Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Symposia > Year 3 (Clinical) > Flashcards

Year 3 (Clinical) Flashcards

0
Q

Define Kennedy Class I

A

Bilateral free end saddles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
1
Q

Define Kennedy Class II

A

Unilateral free end saddle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Define Kennedy Class III

A

Bounded saddle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Define Kennedy Class IV

A

Bounded saddle that crosses the mid line

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What are the components of a partial denture

A
  1. Saddles
  2. Rests
  3. Clasp
  4. Reciprocating component
  5. Major connector
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What are the two types of clasp for partial denture and where are they used?

A
  1. Occlusally approaching clasp: molars

2. Gingivally approaching clasp: premolars and canines

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

How much gutta percha should be left apically for a post prep?

A

4mm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

How much dentine should remain surrounding the post?

A

1mm dentine lateral to the post

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Why are grooves incorporated into post preparation?

A
  1. To provide resistance (to the lateral forces subjected on the tooth daily)
  2. NOT mainly for retention
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Where should post preparation be avoided?

A
  1. Upper first premolars (canine fossa leads to perforation)
  2. Oval shaped root of lower premolars causes circular para post to have low retention inside the canal (use custom post instead)
  3. Mesial root of lower molars
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What are the uses of a facebow transfer?

A
  1. Allows suitable orientation of the occlusal plane
  2. Allows the maxillary cast to be mounted on the articulator in the correct anatomical position
  3. Transfers relationship of the maxilla and mandibular rotation points to the articulator
    * Facebow has nothing to do with ICP or OVD
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What are the different methods of recording impression for crowns and bridges?

A
  1. One stage impression (putty and wash recorded together)*
  2. Two staged unspaced (putty is recorded first and then relined with wash)
  3. Two staged spaced (putty is recorded with space allocated for wash)
    a) Using polythene spacer
    b) Recording putty impression before tooth preparation
    c) Gouging away putty and providing escape channels for wash
    * recommended as it is more accurate
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Define combination syndrome

A

Dental condition seen in patients with completely edentulous maxilla and partially edentulous mandible with preserved anterior teeth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

List features of combination syndrome

A
  1. Mandibular ridge resorption
  2. Flabby maxillary ridge
  3. Enlarged tuberosities
  4. Over erupted lower incisors
    * try to avoid anterior guidance in combination syndrome
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What are features of the Every denture?

A
  1. All connector borders are at least 3mm from gingival margins
  2. Open design of the saddle/tooth junction is employed
  3. Point contacts between artificial teeth and abutment teeth to reduce lateral stresses to a minimum
  4. Posterior wire stops are included to prevent distal drift of the posterior teeth (also contribute to bracing action posteriorly)
  5. Flanges are included to assist bracing of denture
  6. Lateral stresses are reduced by relying on guidance from remaining natural teeth to disclude the denture teeth on excursion
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is the act that governs the licensing, sale, supply, labelling and packaging of medicinal product?

A

The Medical Act of 1968

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Under The Medical Act of 1968, what can a GDP prescribe under the NHS?

A
  1. General sales list medicines
  2. Pharmacy medicines
  3. Prescription only medicine
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Under The Medical Act of 1968, what can’t a GDP prescribe under the NHS?

A
  1. Unlicensed medicine

2. Medical device

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What are features of general sales list medicines?

A
  1. Sold or supplied other than the direction of a pharmacist
  2. Can be purchased at retail outlet
  3. Eg;
    a) Ibuprofen
    b) Chlorhexidane mouthwash
    c) Fluoride toothpaste <1500ppm
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What are the features of pharmacy medicines?

A
  1. Only from a pharmacy
  2. Under the direction of a pharmacist
  3. Can be sold over the counter without a prescription
  4. Can be prescribed by a dentist, doctor or recognised non-medical practitioner
  5. Eg;
    a) Corsodyl dental gel
    b) Flouride tablets
    c) Miconazole oral gel
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What are examples of prescription only medicines?

A
  1. All oral antibiotics
  2. Duraphat toothpaste or any toothpaste >1500ppm
  3. Aciclovir tablets
  4. Topical and systemic anti fungal
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What is the act that regulates what dentist and doctors can sell to patient?

A

The NHS Act 1977

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What are two basic features that a prescription form should have?

A
  1. Be signed by the prescriber

2. Be issued separately to each patient whom the clinic/contractor is providing services

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What is the form used by a dentist to prescribe medicines?

A

FP10D

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What are the medications that can be prescribed on a FP10D form?

A

Medicines listed in the Dental Practitioners Formulary

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What is the act that governs the misuse of drugs?

A

The Misuse of Drugs Regulations 2001

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Under The Misuse of Drugs Regulations 2001, which schedules of drugs can a dentist administer?

A

Schedule 2, 3, 4 or 5*

*any person may administer to another any drug under schedule 5

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What is the significance of taking a drug history?

A
  1. Patient safety
  2. Diagnostic significance
  3. Effective and appropriate treatment
  4. Hidden medical history
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What are the barriers of taking a patient drug history?

A
  1. Perceived relevance by patient
  2. Non prescription drugs
  3. Supplements, herbal remedies
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

In which circumstance is ICP used to record horizontal relationship?

A

When there is definite centric occlusion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

In which circumstance is RCP used to record horizontal relationship?

A

When there is insufficient number of teeth present in the dentition

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

In which circumstance do you get a wax registration before taking a master impression?

A

When there is ICP present but not enough teeth to place the cast together by hand in ICP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

How do you record ICP?

A
  1. Hand articulate the cast and check it with patients mouth
    If not possible
  2. Use a wax wafer and get patient to bite together
    If not possible
  3. Use wax occlusal rims + bite registration paste
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Why do we survey a cast?

A

To determine

  1. Presence of undercuts
  2. Type of support
  3. Depth of undercut
  4. The contour of the undercut relative to gingival margin
  5. The path of insertion of the denture
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What does a survey line indicate?

A

Marks the position of maximum convexity thus separating undercut from non undercut areas

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What is the purpose of an undercut gauge?

A

Measures the extent of horizontal undercut

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What are the sizes of undercut gauge available and what materials are associated with each size?

A
  1. 0.25mm: cobalt chromium
  2. 0.50mm: gold
  3. 0.75mm: stainless steel
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

How deep is a rest seat?

A

1mm in depth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

What is the length needed for an occlusally approaching clasp to be effective?

A

At least 15mm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

What are equipments commonly used in dental extraction?

A
  1. Coupland’s elevators
  2. Luxators
  3. Cryers
  4. Warwick James
  5. Forceps
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

What is the function of Coupland’s elevators?

A

To sever the periodontal membrane thus dilating the bony socket surrounding the tooth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

How are Coupland’s elevators used?

A
  1. Used sequentially from 1 > 2 > 3

2. Uses rotational force directed perpendicular to the tooth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

How do you use luxators?

A
  1. Used in the long axis of the tooth where it is pushed as far apically as possible
  2. Finger rest is applied on the shank (of the dominant hand)
  3. Finger and thumb support is applied on the alveolus
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

What variety of luxators are available?

A
  1. Straight
    a) 3mm
    b) 5mm
  2. Curved
    a) 3mm
    b) 5mm
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

When are cryers and Warwick James usually used?

A
  1. Upper third molar
  2. Retained roots
  3. Removing inter septal bone
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

How do cryers differ from Warwick James?

A

Cryers have triangular pointed working end where as Warwick James have curved working end

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

For which tooth are forceps not recommend for?

A

Mandibular third molars

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Describe the primary/preliminary movement of tooth extraction

A 
Purpose: 
1. Sever periodontal membrane
2. Generally dilate the socket 
Method: 
1. Force directed along long axis of the tooth
2. Blade of forceps towards root apex
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Describe the secondary movement of tooth extraction

A 
Purpose:
1. Complete dilation
2. Withdrawal of tooth
Method:
1. Depends on tooth root and morphology (usually buccal
a) Incisors, canines &amp; lower premolars (single rooted): rotational movement 
b) Upper premolars: buccal movement 
c) Molars: buccal or figure of 8
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Where should the operator stand for extraction of lower right tooth?

A

Behind the patient (on the right)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Where should the operator stand for extraction of lower left tooth?

A

In front of the patient (on the left)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Where should the operator stand for extraction of upper tooth?

A

In front of the patient with the patients head at shoulder height (when standing straight) and arms straight with forceps

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

What are the pink consent forms used for?

A

Local anaethesia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

What are the yellow consent form used for?

A

Sedation/GA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

What are five aspects of clinical record that must be present before you can proceed with an extraction?

A
  1. Written diagnosis and treatment plan stating which tooth is to be extracted
  2. Periapical radiograph of the tooth
  3. A completed consent form
  4. A contemporaneous medical history
  5. A correct site surgery form
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

List 12 items that must be written in the clinical notes for the extraction appointment.

A
  1. The procedure that was carried out
  2. If medical history was checked at the beginning of the appointment
  3. If any glucose drink was given or medications taken
  4. The local anaesthetic administered (LA agent, batch number, expiry date, amount give, type of injection)
  5. How the treatment was carried out
  6. If any complications occurred
  7. If closure was required
  8. If haemostasis was achieved
  9. Post operative instructions were give
  10. Any antibiotics/analgesics given
  11. Signed and dated by student and tutor
  12. Completed correct site surgery form
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

What does minor oral surgery comprise of?

