q

How long does it take for Antabuse to get out of the system so they can drink Alcohol again?

A

2 weeks

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72
Q

What are Elixirs?

A

95% of liquids. If it is not an antibiotic, assume it is an elixir, so the patient can’t have it if on antabuse.

This rule applies for diabetics too (elixers also have sugar).

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73
Q

What happens if a person on Antabuse ingests alcohol?

A

Nausea, Vomiting, & Possibly Death

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74
Q

In Overdose VS Withdrawal, Ask yourself?

A

Is this drug an upper or a downer?

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75
Q

What are the five uppers?

A

Caffeine, Cocaine, Methamphetamines, PCP/LSD and ADHD Meds, Bath Salts

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76
Q

downers are?

A 
Everything other then the five uppers.
Heroin
Ativan
Valiumn
Fetanyl
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77
Q

S/Sx of uppers are?

A 
Everything goes up
Tachycardia
Increased BP
Irritability 
Fever 
Diarrhea 
\+4 Reflexes
Pupil Dilation
Excitability
Seizures
Borborygmi
ETC.
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78
Q

s/sx of downers are?

A 
Everything goes down
Bradycardia
Lethargy 
Constricted Pupils
Hyporeflexia
Flaccidity 
Respiratory Depression
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79
Q

with uppers and downers ask yourself?

A

Are they talking about Overdose or Withdrawal?

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80
Q

Overdose/Intoxication:

A

I have too much…

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81
Q

withdrawal:

A

I dont have enough

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82
Q

Overdose of a downer causes everything to go?

A

down

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83
Q

Overdose of an upper causes everything to go?

A

up

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84
Q

Withdrawal of an upper causes everything to go?

A

down

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85
Q

Withdrawal of a downer causes everything to go?

A

up

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86
Q

Upper withdrawal looks like

A

downer overdose

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87
Q

Downer Withdrawal looks like

A

upper overdose

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88
Q

At birth if the mother was addicted to a substance always assume the newborn is?

A

overdosed

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89
Q

If 24 hours after birth assume the baby is in?

A

withdrawal

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90
Q

Every alcoholic goes through what withing 24 hours after cessation?

A

Alcohol Withdrawal syndrome

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91
Q

What is Alcohol Withdrawal Syndrome?

A

Hyper irritability state less than 24 hours after the first drink

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92
Q

After 72 hours of alochol withdrawal a small minority may get?

A

delirium tremens

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93
Q

Can Delirium Tremens kill you?

A

yes

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94
Q

Can Alcohol Withdrawal Syndrome kill you?

A

no

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95
Q

Are patients with Alcohol Withdrawal Syndrome a danger to themselves or others?

A

no

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96
Q

Are patients with Delirium Tremens a danger to themselves or others?

A

yes

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97
Q

N/I for Delirium Tremens?

A 
Private room near nurses station
NPO/Clear liquids
Restricted bed rest
Restraints, tranquilizer, multivitamin (B1 Vitamin/Thiamine) 
Antihypertensive.
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98
Q

N/I for Alcohol Withdrawal Syndrome?

A 
Semi-private room anywhere
Regular diet
Up and ad-lib, no restraint
Tranquilizer
Multivitamin (B1/Thiamine) 
Antihypertensive.
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99
Q

A two point restraint is?

A

One arm and the opposite leg.

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100
Q

N/I for restraints?

A

Check Q15min

Rotate sites Q2H

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101
Q

All aminoglycosides end in?

A

“mycin” Vancomycin

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102
Q

For Aminoglycosides, think:

A

a mean old mycin

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103
Q

Aminoglycosides treat?

A

Big gun antibiotics.

Treat serious, life threatening, resistant infections

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104
Q

If it has “thro” in it you?

A

Throw it out…Zithromycin.

It treats a minor infection

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105
Q

Toxic effects of aminoglycosides?

A

Ototoxicity
Nephrotoxicity
Cranial nerve 8 (vestibulocochlear nerve) which senses sound.

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106
Q

The one Aminoglycoside that doesn’t end in Mycin?

A

amikacin

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107
Q

What is another word for aminoglycoside?

A

glycopeptide

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108
Q

Monitor what with aminoglycoside use?

A

Hearing, balance, tinnitus & creatinine (best indicator of renal function)

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109
Q

Best indicator of aminoglycoside toxicity?

A

Ototoxicity (Ears)

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110
Q

Frequency of administration for aminoglycosides?

A

Q8H

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111
Q

Aminoglycoside route of administration?