A
  1. Removal of teeth/roots surgically
  2. Treatment of bony pathology
  3. Exposure of ectopic teeth
  4. Soft tissue surgery (biopsy)
  5. Closure of defects
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

When do we consider surgical approach?

A
  1. When conventional approach is unsuccessful
  2. Decoronated tooth
  3. Impacted teeth
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

Why do we raise a flap?

A
  1. For visualisation purposes
  2. Protects vital structures
  3. To allow a clean closure
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

State the principles of flap design

A
  1. The flap is broader at the base to prevent loss of perfusion
  2. Include the papilla
  3. Ensure that margins are on sound bone
  4. Avoid tearing the flap
  5. Ensure flap is broad enough to give adequate access to what you are doing
  6. Avoid important anatomical structure
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

What are the important anatomical structures to avoid when designing a flap?

A
  1. Mental nerve
  2. Lingual nerve
  3. Nasopalatine & greater palatine nerves/vessels
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

What are the factors that makes accessing a tooth for extraction difficult?

A
  1. Orientation of the tooth
  2. Existing caries/restorations: weakens the tooth
  3. Root canal treatment: weakens the tooth
  4. Patients age: younger bone has more elasticity
  5. Bone quality: the denser the bone the harder the extraction
  6. Root anatomy: curved roots are hard to extract
  7. Proximity to structures
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

What is the instrument used to raise a flap?

A

Howarth’s elevator is used to raise flap and protect vital structure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

What is the use of a Mitchell’s osteo trimmer?

A

Remove granulation tissue in tooth socket

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

What are the uses of bitewing radiography?

A
  1. The detection of dental carries in the upper and lower premolars and molars
  2. Monitoring the progression of dental caries
  3. The assessment of existing restoration
  4. The assessment of periodontal condition (secondary use)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

What are the teeth included in a bitewing?

A

Premolars, molars and distal of canine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

How does a bitewing change when a patient has erupted third molars (long dental arch)?

A

Two bitewings per side are taken:

  1. Premolars bitewings
  2. Molar bitewings
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

When are vertical bitewings indicated?

A
  1. BPE score of 4 or *

2. Other BPE score with significant gingival recession

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

Why is radiography useful for caries diagnosis?

A
  1. Reveals more lesion than clinical examination alone
  2. Allows us to see areas inaccessible to direct vision
  3. Allows us to estimate depth and extent of caries
  4. Allows us to monitor progression/regression of caries over time
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

List types of caries

A
  1. Proximal
  2. Occlusal
  3. Smooth surface
  4. Root
  5. Recurrent
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

State the classification of proximal caries

A 
D1: outer enamel
D2: inner enamel
D3: outer dentine
D4: inner dentine
D5: pulpal involvement
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

What is the best way to detect occlusal caries?

A

Direct vision of a dry tooth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

When do you restore a tooth with caries?

A

When the lesion has causes a cavitation. Temporary tooth separation could be used to help check cavitation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

What is the earliest stage of occlusal caries detected on a radiograph?

A

D3 (D1 and D2 occlusal caries will never be detected on a radiograph)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

What is a Mach Band effect?

A

Edge enhancement effect produced in the brain which leads to false positives

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

What is the earliest stage of root caries?

A

D3 as there are no enamel on the root surface

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

Where should the crestal bone be in relation to the cemento-enamel junction?

A

0.5-1.9mm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

How do you measure bone loss on a radiograph?

A

Bone loss: (Distance from CEJ to bone level) - (2mm)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

What are early signs on bone loss on a radiograph?

A
  1. Loss of cortical density
  2. Rounding off of junction between alveolar crest and lamina dura
  3. Blunting of crest
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

How do you classify bone loss?

A

Mild: 1-2mm
Moderate: 3-4mm
Severe: >5mm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

What are the 3 things that should be noted in a radiographic report?

A
  1. Periodontal bone and calculus
  2. Proximal surface caries
  3. Occlusal caries
  4. Other findings (cyst, torus, retained roots, Turner’s hypoplasia)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

List the essential image characteristics of a bitewing radiograph

A
  1. No evidence of bending of the image of the teeth
  2. No foreshortening or elongation of the teeth
  3. Ideally no horizontal overlap (if present should not obscure more than half of enamel thickness)
  4. Should cover distal surface of the canine and mesial surface of the most posterior erupted teeth
  5. The periodontal bone level should be visible and equally imaged in the maxilla/mandible
  6. There should be good density and contrast between enamel and dentine
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

How often should bitewings be taken for permanent dentition?

A

High risk: 6 months
Moderate risk: 12 months
Low risk: 24 months

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

How often should bitewings be taken for primary dentition?

A

Low risk: 6 months
Moderate risk: 12 months
High risk: 12-18 months

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

List treatment options for free end saddles

A
  1. Shortened dental arch
  2. Distal cantilever bridges
  3. Removable partial denture
  4. Implant supported/retained prosthesis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

When is an acrylic free end saddle usually indicated?

A

As a transitional denture

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

What is the negative consequence of acrylic denture?

A

As they rely on mucosal support to retain the denture, they act as gum strippers and thus damage the gingival tissues

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

How do you stop adverse loading of the free end saddles on the ridge?

A

To cover as much of the denture bearing area as possible:

  1. Cover the retro molar pad area
  2. Extend into the lingual sulcus
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

How is support provided in CoCr free end saddle denture?

A

Combination of tooth support and mucosa support:

  1. Tooth support from anterior aspect of saddle
  2. Mucosal support posteriorly
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

What is the general rule of rest seat specific to free end saddles?

A

The rest seat MUST always be placed on the mesial aspect of the abutment teeth to ensure even distribution of load

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

What are the two approach to prevent denture rotation in displaceable mandibular tissues?

A
  1. Rigid connector between mucosa and tooth supported parts of the denture (most favoured approach)
  2. Flexible major connected that allows mucosal supported parts to move independently of the tooth supported parts
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

What is the technique used when designing a rigid connection?

A

Altered cast technique

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

Describe the altered cast technique

A
  1. CoCr framework carries an acrylic special tray that covers the saddles
  2. A mucodisplacive impression of the saddle is taken using ZnOE
  3. The free end saddle part of the old cast is cut off
  4. A new cast is made incorporating the old cast and the mucodisplacive impression of the free end saddle
  5. A new denture is fabricated based on the altered cast
  6. The resulting lower denture should resist tissue displacement when load is applied to the denture
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

Give example of a stress breaker design

A

Split lingual plate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

State the essential factors when designing a free end saddle

A
  1. Denture teeth should lie on the ridge
  2. Ensure maximum denture extension: halfway up the retro molar pad
  3. Ensure even occlusal contact in retruded contact position
  4. Reduce size of occlusal table (Eg: not including 7s)
  5. Keep clasps flexible (wrought stainless steel wire)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

What are the advantages of using a rigid connector instead of flexible connectors?

A
  1. Simplicity of the design
  2. Simplified technical procedures
  3. Gives more control over applied load
  4. Flexible connectors (stress breakers) give poorer lateral stability
  5. Flexible connectors are more likely to cause soft tissue entrapment and lead to fracture of the denture
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

Which component of the free end saddle provides indirect support?

A

Clasps that resists denture rotation that occurs at the rests (after the rests have resist rotation of the clasp)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

Which component of the free end saddle provides indirect retention?

A
  1. Anterior rests
  2. Continuous clasp
  3. Anterior palatal bars
  4. Lingual plates
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
98
Q

How is indirect retention provided in a free end saddle?

A
  1. When a patient bites into a toffee and separate their teeth, the denture will rotate away from the saddle areas
  2. Thus the denture will rotate around the clasp as the clasp tries to resists displacement of the denture
  3. That rotation is that resisted by any rests or connector anterior to the clasp (anterior to that axis of rotation)
  4. This causes the denture to move downwards toward the tissue again
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
99
Q

What are the two other options for treating a free end saddle?

A
  1. Bridges (but can lead to overloading on abutment teeth)

2. Implants (consider available bone, surgical morbidity and cost)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
100
Q

What makes the Every denture hygienic?

A
  1. Mucosa-borne only
  2. Has no clasp or rest
  3. Retained by frictional contact of the Every denture with natural teeth
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
101
Q

How does the Every denture prevent gingival trauma?

A

Lack of marginal coverage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
102
Q

Are distal stabilisers in an Every denture clasps?

A

No. They are there to improve bracing action of the denture

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
103
Q

When do we use an Every denture?

A

To restore multiple bounded edentulous area in the maxillary jaw

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
104
Q

What are other design of acrylic denture?

A
  1. Spoon denture
  2. T shape denture
    * although provided minimum gingival coverage there is a potential hazard of inhalation or ingestion
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
105
Q

What are indications of providing an acrylic denture?

A
  1. Interim denture before a definitive treatment plan can be formulated
  2. The remaining teeth have poor prognosis and their extraction and subsequent addition to the denture is anticipated
  3. An immediate denture replacing anterior teeth
    * it is never a permanent solution in the lower arch
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
106
Q

What are the disadvantages of acrylic denture?

A
  1. No rests so they rely on tissue support
  2. Limited support provided by tissue as teeth can resist vertical loading much better than mucosa
  3. Acrylic denture requires maintenance
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
107
Q

What are limitations to the Every denture?

A
  1. Prone to fracture
  2. Maximal coverage of palatal tissues
  3. Excessive adjustment on denture insertion leads to loss of retention
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
108
Q

What is the function of the RPI system?

A

To avoid damaging the distal abutment tooth in a free end saddle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
109
Q

What are features of a cast cobalt chromium clasp?

A
  1. Needs to be 15mm in length to avoid permanent deformation in an undercut of 0.25mm
  2. Use only with molar teeth
  3. If undercut does not exist it should be created with composite resin
  4. Only the terminal third engages the undercut
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
110
Q

What are features of wrought stainless steel clasp?

A
  1. Should engage an undercut of 0.75mm
  2. Should be 7mm or more
  3. Occlusally approaching clasp could be used in premolars or canine region
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
111
Q

What are two of the most common cast cobalt chrome lingual connector?

A
  1. Lingual bar

2. Lingual plate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
112
Q

Which situation contraindicates a gingival approaching clasp?

A

A large tissue undercut because it must be spaced well away from the ridge and inevitably rubs against the cheeks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
113
Q

When do you record BPE?

A
  1. For all new patients

2. For patient with codes 0, 1 or 2 BPE should be recorded annually

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
114
Q

What is the subsequent step when a BPE code 3 is obtained?

A
  1. DPC for that sextant

2. BPE for all other sextants with 0,1 and 2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
115
Q

What is the subsequent step when a BPE code 4 is obtained?

A
  1. DPC through out the entire dentition
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
116
Q

Can BPE be used to assess response to periodontal therapy? Justify.

A
  1. No
  2. It does not provide information about how sites within a sextant change after treatment
  3. Instead probing depth should be recorded at 6 sites per tooth
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
117
Q

How often should patients with BPE code 3 and 4 (pre treatment) have their pocket depths measured (post treatment)?

A

At least annually

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
118
Q

Which BPE codes are radiographs (to assess alveolar bone level) indicated for?

A

Codes 3 and 4

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
119
Q

What are the 3 factors to consider in your periodontal patient before arriving at the diagnosis?

A
  1. Medical condition/diseases of the patient
    a) History and exam
    b) Special test or lab test
    c) Medical consultation
  2. How severe is the bone loss
    a) Mild: 1-2mm
    b) Moderate: 3-4mm
    c) Severe: >5mm
  3. Localised or generalised
    a) Localised: 30%
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
120
Q

List the main clinical features of chronic periodontitis

A
  1. Most prevalent in adults but can occur in children and adolescents
  2. Amount of destruction is consistent with presence of local factors
  3. Subgingival calculus is frequent finding
  4. Associated with variable microbial pattern
  5. Slow to moderate rate of progression but may have period of rapid progression
  6. Can be associated with local predisposing factor (tooth related or iatrogenic)
  7. May be modified and/or associated with systemic diseases
  8. Can be modified by other factors other than systemic disease (smoking and emotional stress)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
121
Q

List the primary and secondary clinical feature of aggressive periodontitis

A

Primary
1. Except for periodontitis, patients are otherwise clinically healthy
2. Rapid attachment loss and bone destruction
3. Familial aggregation
Secondary
1. Amounts of microbial are inconsistent with severity of periodontal tissue destruction
2. Elevated proportions of
a) Actinobacillus actinomycetemcomitans
b) Porphyromonas gingivalis (in some populations)
3. Phagocyte abnormality
4. Hyperesponsive macrophage phenotype (prostaglandin E2 and interleukin 1Beta)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
122
Q

What are specific features of localised aggressive periodontitis?

A
  1. Circumpubertal onset
  2. Robust serum antibody to infecting agent
  3. Localised first molar/incisor presentation
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
123
Q

What are specific features of generalised aggressive periodontitis?

A
  1. Usually affecting person under the age of 30 but patients may be older
  2. Poor serum antibody response to infecting agent
  3. Pronounced episodic nature of destruction of attachment and alveolar bone
  4. Generalised attachment loss affecting at least 3 permanent teeth other than first molars and incisors
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
124
Q

What are the aims of non surgical periodontal therapy?

A
  1. Removal of attached biofilm and non attached microflora in the gingival sulcus and periodontal pocket
  2. Removal of plaque retentive factors (calculus, overhanging restoration and areas of cementum hypoplasia and resorption)
  3. Rendering the root surface as smooth as possible
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
125
Q

How is recurrent infection of the periodontal pocket prevented?

A
  1. Meticulous gingival plaque control via
    a) Daily oral hygiene
    b) Professional mechanical tooth cleaning
  2. Address local risk factors
  3. Minimise the effect of systemic risk factors
  4. Alteration or elimination of putative periodontal pathogen
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
126
Q

What are some of the reason patients fail to comply with oral hygiene advice?

A
  1. Unwillingness to perform self oral care
  2. Poor understanding of the recommendation
  3. Lack of motivation
  4. Poor dental health beliefs
  5. Stressful life events
  6. Low socio economic status
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
127
Q

List ideal feature of a toothbrush

A
  1. Handle size appropriate to age and dexterity
  2. Head size appropriate to the size of patients mouth
  3. Round ended nylon or polyester filaments not larger than 0.009” in diameter
  4. Soft bristle configuration as defined by ISO
  5. Bristle pattern that enhances plaque removal approximally and at the gingival margin
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
128
Q

List the active ingredients of toothpaste

A
  1. Fluoride
  2. Antibacterial agent (triclosan)
  3. Desensitising agent (potassium nitrate, strontium)
  4. Anti tartar agent (pyrophosphates)
  5. Sodium bicarbonate
  6. Enzymes (increases antibacterial properties of saliva)
  7. Xylitol (reduces level of cariogenic bacteria in the mouth)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
129
Q

List the inactive ingredients in toothpaste

A
  1. Water
  2. Detergent
  3. Binding agents
  4. Humectants (to retain moisture)
  5. Flavouring
  6. Preservative
  7. Abrasives (silica or powdered calcium salts)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
130
Q

What are interproximal cleaning aids available?

A
  1. Floss
  2. Wooden sticks
  3. Brushes
  4. Bottle brushes
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
131
Q

What are indications of root surface debridement?

A
  1. Highly motivated patient who has achieved a high standard of supra and subgingival plaque control but still has evidence of active disease
  2. Pockets with active disease (pocket >5mm which bleeds on probing)
  3. The presence of detectable sub gingival deposits in a risk patient (aggressive cases) despite an a science of overt clinical signs of inflammation
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
132
Q

What are contraindications of root surface debridement?

A
  1. Poorly motivated patient who does not demonstrate high standard of supra and subgingival plaque control
  2. Patients with high INR
  3. The absence of BOP from a deep but stable pocket
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
133
Q

List root surface debridement protocols

A
  1. Confirm sites requiring root surface debridement
  2. Administer LA
  3. Patients rinse with 0.2% chlorhexidane mouthwash for 60s
  4. Carefully probe sites to identify deposits
  5. Use ultrasonic hand piece
  6. Use site specific curettes
  7. Recheck with complete removal of deposits with probe
  8. Re-instrument and irrigate using ultrasonic scaler
  9. Post operative instructions
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
134
Q

List Gracey protocols

A
  1. Select correct instrument to site
  2. Identify working end
  3. Insert passively and parallel to long axis of root
  4. Ensure good finger rest
  5. Ensure correct operator/patient position
  6. Turn toe to engage root surface
  7. Excuse the following strokes:
    a) Vertical strokes
    b) Oblique strokes
    c) Horizontal strokes
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
135
Q

How long should the revaluation be after a non surgical periodontal treatment?

A

3 to 6 months

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
136
Q

What are the expected outcomes of sites that have been successfully treated? (periodontal treatment)

A
  1. Absence of plaque
  2. Absence of gingival bleeding
  3. Reduction in pocket depth
137
Q

What are the expected outcomes of sites that have been unsuccessfully treated? (periodontal treatment)

A
  1. Persisting inflammation

2. Persisting pocketing

138
Q

What are reasons for periodontal treatment failure?

A
  1. Inadequate plaque control
  2. Inadequate debridement
  3. Persisting smoking
139
Q

What should be done when periodontal treatments fails?

A
  1. Improve plaque control
  2. Smoking cessation
  3. Repeat debridement
  4. Consider surgical debridement
  5. Anti microbials
140
Q

What does a periodontal treatment require to be successful?

A
  1. Proper diagnosis
  2. Adequate plaque control
  3. Subgingival debridement
  4. Long term maintenance
141
Q

Why is periodontal disease a classic chronic inflammatory condition?

A

Because it is characterised by persisting inflammation with concurrent attempts at repair

142
Q

What are features of an untreated periodontal lesion?