112
Q

Aminoglycosides are given PO for what two reasons?

A

Hepatic Encephalopathy and Pre-op bowel surgery.

113
Q

What is Hepatic Encephalopathy also called?

A

Liver Coma, Ammonia-Induced Encephalopathy

114
Q

If fluid resuscitation is used in shock, there will be

A

increased urine output

115
Q

Neomycin and Kanmycin are used for what?

A

Bowel sterilzation?

Can also be given for C.Diff

116
Q

Who can sterilize my bowel?

A

“Neo” “Kan”

117
Q

If you give aminoglycosides PO, do you have to worry about side effects?

118
Q

Hepatic Encephalopathy is caused by?

A

high ammonia levels

119
Q

What raises ammonia levels the most?

A

ecoli in the gut

120
Q

Why do you draw TAP levels?

A

narrow therapeutic window

121
Q

When do you draw a trough level?

A

30 minutes before the next scheduled dose.

122
Q

When do you draw a sublingual peak level?

A

5-10 minutes after it is dissolved.

123
Q

When do you draw a IV peak level?

A

15-30 minutes after dose is finished.

124
Q

When do you draw a IM peak level?

A

30-60 minutes after given

125
Q

If you must pick a time to draw the peak, pick the highest amount of time without going over the limits

A

So for IV, Pick 30 Minutes, not 15.

126
Q

Category A Bio terrorism Agents

A

most lethal

127
Q

What are the Category A Bio terrorism Agents?

A 
Smallpox
Tularemia 
Anthrax
Plague 
Hemorrhagic Fever, Such as Ebola
Botulism
128
Q

category B

A

a big ling list

129
Q

Category C. Not very Lethal

A

Hanta Virus

Nipeh Virus

130
Q

Small Pox Early Detection Symptom

A

Rash that starts around the mouth

131
Q

small pox

A

Inhalation. Pt on AIRBORNE Precautions

Dies from Septicemia. No treatment

132
Q

Tularemia

A

Inhalation
Chest Symptoms
Dies from RESPIRATORY FAILURE
Treat with Streptomycin

133
Q

Anthrax spreads by

A

Inhalation (AIRBORNE PRECAUTIONS)

134
Q

Anthrax looks like

A

Respiratory FLU

135
Q

Anthrax death occurs from?

A

Respiratory Failure

136
Q

Treat Anthrax with

A

Cipro, Penicillin, Streptomycin

137
Q

Plague spreads by

A

inhalation

138
Q

3 H’s of Plague

A

Blood Everywhere.
H- emoptysis - Coughing up blood
H-ematemesis - Blood in Vomitus
H-ematochezia - Bright red blood in the diarrhea

139
Q

Plague patients die by

A

DIC and respiratory Distress

140
Q

Hemorrhagic Illnesses (Like Ebola)

A

Petechiae and ecchymoses

= Pinpoint Hemorrhage, especially on Chest & Bruising

141
Q

Botulism is

A

Ingested - Most Lethal

Dies from Respiratory Arrest

142
Q

3 Major Symptoms of Botulism

A

Descending Paralysis (Starts in face and goes down)
Fever
But is Alert

143
Q

Gullian Barre

A

Ascending Paralysis

144
Q

Chemical Agents

A

Mustard Gas, Cyanide, and Phosgine Chlorine

145
Q

Mustard Gas The Chemical Agent causes

146
Q

Cyanide The Chemical Agent Causes

A

Respiratory Arrest.

147
Q

What do you use to treat Cyanide Poisoning?

A

Sodium Thiosulfate IV

148
Q

What does Phosgine Chloride Cause

149
Q

Sarin, the Nerve Agent, Causes

A

Massive Cholinergic parasympathic response

150
Q

Cholinergic, Parasympathetic effects cause?

A 
B-ronchorrhea
B-ronchospasm
S-Salivation
L-acrimating
U-rinating Constantly 
D-iaphoretic + Diarrhea 
G-I distress
E-mesis
151
Q

Ebola (Hemorrhagic Fever) Precautions

A

Standard, Contact, and Droplet

152
Q

All chemical agents require only soap and water except for Sarin, which requires

A

A WEAK Bleach

153
Q

What do you do in a Chemical Attack?

A

Decontaminate + Treat

154
Q

What is the Nurse’s role in Chemical Decontamination?

A

Put clothes in Biohazard bag that gets burned
Put them in a Government Issued suit
They may need to be housed for a while

155
Q

Biochemical Attack, what do you do?