A
  1. Bleeding in probing: due to increased gingival blood flow and ulceration of the pocket epithelium
  2. Redness and swelling: due to increased gingival blood flow and loss of gingival connective tissue
  3. Increased pocket depth: due to gingival swelling, loss of attachment and loss of fibrous gingival cuff
  4. Increased mobility: due to loss of attachment (including bone loss) and also slight effect of loss of fibrous gingival cuff
143
Q

What are the effects of healing on periodontal pockets?

A
  1. Reduction in swelling: due to resolution of inflammation
  2. Reduction in redness: due to resolution of inflammation and increased collagen production
  3. Reduction in BOP: due to decreased blood flow and healing of sulcular epithelium
  4. Reduction of pocket depth: due to formation of fibrous gingival cuff, formation of long epithelial attachment and increased gingival recession
144
Q

What are the cellular events that occur during a periodontal healing?

A
  1. Reduction in gingival vasodilation and swelling
  2. Migration of gingival fibroblast into area and formation of mature gingival collagen fibres
  3. Healing of sulcular epithelium, ultimately resulting in formation of a long junctional epithelium
  4. Limited bone remodelling but little or no regeneration of crestal bone height and new periodontal ligament
145
Q

Describe the time scale of periodontal healing post treatment

A
  1. Visible effects: 1-2 weeks
  2. Most effects: 1-2 months
  3. Final outcome: up to 9 months
146
Q

When do we consider anti microbials for periodontal patients?

A
  1. As an adjunct to mechanical therapy
  2. After specificity testing has been carried out
  3. Patients who are smokers
  4. Specific infections:
    a) Abscess
    b) NUG
    c) NUP
    d) Aggressive periodontitis
147
Q

List the protocol for whole mouth disinfection

A
  1. RSD of all pockets in 2 visits within 24 hours
  2. Tongue brushing with 1% CHX gel for 1 minute
  3. Mouth rinsing with 0.2% CHX rinse for 2 minutes
  4. Subgingival irrigation of all pockets (x3 in 10 minutes) with 1% CHX gel
  5. 2x daily rise with 0.2% CHX
  6. 2x daily spray of tonsils with 0.2% CHX
    This is done for 2 months
148
Q

Define local anaesthetic

A

A drug which reversibly prevents transmission of a nerve impulse in the region it is applied, without affecting consciousness

149
Q

Describe the structure of LA

A
  1. Has two components
    a) Lipid soluble, hydrophobic aromatic group
    b) Charged hydrophilic group
  2. The bond between them determines the class of drug
    a) Amide bond: Lignocaine, Prilocaine
    b) Ester bond: Procaine, Benzocaine
150
Q

How does local anaesthetic work?

A
  1. Unionised form of the LA crosses the cell membrane of the neurone
  2. The LA gets ionised inside the neurone cells
  3. Block sodium-specific ion channels of the neurone cell membrane
  4. Inhibits sodium influx and reverse the rate of depolarisation of excitable membranes
  5. Prevents pain transmission
151
Q

How does an abscess reduces the efficacy of local anaesthetic?

A
  1. An abscess creates an acidic environment which lowers the pH of the surrounding tissues
  2. Because LA are weak bases, an low pH causes the weak base to dissociate into its ionised form
  3. This reduces the fraction of unionised form of the LA thus reducing its efficacy
  4. There is also increased blood supply around the area thus increases clearance of LA by blood from site of injection
152
Q

How is the CNS affected by toxic levels of LA in the system?

A

It consists of two phase reaction

  1. Excitatory (initially)
    a) Numbness of tongue and circumoral area
    b) Restlessness
    c) Visual disturbances
  2. Depressive (later)
    a) Coma
    b) Apnoea
153
Q

How is the cardiovascular system affected by toxic levels of LA?

A
  1. Hypotension

2. Circulatory collapse

154
Q

What are the effects of toxic levels of LA in the circulation?

A
  1. Tingling of lips
  2. Slurred speech
  3. Reduced level of consciousness
  4. Seizures
  5. Arrhythmias
  6. Methaeglobinemea
  7. Allergy
  8. Prolonged paraesthesia
155
Q

What happens in methemoglobinaemia?

A
  1. Haemoglobin is converted to methemoglobin (ferric form) which has reduced ability to release oxygen
  2. This leads to:
    a) Shortness of breath
    b) Cyanosis
    c) Fatigue
    d) Dizziness
    e) Loss of consciousness
  3. Treatment includes oxygen and methylene blue
  4. Prilocaine can cause cyanosis due to this
156
Q

What is the maximum dose of 2% lignocaine with adrenaline for a five year old child?

A
  1. A 5 year old weighs 20kg
  2. Maximum dose of lignocaine is 4.4mg per kg of body weight
  3. 20 x 4.4kg = 88mg is the maximum dose
  4. 2% lignocaine has 20 mg per 1ml
  5. 1 cartridge has 2.2ml (44mg)
  6. Thus the 88mg max dose is achieved when 2 full cartridges are given
157
Q

How do you estimate a child’s average weight?

A

(Age + 4) x 2

158
Q

What is the maximum dosage of commonly used anaesthetic agent in children?

A

One tenth of 2.2ml cartridge per kg of body weight

159
Q

How does articaine differ from lignocaine?

A
  1. Articaine is 95% protein bound where as lignocaine is 65% protein bound
  2. Articaine up has a thiopene group (unique among amides) which increases its lipid solubility thus facilitates greater diffusion through soft tissues (better lipid solubility = better nerve penetration = better anaesthesia)
  3. Articaine can diffuse through cortical bone where as lignocaine can’t
160
Q

What are advantages of articaine?

A
  1. High intraneural concentration
  2. More extensive longitudinal spreading
  3. Better conduction blockade
161
Q

What are the injection techniques often used in children?

A
  1. Topical
  2. Infiltration
  3. Intra papillary
  4. Indirect palatal
  5. Direct palatal
  6. Inferior dental block
  7. Intraligamental
162
Q

What are the two types of local anaesthetic commonly used?

A
  1. Benzocaine 20% (comes in flavours)

2. Xylonor gel (lidocaine)

163
Q

What procedures indicate intra papillary injection?

A

To provide palatal anaesthesia for:

  1. Matrix band
  2. Rubber dam
  3. Stainless steel crown
  4. Removal of primary incisors and canines
164
Q

Describe the steps for intra papillary injection

A
  1. First administer buccal anaesthesia and wait until analgesia is achieved
  2. Penetrate interdental papilla to depth of 1-2mm
  3. Needle and syringe are parallel to the occlusal plane
  4. Inject slowly
  5. Slowly advance needle and keep injecting until blanching of palate is observed
  6. Repeat on the other (mesial/distal) side of the tooth
165
Q

What is an indirect palatal injection?

A
  1. Similar to intra papillary but the needle is angle upwards
  2. Suitable for removal of maxillary molars
  3. Can be reinforced with direct palatal
166
Q

How does the mandibular foramen of a child differ to than of an adult?

A

Mandibular foramen is lower and deeper on the internal surface of the ramus

167
Q

Describe the steps of an inferior dental block for children

A
  1. Get the patient to open widely
  2. Palpate the external oblique ridge
  3. Needle is inserted from the opposite side of the mouth
  4. The barrel of the syringe is held over the first primary molar
  5. Penetrate the mucosa and inject small amount of solution
  6. Advance gently with slow injection and aspiration
  7. On contact with bone, withdraw slightly and deposit remainder
  8. In older children, the lingual nerve should be anaesthetised as well
168
Q

What are the indication and contraindications of intraligamental injection?

A

Indications
1. Adjunct to failed infiltration/block
2. Alternative to block
3. Patients with bleeding disorder
Contraindication
1. Children at risk of bacteaemia (forcing bacteria from oral environment into their blood)
2. Patients with cardiac arrhythmias or hypertension (forcing LA at high pressure which could make their heart beat faster)

169
Q

Describe the intraligamental technique

A
  1. Give a buccal infiltration first
  2. Introduce needle into periodontal sulcus of mesial surface
  3. Advance until resistance is felt
  4. Commence injection (where resistance will be encountered)
  5. This is repeated for the distal surface
170
Q

What is the name of the system that delivers computerised local anaesthetic?

A

The Wand

171
Q

What are the four aspects of children behaviour management?

A
  1. Tell show do
  2. Positive reinforcement
  3. Desensitisation
  4. Distraction
172
Q

Which regulation required employers to start using safer sharps?

A

Health and Safety Regulation of 2013

173
Q

What are special tests!

A

Investigations that provide the clinician with additional information to allow them to reach a definitive diagnosis/exclude differential diagnosis

174
Q

What are examples of special tests?

A
  1. Radiograph
    a) Bitewing: vertical bitewing if you have deep periodontal pocket
    b) Peri apical: crowned teeth (lose vitality asymptomatically) advanced bone loss, symptomatic (apical periodontitis)
    c) DPT: multiple pathologies in most quadrant
  2. Sensibility tests
    a) Ethyl chloride
    b) Heat
    c) Electric pulp tester
    d) Test cavity
  3. Percussion test
  4. Cone beam computer tomography
  5. Sialography
  6. Sialometry
  7. Transillumination
  8. Cracked teeth using a tooth slooth
175
Q

What are methods to record tooth wear?

A
  1. Serial study models
  2. Clinical photographs
  3. Silicone indices
  4. Tooth wear index (Smith and Knight)
  5. Basic erosive wear examination (Bartlett)
176
Q

What are indications for restorative treatment in tooth wear cases?

A
  1. Aesthetic concern
  2. Sensitivity (not managed by topical measures)
  3. To restore function
  4. Rapidly progressing wear
    * most of the time prevention and monitoring is all that is required
177
Q

List the uses of articulated study models

A
  1. Allows you to create a treatment plan without the patient being present
  2. Assess static and dynamic occlusal contact
  3. Assess and measure inter occlusal space
  4. Determines shapes and sizes of saddles
  5. Helps to identify soft tissue defects
  6. Assess contour, crown height and angulation of teeth
  7. Enables you to survey the cast
178
Q

When presenting treatment options what are the features it should contain?

A
  1. Pros
  2. Cons
  3. Risks
  4. Longevity
  5. Maintenance
179
Q

List the 5 stages of treatment

A
  1. Emergency/pain relief
  2. Prevention
  3. Stabilisation
  4. Restorative
  5. Maintenance
180
Q

What is included in an emergency treatment?

A
  1. Urgent referral of suspicious lesion
  2. Drainage of abscess
  3. Pain relief
    a) Extraction
    b) Extirpation
    c) Gingival conditions such as necrotising ulcerative gingivitis
  4. Desensitising treatment
181
Q

What is included in a prevention phase?

A
  1. Smoking cessation
  2. Oral hygiene instruction and disclosing plaque
  3. Dietary analysis and advice
    a) Frequency of sugar
    b) Erosive food and drinks
  4. De sensitising toothpaste
  5. Fluoride
    a) Professionally applied
    b) Prescribed toothpaste
182
Q

What is a a stabilisation phase and what does it include?

A

Treatment required to eradicate any pathology

  1. Periodontal:
    a) Scaling
    b) RSD
  2. Caries removal
  3. Root canal therapy
  4. Extraction of teeth with hopeless prognosis
  5. Re asses patient to ensure suitability to progress to next level
  6. Re asses treatment plan and finalise design for any prosthesis
183
Q

What is included in a provisionalisation phase?

A
  • comes between stabilisation and restorative
    1. A phase where any trial changes are made
    a) Aesthetics
    b) Occlusion
    c) OVD
    2. Provisional crowns
    3. Acrylic denture
    4. Allow resolution for periodontal treatment
    5. Create space for restoration (Dahl appliance)
184
Q

What is included in a restorative phase?

A
  1. Definitive restoration
  2. Indirect restoration
  3. Tooth replacements
    a) Fixed
    b) Removable
185
Q

What is included in the maintenance phase?

A
  1. Recall interval
  2. Re motivate patient
  3. Periodontal care
  4. Repeat radiographs
  5. Follow up on root canal therapy or trauma
  6. Monitoring: study models, photos, silicone index
186
Q

Define tooth surface loss

A

Non carious loss of tooth tissue as a result of normal physiological process that occurs through out life

187
Q

What does tooth surface loss become pathological?

A
  1. When the rate of loss prejudice the tooth survival

2. When it concerns the patient

188
Q

List the four classes of tooth surface loss

A
  1. Erosion
  2. Abrasion
  3. Attrition
  4. Abfraction
189
Q

Define erosion

A

Irreversible loss of dental hard tissue due to a chemical process of acid dissolution but not involving bacterial plaque acid

190
Q

Define abrasion

A

Loss by wear of tooth substance or a restoration caused by factors other than tooth contact

191
Q

Define attrition

A

Loss by wear of tooth substance or a restoration caused by mastication or contact between occluding or approximal surfaces

192
Q

Define abfraction

A

Pathological loss of tooth enamel and dentine caused by biomechanical loading of forces

193
Q

What is the key step in management of tooth surface loss?

A

The aetiology of the TSL should be identified prior to patient management

194
Q

What are the two sources of acid?

A
  1. Intrinsic

2. Extrinsic

195
Q

What are the causes of intrinsic acid?

A
  1. Gastro oesophageal reflux disorder
    a) Most common cause of intrinsic acid
    b) 7% of individuals have daily acid reflux
    c) Monitored with Spechler (7 day diary of acid reflux: occurrence, severity of discomfort, difficulty swallowing, coughing/wheezing)
  2. Cyclic vomiting syndrome
  3. Irritable bowel syndrome
  4. Motion sickness
  5. Migraine
  6. Epilepsy
  7. Self induced vomiting
    a) Bulimia nervosa
    c) Anorexia nervosa
  8. Rumination (ability to relax the lower oesophageal sphincter and reflux gastric content into the mouth and re-swallow)
196
Q

What are key features of anorexia?

A
  1. Aversion of food resulting from a complex interaction between biological, social, individual and family factors leading to severe weight loss
  2. BMI less than 17.5
  3. Average age of 16 years old
197
Q

What are key features of bulimia?

A
  1. Over eating followed by inappropriate compensatory behaviour
  2. Average age of 25 years old
  3. BMI more than 17.5
  4. Key signs include:
    a) Callus at the back of the hand (Russell’s sign)
    b) Asymptomatic palatal haematoma
198
Q

What causes bilateral episodic parotid enlargement?

A

Any condition whereby the individual is frequently vomiting. This is because the parotid has to put a lot of effort to produce saliva and flush it out after an episode of vomiting

199
Q

State 5 drinks with erosive potential

A
  1. Carbonated flavoured drinks (sparkling water is not)
  2. Flavoured water
  3. Red wine
  4. Fruit juice
  5. Cider (beer is not)
200
Q

State 5 food with erosive potential

A
  1. Fresh fruit
  2. Pickles
  3. Crisps
  4. Ketchup
  5. Brown sauce
201
Q

How does medication have an effect on erosion?

A 
Direct effect: the medication itself is erosive 
1. Vitamin c
2. Aspirin
3. Some iron preparation
Indirect effect: the medication causes
1. Nausea and vomiting
2. Dry mouth
202
Q

How does the plaque biofilm provide a protective mechanism against erosion?

A
  1. Physical protection from the acid

2. Provides a closed system hence mineralisation (prevents the wash out effect of demineralisation products)

203
Q

Distinguish function, parafunctional and dysfunction

A
  1. Function: normal movement
  2. Dysfunction: abnormal movement
  3. Parafunction: normal movement but abnormal frequency
204
Q

What are key features of parafunction?

A
  1. Controlled by the central nervous system
  2. Emotionally driven (relates to stress and emotional distress)
  3. Beyond the conscious control of the patient
  4. Intermittent (may be historic or active)
  5. Difficult to diagnose
205
Q

What are some of the clinical findings of parafunctional activity?

A 
Intraoral
1. Masseteric hypertrophy 
2. Cheek ridging
3. Scalloped tongue
Dentition
1. Matching wear facets
2. Fractured cusp
3. Broken restorations
4. Missing porcelain
206
Q

What are features of TSL that is attrition dominant?

A
  1. Flattened incisal and occlusal surface
  2. Equal degree of wear in both arches
  3. Teeth closely fit together
207
Q

What are features of TSL that is combination of attrition and erosion?

A

Cupping of restorations can be seen

208
Q

What are features of TSL that is erosion dominant?

A
  1. Palatal and labial surfaces of upper incisors are most severely affected
  2. Generalised loss of anatomy
  3. Proud restorations
209
Q

What are the clinical problems with TSL

A
  1. Aesthetics
    a) Increase in tooth translucency
    b) Fracture of enamel
    c) Short teeth (due to grinding away of incisal surface)
    d) Yellow teeth (due to dentine layer showing)
  2. Sensitivity and pain
    a) Exposure of dentinal tubules
    b) Pulpal inflammation
    c) Pulpal exposure
210
Q

Does attrition lead to a decrease in OVD?

A
  1. No.
  2. This is due to dento alveolar compensation (the alveolus erupts to bring the teeth together).
  3. However, dento alveolar compensation is:
    a) Unpredictable
    b) Not uniform
211
Q

What is the commonly used tooth wear index?

A

Smith and Knight

0: no wear
1: loss of enamel
2: loss of dentine LESS than 1mm
3: loss of dentine 1-2mm
4. Pulpal exposure or MORE than 2mm loss of dentine
* good for screening but not for monitoring patient

212
Q

What is another tooth wear index (other than Smith and Knight)?

A 
Khan and Young Index
A: attrition
B: bowl shaped erosion
C: cervical lesion
D: degradation
E: near exposure
F: frank exposure
213
Q

Besides using tooth wear index what are other ways to monitor tooth surface loss?

A
  1. Photographs
  2. Silicone index and casts of the patients dentition
  3. Micro CT scan
214
Q

How does fluoride help with erosion?

A

Fluoride goes into the hydroxyapatite and makes the crystal more resistant to acid

215
Q

Define ceramics

A

Simple compounds of metallic and non metallic elements

216
Q

Define glass

A

A material that has cooled to a rigid solid condition without crystallising

217
Q

Distinguish between crystalline and amorphous in terms of its atomic order

A

Crystalline exhibits long range and periodic atomic order where as amorphous (glasses) lacks the long range atomic order (possess some crystallinity)

218
Q

Which part of the cooling curve tells you the thermal expansion coefficient of the substance?