A

Quarrentine

156
Q

Calcium Channel Blockers are like what for the heart?

157
Q

Calcium Channel Blockers

A

Negative Ino, Chrono, Dromo

158
Q

Calcium Channel Blockers treat what? (the 6 A’s)

A

Antihypertensive, Anti-Anginal, Anti Atrial Arrythmia and SVTS

159
Q

Calcium Channel Blocker side effects? (the 2 H’s)

A

Headache and Hypotension

Also Bradycardia

160
Q

Calcium Channel Blockers treat what Arrhythmias starting with?

A

A, as well as SVT

161
Q

What causes angina?

A

Chest pain due to decreased O2 supply and demand issues.

162
Q

What do Anti-Anginal Medications do?

A

Decrease O2 demand on the Heart, allowing more O2 to chest (dilate)

163
Q

90% of Calcium Channel Blockers end in?

A

“dipine” and “zem”

164
Q

When giving a Calcium Channel Blocker you hold and notify if?

A

Systolic is 100 or lower.

165
Q

“QRS” refers to?

A

ventricular

166
Q

“P” refers to?

167
Q

Asystole is?

A

A lack of QRS repolarizations

168
Q

Asystole

A

TX: Epinephrine

Think Heart Stimulant

169
Q

Atrail Flutter is?

A

Rapid P-wave repolarizations in a saw tooth pattern.

170
Q

Atrial Flutter

A

Pharmacological therapy, such as beta blockers, antiarrhythmics, or calcium-channel blockers, need frequent monitoring of EKG rhythm strips, heart sounds, and apical pulse rate. (Unlikely to ask this)

171
Q

Atrial- Fib is?

A

Chaotic QRS depolarizations

172
Q

Atrial Fibrillation

A

Chaotic Between QRS, but QRS is still PRESENT.
HR Has to be Irregular.
Treatment:
Heparin. IMMEDIATELY.

173
Q

What do you do if the A-fib is unwitnessed?

A
  1. Heparin First
  2. Cardioversion
  3. ADENOsine 8 second Push- Watch for the pt to go into Asystole
    BETA Blocker
    CALCIum Channel Blockers
    DIGitalis (Lanoxin)
174
Q

V-fib is?

A

Chaotic QRS depolarizations

175
Q

Ventricular Fibrillation

A

TX: Shock therapy.

you DE-FIB.

176
Q

V-tach is?

A

Wide bizarre QRS’s

177
Q

Ventricular Tachycardia

A

Treatment: Lidocaine & amniodarone

178
Q

SVT - Subventricular Tachycardia

A 
Narrow QRS.
Treatment:
A-denosine 8 second Push- Watch for the pt to go into Asystole 
B-eta Blocker
C- Calcium Channel Blockers
D- igitalis (Lanoxin)
179
Q

PVC is?

A

Periodic wide, bizarre QRS’s

180
Q

PVC

A

PVC is the deviation in the picture from the normal QRS.

Treatment is Lidocaine & Aminodorone

181
Q

Be concerned about PVC’s if? ( rule of 6’s)

A

More then 6 per minute, 6 in a row

182
Q

What are the 2 lethal arrythmias?

A

A-systole and V-Fib (Pic if V-Fib, Asystole is Flat Lining)

183
Q

What are the 4 potentially life threatening arrythmias?

A

V-tach, A-fib, A-flutter and PVC

184
Q

What are the 6 arrythmias you are tested over on the NCLEX?

A

V-fib, A-fib, A-flutter, PVC, A-systole and V-tach

185
Q

What are the 6 arrythmias for NCLEX in order for prioritization?

A

A-systole, V-fib, V-tach, A-fib, A-flutter and PVC

186
Q

When talking about arrythmias the word “chaotic” means?

A

Fibrillation

187
Q

When talking about arrythmias the word ‘bizarre” means?

188
Q

PVC’s fall on what wave of the previous beat?

189
Q

When prioritizing lethal arrhythmias, if one happened 6 minutes ago and the other happened 15 minutes ago, which do you choose?

A

Always choose the closest to the 8 minute mark.

After 8 minutes the survival rate is LOW.

190
Q

To treat PVC’s you give?

A

Lidocaine/Amnioderone

191
Q

To treat V-tach you give? (If it starts with V you use..)

A

Lidocaine/Amnioderone

192
Q

To treat supraventricular arrythmias you give?

A

Adeno
Beta
Calci
Dig (Lonoxin)

193
Q

Supra means?

194
Q

To treat V-fib you ?