A

Slope of the cooling curve for solid and liquid

219
Q

What is the most common biological complication of crowning an abutment for bridges?

A
  1. Loss of pulp vitality of the abutment teeth

2. Caries of abutment teeth

220
Q

What is the most common technical complication of crowning a tooth?

A
  1. Loss of retention

2. Fracture of material

221
Q

What are the requirements of a resin bonded bridge?

A
  1. Maximum palatal coverage
  2. Slots
  3. Sound enamel (with no previous restoration)
  4. Protected occlusion from static and dynamic occlusion
  5. Moisture isolation can be achieved during cementation
222
Q

State ante’s law

A

The total periodontal membrane area of the abutment teeth must equal or exceed that of the teeth to be replaced

223
Q

What are important features to consider when designing a bridge?

A
  1. Crown margins of the abutment tooth in supra gingival locations
  2. The width of the improximal areas contoured to allow optimal interdental cleansing
  3. Excellent plaque control by patient
224
Q

What are the mechanical factors to consider in tooth preparation for a bridge?

A
  1. Removal of sufficient tooth structure to avoid occlusal interference and correct emergence profile
  2. Maximum retention and resistance form
  3. Maximum strength of connector
225
Q

What are the biological requirements to consider in tooth preparation for a bridge?

A
  1. Preservation of as much dentine as possible over the pulp
  2. Avoidance of placing gingival margin at/beyond the junctional epithelium
  3. Provide open embrasures to allow interproximal cleaning
226
Q

How does the biological width affects placement of crown margins?

A
  1. The margin of the crown should not be placed at/beyond the junctional epithelium. Failure to do so will causes gingivitis and gingival recession as the tissues try to recreate its biological width.
  2. Biological width = 1mm of junctional epithelium + 1mm of connective tissues attachment (it is essentially the distance between the CEJ and crestal bone level)
227
Q

What could be done to a crown with a very short clinical height?

A
  1. Crown lengthening surgery

2. Impression for crown prep can only be taken 6 months after (to allow gingival tissues to heal)

228
Q

Under which circumstance are subgingival margin indicated?

A
  1. To gain retention
  2. For aesthetic reason
  3. Due to caries and trauma which leaves very little sound enamel
229
Q

What are indications of providing a crown?

A
  1. Extensively restored tooth at risk of fracture
  2. Trauma
  3. Tooth wear
  4. To alter occlusion
  5. To support weakened teeth due to RCT
230
Q

What are the basic principles for a crown preparation?

A
  1. Even and adequate reduction
  2. Maintain natural tooth planes
  3. Margins must end on natural tooth
  4. Minimal taper but avoid undercuts
  5. Gentle curves and no sharp edges
231
Q

What are the two functions of retraction cord?

A
  1. To stop bleeding of the gingival tissues

2. To expand the gingival sulcus thus allowing impression material to flow in

232
Q

Describe the Dahl appliance

A
  1. Composite is placed on the palatal aspect of upper anterior teeth
  2. This causes the intrusion of the anterior and eruption of the posterior teeth
  3. This provides space anteriorly for bridgework
  4. After 6 months the incisors intrude by 1mm and molars erupt by 1.5mm into occlusion
233
Q

When is an onlay indicated instead of a crown?

A

If dentine thickness will be less than 1mm after crown prep

234
Q

What are two most common lattices for metal?

A
  1. Face centered cubic cell

2. Body centered cubic cell

235
Q

State the properties of metal

A
  1. Strong bonds: high melting and boiling points
  2. Good stiffness: high modulus of elasticity
  3. Ductile: can be pulled into wires
  4. Malleable: can be beaten into sheets
  5. Good conductor of heat and electricity
  6. Opaque (non aesthetics)
236
Q

Define an alloy

A

Two or more metals that are mutually soluble in each other in the molten state

237
Q

How does the grain size of alloy affect its yield stress?

A
  1. Finer grain structures = higher yield stress values (better tensile strength)
  2. Finer grain structures is achieved by rapid cooling (more nuclei formed)
238
Q

Define precious metal

A

Contains metals of high economic value: gold, platinum, palladium, silver, rhodium, iridium, ruthenium and osmium

239
Q

Define noble metal

A

A precious metal that is tarnish to resistant (thus silver is not a noble metal)

240
Q

Define gold substitute alloys

A

Precious metal alloys NOT containing gold

241
Q

Define base metal alloys

A

Alloys not containing precious metal to impart their corrosion resistance

242
Q

Distinguish type I and type IV high-noble alloys

A
  1. Type I:
    a) Soft
    b) High ductility
    c) High corrosion resistance
    d) 85% gold
  2. Type IV:
    a) Extra hard
    b) High tensile strength
    c) High modulus of elasticity
    d) Has 65% gold
243
Q

What is the composition of high-noble alloys?

A

40% gold or 60% other noble metals

244
Q

What are the uses of each type of high-noble alloys in dentistry?

A
  1. Type I: inlay (single surface)
  2. Type II: inlay or onlay (not to be used in thin sections)
  3. Type III: onlay or crown (potential for fracture)
  4. Type IV: crown or bridge
245
Q

What are the components in a high-noble alloy and their effects respectively?

A
  1. Gold: corrosion resistance
  2. Copper: hardness
  3. Silver: to counteract the reddish colour of copper
  4. Palladium: increase melting point and hardness
  5. Platinum: increase melting point
  6. Zinc: prevent oxidation during melting (oxygen getter)
246
Q

What are two types of corrosion metal undergoes?

A
  1. Chemical corrosion

2. Electrochemical corrosion

247
Q

What are the categories of electrochemical corrosion?

A
  1. Galvanic corrosion
  2. Local galvanic corrosion
  3. Concentration corrosion
  4. Stress corrosion
248
Q

What changes in the composition of noble alloys (from high-noble alloys)?

A

Increases copper, silver, and palladium to substitute gold

249
Q

What are other alloys that can be substituted for type III and IV high-noble alloys?

A

Palladium-copper-silver alloys:

  1. Very strong (25% stiffer than any high-noble alloys)
  2. Can be used for long span and implant supported prosthesis
  3. Palladium resists corrosion
250
Q

What are the use of silver-palladium alloy?

A

Suitable for low stress bearing inlays due to low strength and high ductility

251
Q

Give an example of base metal alloys and its use

A
  1. Cobalt chromium: removable partial denture

2. Nickel chromium

252
Q

What are the composition of base metal alloys?

A
  1. Cobalt: 35-65% (hardness)
  2. Chromium: 11-26% (corrosion resistance unless subjected to high concentration of chlorine)
  3. Nickel: 0-30% (hardness and ductility)
  4. Molybdenum: little amount (strength and hardness)
253
Q

What are the advantages of cobalt/nickel chromium?

A
  1. High modulus of elasticity (can be used in thinner sections)
  2. Hard
  3. High strength
  4. Low density (feels light in patient’s mouth)
254
Q

Compare noble metal alloys and base metal alloys in terms of their physical properties

A
  1. Nickel chromium (base metal alloy) is more rigid than gold
  2. Noble metal alloy resist oxidation and acid attack where as base metal alloys oxidise readily and are susceptible to acid attack
  3. Gold offers better accuracy/fitting since it gives less casting shrinkage
255
Q

What the uses of the 4 types of base metal alloys in dentistry?

A
  1. Type I: inlays
  2. Type II: large inlays, onlays and crowns
  3. Type III: bridge pontics
  4. Type IV: long span bridges and implant superstructures
256
Q

What are some biocompatibility concerns with alloys?

A
  1. Palladium at low doses can cause allergic reaction
  2. Nickel allergy causes contact dermatitis
  3. Beryllium is known carcinogen
  4. Gold and amalgam can cause lichenoid reaction
257
Q

What are dental implants made of?

A
  1. Titanium

2. Titanium alloy (Ti6Al4V is the most common one)

258
Q

What are the function of aluminium and vanadium in Ti6Al4V alloy?

A

Ti6Al4V consists of two lattice structure

  1. Aluminium: stabilises the alpha hexagonal close packed structure
  2. Vanadium: stabilises the beta body centered cubic structure
259
Q

What are the advantages of using titanium?

A
  1. Lightweight
  2. Biocompatible
  3. Corrosion resistance (has a dynamic inert oxide layer)
  4. Strong and low priced
260
Q

What are the advantages and disadvantages of zirconia dental implants?

A 
Advantages
1. Aesthetics
2. No allergies
3. More holistic
4. Biofilm (no plaque accumulation)
Disadvantages
1. Periimplantitis
2. Chipping of crown
261
Q

Define lost wax casting

A

A technique where a wax pattern is heated, vaporised and subsequently replaced by a metal

262
Q

What are the 7 steps to lost wax casting?

A 
Stage 1: impression
Stage 2: die production
Stage 3: wax on die
Stage 4: wax investment with a sprue
Stage 5: Investing
Stage 6: Wax burnout
Stage 7: Casting
263
Q

What are the requirement of alloys in a porcelain fused to metal crown?

A
  1. Must have potential to bond to dental porcelain (need oxide forming elements thus small amount of base metals)
  2. Has a coefficient of thermal expansion similar to dental porcelain
  3. Sufficiently high solidus temperature to permit the firing of porcelain on the metal framework
264
Q

What are the causes of porcelain-to-metal fracture?

A 
Fracture originating from metal surface
1. Surface metal contamination
2. Incomplete degassing
3. Under fired opaque porcelain 
4. Improper metal thickness
5. Incorrect metal conditioner
6. Reused metal alloy
Fracture at opaque layer and entering the bulk porcelain 
1. Porosity at opaque layer
2. Cracks at opaque layer
3. Incomplete opaque bonding from firing at a too low temperature
265
Q

What are the causes of porcelain fracture?

A
  1. Design or procedural error
    a) Too little bulk of metal
    b) Sharp angles in porcelain
    c) Improper margin design
  2. Malocclusion or impact stresses
  3. Thermal contraction incompatibility
    a) Built in stresses generate cracks at pores
    b) Thermal fatigue propagates cracks
266
Q

Which all ceramics system has the highest flexural strength and fracture toughness?

A

Polycrystalline oxide ceramics

267
Q

What are the uses of glass ceramics? And state example of brand names.

A 
Used for
1. Inlay and onlay
2. Veneers
3. Anterior single crown
Brand name
1. Empress I
2. Empress II
3. Empress Esthetic 
4. Dicor
*provides high aesthetics but weak
268
Q

What are the uses of glass infiltrated ceramics? And state example of brand names.

A

Used for
1. Substructure for anterior and posterior single crowns
Brand names
1. In ceram Alumina
2. In ceram Spinell
3. In ceram Zirconia
*less porosity thus provides better strength but loses aesthetics

269
Q

What are the uses of polycrystalline oxide ceramics? And state example of brand names.

A 
Used for
1. Anterior and posterior single crowns (alumina/zirconia)
2. Anterior and posterior bridge framework (zirconia)
Brand names
1. Procera
2. Cercon
3. DCS
4. CEREC
5. Lava
*uses CAD/CAM technology
270
Q

What are the disadvantages of traditional feldspathic porcelain?

A
  1. Low fracture resistance
  2. Construction technique sensitive
    a) Shrinkage due to fusing when fired
    b) High skills required to achieve good aesthetic
  3. Low flexural strength
271
Q

Why do porcelains fracture (especially feldspathic porcelain)?

A
  1. Inability to dissipate stress due to lack of shared free electrons
  2. Flaws are created during manufacturing which leads to stress concentration (act as initiating sites for crack formation)
  3. Cracks in porcelain are more likely to propagate (when subjected to tensile forces as they have low flexural strength)
  4. Once a crack starts to propagate, less stress is required to continue crack propagation and the crack quickly accelerates
272
Q

What are the methods to increase the fracture resistance of porcelain?

A
  1. Provide support using a stronger substrate: laminate to metal to decrease influence of internal flaws
    a) Cast substructure (porcelain fused to metal)
    b) Adapted substructure (swagged foil)
    c) Requires alteration to porcelain to avoid great mismatch in coefficient of thermal expansion between the two material (this is achieved by adding leucite which increases the CTE value closer to metal)
  2. Produce ceramics that are tougher and stronger
    a) High strength crystalline ceramics as a core: milled from prefabricated high strength block (Procera)
    b) High leucite ceramics as core: high leucite (crystalline fillers) glass ceramics (IPS Empress)
273
Q

What are the grades of chipping and how are they treated?

A
  1. Grade 1: fracture surfaces were polished
  2. Grade 2: fracture surfaces were repaired with resin based composite
  3. Grade 3: severe chipping requiring replacement of affected prosthesis
274
Q

What is leucite-reinforced ceramics?

A
  1. Feldspathic glass infiltrated by leucite crystal
  2. Leucite has good optical properties
  3. It also has a large coefficient of thermal expansion (when compared to other feldspar glasses) which made it easier to fit the veneer over metal sub structure (PFM crowns and bridges)
  4. Leucite is a potassium-aluminium-silicate mineral
  5. Brand name: IPS Empress
275
Q

What is ceramic optimised polymer?

A
  1. A material that combines the aesthetics of ceramics, the handling of veneering resins and unmatched abrasion of natural enamel
  2. Also known as ceromer (ceramics + polymer)
  3. Features a high particle content of inorganic filler (fine ceramic particles) and an organic matrix that fills the spaces between the particles
  4. Brand name: Targis
276
Q

How does zirconia help prevent crack propagation?

A
  1. Zirconia exists in 3 different states:
    a) Cubic
    b) Tetragonal
    c) Monoclinic
  2. From transforming from a) to c) the material expands
  3. Force is applied to the material > creates stress > meta stable tetragonal phase > stable monoclinic phase > expansion closes the gap > prevents crack propagation
277
Q

How do traditional cements retain crowns and bridges?

A

By frictional fit

278
Q

What are some of the uses of dental cements?

A
  1. Luting, fixation, cementation: used for luting inlays, crown, veneers etc on prepared tooth (Eg: glass ionomer)
  2. To protect pulp from heat and chemical irritation: used as liners and bases (Eg: calcium hydroxide and zinc oxide eugenol)
  3. To stimulate secondary dentine formation
  4. As a temporary filling material (Eg: glass ionomer or resin modified GI)
279
Q

Define luting agent

A

A material that acts as an adhesive to hold together an indirect restoration to the tooth structure. They are designed to be either permanent or temporary

280
Q

What are permanent cements used for?

A
  1. Long term cementation of cast restoration

2. Eg: inlay, crowns, bridges, laminate veneers and orthodontic fixed appliance

281
Q

What are temporary cements used for?

A
  1. When the restoration has to be removed eventually

2. Eg: temporary/provisional restoration

282
Q

What are the variables affecting the cement?

A
  1. Mixing time: ensure manufacturer’s instructions are followed for mixing time, working time and delivery time
  2. Humidity: premature exposure of cements to humid/warm environment can create a loss of water from liquid or add moisture to powder (which affects the delivery time)
  3. Powder to liquid ratio: consistency is altered with too much or too little powder
  4. Temperature: some cements have an exothermic reaction (should be mixed on a cool slab)
  5. Thickness: there should be sufficient cement to fill the space but not too thick that it causes occlusal interference
283
Q

What is the general setting reaction of cements?

A

Powder (basic) + liquid (acidic) = salt (cement) + water

*it is an acid base reaction

284
Q

What are ideal properties of cements?

A
  1. Low viscosity and film thickness (good flow characteristics)
  2. Low solubility (to maintain marginal seal)
  3. Translucency (for aesthetics purposes)
  4. Radiopacity (to help distinguish between recurrent caries)
  5. Biocompatibility
  6. High compressive and tensile strength
  7. Adequate working time and ease of use
285
Q

What are two categories of cements?

A
  1. Adhesive: chemical and mechanical interlocking

2. Non adhesive (conventional): micromechanical only (as it is filling space)

286
Q

State the chemical reaction of zinc oxide eugenol cement

A

Zinc oxide + eugenol = zinc eugenolate (chelated structure) + water

287
Q

What are features of zinc oxide eugenol cement?

A
  1. Powder: zinc oxide + zinc acetate
  2. Liquid: eugenol + olive oil
  3. Sets very slowly unless moist
  4. Mechanically weak
  5. Can be used as lining in deep cavities without causing harm to the pulp
  6. Has a desensitising effect on dentine (due to oil of cloves)
  7. Main uses:
    a) Dressing
    b) Temporary cement
  8. Trade names:
    a) Temp E
    b) Sedamol
288
Q

What are features of resin modified zinc oxide eugenol cement?

A
  1. Powder: zinc oxide
  2. Liquid: eugenol + resin
  3. Very low irritancy to pulp
  4. Due to presence of resin it has better mechanical properties than ZnOE
  5. Main uses: linings
  6. Trade name: Kalzinol
289
Q

What are features of EBA cements?

A
  1. Also another modified ZnOE
  2. Powder: zinc oxide + zinc acetate + resin + silica
  3. Liquid: eugenol + resin + EBA
  4. EBA encourages the formation of crystalline structure which produces a stronger matrix to hold the particles together
  5. Main uses:
    a) Temporary cements
    b) Temporary fillings
  6. Trade name:
    a) Stailine
    b) SuperEBA
290
Q

What are the features of zinc phosphate cement?

A
  1. Powder: zinc oxide + 10% magnesium oxide
  2. Liquid: phosphoric acid + water + aluminium phosphate
  3. Fast reaction that results in formation of zinc phosphate
  4. When powder is mixed with liquid, phosphoric acid attacks the surface of the particles and release zinc ions into the liquid
  5. Water is critical to the reaction
  6. A cool slab should be used for mixing to prolong setting times
  7. The liquid should not be dispensed until mixing is to be initiated (to prevent water from evaporating)
  8. Has two types:
    a) Type I: used for luting casting. Smaller particles that enables the cement to flow out into thin layer (less than 25 micrometer) between a casting and tooth
    b) Type II: all other application. Contains larger particles and can routinely achieve a film thickness of 40 micrometers
  9. Main uses:
    a) Luting agent
    b) Temporary restoration
  10. Trade name: De Trey Zinc
291
Q

What are features of copper cement?