A

Defibrillate …

For V-fib you D-fib

195
Q

To treat AsystolE you give?

A

CPR
Epinephrine (atropine no longer given)
Oxygen

196
Q

If asked how to treat A-fib first you?

A

Give Heparin then ABCD…. Heparin is instant Warfarin and Plavix take time.

197
Q

What is the purpose of Chest Tubes?

A

To re-establish negative pressure in the pleural space

198
Q

Pneumothorax removes

199
Q

Hemothorax removes

200
Q

Pneumohemothorax

A

air and blood

201
Q

An Apical chest tube is placed?

A

High (for air) A for air

202
Q

A Basilar chest tube is placed?

A

Low (for blood) B for blood

203
Q

Chest tubes after a surgery or trauma assumes it’s a?

A

Unilateral Pneumohemothorax

204
Q

Does a pneumonectomy get a chest tube?

A

No..removes the pleural space

205
Q

Patient Positioning after Chest Surgery

A

Chest Tube Up, good side down

206
Q

Patient Positioning after Chest Surgery

A

Operative side (Good lung up) Or Back (Supine)

207
Q

What 4 things do you do if the water seal breaks on a chest tube?

A

Clamp it 1st!!
Cut broken device off of tube
Put the tube in water (NS)
Unclamp.

208
Q

What do you do if you kick over the collection bottle?

A

Set it back up

Tell the patient to take some deep breaths

209
Q

What is the BEST thing to do if the water seal breaks?

A

Put it in water (NS).

the first= clamp it

210
Q

What 4 things do you do if a chest tube comes out?

A

Cover hole with a gloved hand
Put on a vaseline gauze dressing,
Put on sterile dressing and then tape on 3 sides.

211
Q

How many chest tubes (and where) for a Unilateral Pneumohemothorax ?

A

2 chest tubes, One side (Unilateral) one apical (for air/pneumo) and one basal (for blood-hemo)

212
Q

How many chest tubes (and where) for bilateral Pneumothorax?

A

Bilateral- chest tubes on both sides
Pneumo- (air) Apical
= 2 apical chest tubes (one on each side)

213
Q

How many chest tubes (And Where) for post-op chest surgery?

A

Unilateral, pneumohemo (2 chest tubes, one side, apical and basal)
Assume Chest trauma is a gunshot wound.

214
Q

Straight Catheter is to a foley catheter

A

Like a Thoracentesis is to a Chest Tube :)

meaning less invasive, less infection risk

215
Q

How long can you clamp a chest tube?

A

No longer then 15 seconds without a doctors order.

216
Q

What do you use to clamp a chest tube and why?

A

Rubber tipped double clamps.

Rubber because it won’t pierce the tube and double because were nurses and if one is good two is better.

217
Q

Is bubbling in the water seal continuously good?

A

No it is bad.

You need to find the air leak, tape it, report it and then record it.

218
Q

Is bubbling in the water seal intermittently good?

A

Yes it should tidal on inhalation

219
Q

Is bubbling in the suction control chamber intermittently good?

A

No it is bad.

You need to dial up the suction, report and record.

220
Q

Is bubbling in the suction control chanber continuously good?

221
Q

When picking answers, narrow it down to two, then ask yourself

A

If i did this, but not this, what would be the outcome? Is it better?

222
Q

In routine care, do you ever clamp a chest tube?

A

No. In an emergency, you can.

223
Q

When picking answers ask yourself ?

A

Which one is MOST important to leave undone. More so than the others.

224
Q

All congenital heart defects that are trouble start with a ?

225
Q

Which exception to the rule of congenital heart defects doesn’t start with a T?

A

Left Ventricular Hypoplastic Syndrome

226
Q

What defects have right to left shunts and are cyanotic?

A

Trouble defects

227
Q

What defects have left to right shunts and are acyanotic?

A

Not trouble defects

228
Q

All congenital heart defects have what?

A

Murmur and an echocardiogram done

229
Q

What are the four defects of Tetrology of Fellot?

A

Ventricular Defect, Pulmonic Stenosis, Overriding Aorta and Right Hypertrophy

230
Q

What is the saying to help remember the four defects of Tetrology of Fellot?

A

VarieD PictureS Of A RancH

231
Q

1 fingerwidth is how many cm’s?

232
Q

How to measure crutches

A

2-3 cm/fingerwidths below anterior AXILLARY FOLD to a point lateral and slightly in front of the foot

233
Q

When measuring crutches, don’t pick

A

any foot landmark like a “toe” or “heel”

234
Q

When the handgrip of a crutch is properly in place the elbow felxion should be?

A

30 degrees

235
Q

If crutch is not 30*, what will happen?

A

nerve damage

236
Q

Crutches should be how many fingerwidths below the armpit?

237
Q

Describe a 2 point gait?

A
  1. one crutch and opposite foot together
  2. Other crutch and other foor together.
    2 points 2gether and the same time.
238
Q

Describe a 3 point gait?

A
  1. Move two crutches and bad leg together.
  2. Move good foot.
    Move all three together and then the good leg.
239
Q

Describe a 4 point gait?

A

NOTHING moves together
1. Right crutch 2. Left foot. 3. Left crutch. 4. Right foot.
It moves one at a time so 1,2,3,4 and 1,2,3,4, and 1,2,3,4

240
Q

Describe swing through?

A

traditional crutching

241
Q

Who uses Swing Through?

A

Amputees, non weight bearing (sprain/break)

242
Q

Use the even numbered gaits when weakness is?

A

Evenly distributed (bilateral)

Remember, Even for Even, Odd for Odd

243
Q

When using the even gaits what one is for severe and what one for mild problems?

A

2 point gait for mild 4 point gait for severe.

244
Q

4 point gait for what?

A

Fresh Post Op

245
Q

If the question says “systemic disease” when it comes to crutches

A

Assume it impacts both legs

246
Q

Use the odd numbered gait when?

A

The problem is affecting one leg (unilateral)

247
Q

When going up the stairs or down the stairs with crutched remember?

A

UP with the GOOD and DOWN with the BAD

248
Q

Crutches always move with what leg?

A

the bad leg

249
Q

What side do you hold the cane?

A

strong side

250
Q

What side do you advance the cane with?

A

The weak side for a wide base support.

Step with opposites

251
Q

For walkers remember you?

A

Pick it up, set it down and walk to it.

252
Q

Remember for walkers that you

A

Always push, never pull
NO tennis balls on legs
If you put something on the
walker, make it the side not front

253
Q

A non psychotic person has

A

insight and is reality based

254
Q

A psychotic person has

A

has

No Insight and is Not reality based

255
Q

Not all psych patients are

A

Psychotic. Show this in your answers!

256
Q

7 Hallucinatory Words

A 
Look
See
Listen
Hear
Feel
Taste
Smell
257
Q

If the question has “appear” in psych, it is

A

A delusion ( a belief)

258
Q

What is a delusion?

A

A false fixed belief, idea or thought.

This has no sensory component.

259
Q

What are the three types of delusions?

A

Paranoid or Persecutory,
Grandiose
and Somatic

260
Q

What is a paranoid delusion?

A

False fixed belief that people are out to harm you (CIA, FBI).

261
Q

What is a grandiose delusion?

A

False fixed belief that you are superior (God, the Pope).

262
Q

What is a somatic delusion?

A

False fixed belief about a body part (X-ray vision).

263
Q

What is a hallucination?

A

False, fixed sensory experience.

264
Q

Five types of hallucinations?

A 
Auditory, 
visual,
tactile (feel)
olfactory
gustatory (taste)
265
Q

Most common type of hallucination?

A

Auditory (Especially Command)

266
Q

What is an illusion?

A

Misinterpretation of reality.

It is a sensory experience.

267
Q

How can you diffirentiate between illusions and hallucinations?

A

Illusion: Sensory response to something in reality [the news (reality) is talking TO them (illusion)]

Hallucination: Sensory response but nothing in reality pertains

268
Q

Don’t treat all Psych patients

A

The same/like they are psychotic

269
Q

Example of an illusion?

A

The clock on the wall is a bomb (the clock is real, but the belief isn’t)

270
Q

What are the four types of functional psychosis?

A

Schizophrenia
Schizoaffective disorder,
Major depression/mania (bipolar).
(SCHIZO SCHIZO MAJOR MANIC)

271
Q

Functional Psychotics have WHAT

A

The potential to learn reality

272
Q

If a functional psychotic is having a delusion or illusion you?

A

Acknowledge the feeling ( I see you are upset),
Present reality (but we have no spiders in the room)
Set a limit ( we’re not going to talk about that lets talk about something else)
Enforce the limit ( I see you’re to ill to talk about reality).

Follow with : We have medication to treat those symptoms

273
Q

NEVER set limits on

274
Q

Present reality

A

positively

275
Q

Example of presenting reality positively:

A

Tell them what they CAN do instead of what they CAN’T do.

MK yellow book (1 decks)

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