A
  1. Powder: zinc oxide + black copper oxide
  2. Liquid: phosphoric acid
  3. Copper oxide is bactericidal but also gives a black appearance
  4. Main uses:
    a) Filling in deciduous teeth
    b) Cementing splints and orthodontic devices (limited use nowadays)
292
Q

What are features of silicate cements?

A
  1. Powder: powdered glass containing alumina, silica and flourides
  2. Liquid: phosphoric acid
  3. First directly placed aesthetic filling material
  4. Now rarely used
293
Q

What are features of silicophosphate cement?

A
  1. Powder: zinc oxide + aluminisilicate glass
  2. Liquid: phosphoric acid + buffer
  3. A hybrid of silicate and phosphate cement
  4. Main uses:
    a) Filling in primary teeth
    b) Cementing porcelain crown/orthodontic bands
  5. Trade name:
    a) Petralit
    b) Kryptex
294
Q

What are features of polycarboxylate cements?

A
  1. Powder: zinc oxide + 10% magnesium oxide
  2. Liquid: polyacrylic acid solution
  3. Reaction forms zinc polycarboxylate
  4. Rapid setting reaction of 30-40s
  5. Psudoplastic thus care should be taken not to produce thinner mixes
  6. Trade name:
    a) Poly F plus
    b) Durelon
  7. Stronger than zinc oxide eugenol but weaker than zinc phosphate
  8. Reaches a neutral pH within 5-30 minutes
  9. Appears viscous but flows under pressure
  10. Sets within 6-9 minutes
  11. Adhesive and fairly biocompatible
  12. However it is soluble
295
Q

What are features of calcium hydroxide cement?

A
  1. Main constituent: calcium hydroxide paste
  2. Simplest version is suspension of calcium hydroxide in water (which dries out to give a layer of calcium hydroxide)
  3. Anti bacterial and may promote remineralisation of dentine
  4. Main uses:
    a) Liners
    b) Pulp capping
    c) Pulp protection
  5. Trade names:
    a) Dycal
    b) Life
296
Q

How do modern cements differ from traditional cements and what are examples of modern cements?

A
  1. Modern cements are adhesive (do not rely on frictional fit)
  2. Examples:
    a) Resin modified glass ionomer cement
    b) Resin cement
    c) Compomer cement
297
Q

What are features of resin cements?

A
  1. Composition: bis GMA or urethane dimethacrylate with fillers of barium glass or silica
  2. Set by chemical reaction (self curing) or dual cured (chemical and light curing)
  3. Adhesive (increases retention)
  4. Very hard and low solubility (reduces leakage)
  5. Good tensile and compressive strength (x10 more than zinc phosphate)
  6. Good aesthetics
  7. But difficult to remove and requires separate adhesive agents to be applied
  8. Adhesive system:
    a) Micromechanical bond to tooth
    b) Chemical bond to porcelain and metal
  9. Trade names:
    a) Panavia
    b) Rely X
298
Q

What are features of one step resin cement?

A
  1. Flows under pressure
  2. No prior preparation of enamel or dentine is used (self adhesive)
  3. Releases fluoride
  4. Bonds all ceramics, resin composites and metals
  5. Moisture tolerant
  6. Compressive strength of about 200 MPa
  7. Dual cured: acid base reaction of inorganic fillers with phosphoric acid methacrylates
299
Q

What are the different conditioning required for different ceramics?

A
  1. Glass ceramics: etching with 95% hydrofluoric acid and silanization
  2. Glass infiltrated ceramics: sandblasting 100mm with alumina oxide
  3. Oxide ceramics (Al): sandblasting 100mm with alumina oxide and silanization with MDP
  4. Oxide ceramics (Zr): sandblasting 50mm with alumina oxide and silanization with MDP
300
Q

Why do we finish/polish restoration?

A
  1. To remove excess material so that the restoration fits
  2. To produce a smooth surface
  3. Maintain correct occlusal relationship
  4. Reduce intraoral corrosion of metal restoration
  5. Enhance aesthetics and longevity of restored teeth
301
Q

Describe the sequential use of finishing instruments?

A
  1. Gross reduction, contouring and marination:
    a) Coarse treatment with abrasive particle 100 micrometers or larger
    b) Efficiently remove restoration materials with minimal removal of adjacent sound tooth structure
  2. Intermediate abrasive finishing:
    a) Medium treatment with abrasive particles less than 100 micrometers but greater than 15 micrometers.
    b) Removes severe scratches and surface defects created by initial procedure
  3. Final polishing:
    a) Fine treatment with abrasive particles ranging from less than 20 micrometers to 0.3 micrometers
    b) Results in an enamel like lustre to surface of restored teeth
302
Q

What are the two types of abrasive in dentistry?

A
  1. Bonded: sandpaper, cut-off discs

2. Loose: toothpaste, polishing paste

303
Q

What are the factors affecting abrasion?

A
  1. Velocity of the abrasive (directly proportional)
  2. The force applied to the abrasive (directly proportional)
  3. The hardness of the material being abraded (inversely proportional)
  4. Particle size of both the abrasive and composite (also type of particles in the composite)
  5. Shape of the abrasive (the sharper the more effective)
  6. Lubrication (water is the most common lubricant)
304
Q

What is the side effects of abrasion?

A
  1. Material from the scratch is displaced

2. Distortion in region adjacent to the scratch

305
Q

What are instruments for gross reduction?

A
  1. Diamond burr
  2. Fluted finishing burr
  3. Abrasive finishing disc
306
Q

What are instruments for intermediate reduction?

A
  1. Coated abrasive disc
  2. Bonded abrasive devices
  3. Fine diamond and multi fluted finishing burr
307
Q

What are instruments for final finishing and polishing?

A
  1. Extrafine coated abrasives

2. Loose abrasive polishing paste

308
Q

What are the porcelain to metal bonding mechanism?

A
  1. Mechanical bonding (extensive)
    a) Sandblasting provides surface roughness which leads to mechanical inter-digitation
    - Surface energy determines wetting
    - Surface roughness determines degree of mechanical inter-digitation
  2. Chemical bonding (extensive)
    a) Occurs by oxide mixing
    - Thin metal oxide alloys with porcelain oxide
    - Transition zones of oxide from metal to porcelain
    b) Oxidation of metal alloys
    - Tin, indium, iron or zinc may be added to alloy
    - Pre oxidising treatment may be painted on surface
    - Metalizing bonding agents may be painted on
    * there is no physical bonding
309
Q

What is the most common oral malignant neoplasm?

A

Squamous cell carcinoma

310
Q

What are some other uncommon oral malignant neoplasm?

A
  1. Malignant salivary gland tumours
  2. Malignant melanoma
  3. Lymphoma
  4. Neoplasm of bone and connective tissue
  5. Metastatic neoplasm (from breast, lung, kidneys etc)
311
Q

What are the 3 aetiology factors of squamous cell carcinoma ?

A
  1. Lifestyle
  2. Environment
  3. Genetics
313
Q

What are the lifestyle factors associated with SCC?

A
  1. Tobacco use
  2. Alcohol consumption
  3. Sexual lifestyle
  4. Poor oral hygiene
  5. Dietary factors
  6. Reflux
314
Q

What are the environment factors associated with SCC?

A
  1. Socioeconomic factors

2. Exposure to other carcinogens (irradiation, HPV)

314
Q

What are 3 factors in a competent immune system?

A
  1. Infection control
  2. Tolerance
  3. Clearance of altered autologous cells
315
Q

What are the genetic factors associated with SCC?

A
  1. Chronic inflammatory mucosal disease
  2. Defects in DNA repair
  3. Defects in immune system
316
Q

What is a carcinogen?

A

Any substance, radionuclide or radiation that is an agent involved in causing cancer. They either damage the genome or disrupt the cellular metabolic process

  1. Genotoxin: causes irreversible genetic damage or mutation by binding to DNA (Eg: NMU, UV light)
  2. Nongenotoxin: do not directly affect DNA but act in other ways to promote growth (Eg: hormones)
317
Q

What are the various categories of carcinogens?

A

Group 1: definitely carcinogenic to humans
Group 2A: probably carcinogenic to humans
Group 2B: possibly carcinogenic to humans
Group 3: not classifiable as carcinogenic to humans
Group 4: probably not carcinogenic to humans

318
Q

Describe the multiple steps to cancer?

A
  1. Mutagenic agent acts on DNA in basal cells
  2. DNA mutation
  3. DNA mutation escapes DNA repair
  4. DNA mutation is not lethal to cell
  5. DNA mutation escapes apoptosis
  6. Mutated viable cell escapes immune system
319
Q

List some of the premalignant chronic mucosal inflammatory lesion

A
  1. Lichen planus
  2. Erythoplakia
  3. Leukoplakia
  4. Lichenoid lesion
320
Q

What are the clinical signs of SCC?

A
  1. Swelling, thickening or roughness on the tongue, cheek or floor of mouth
  2. White/red patches along the side of the tongue or on the lip
  3. Persistent sores in the lips, tongue, palate or throat
  4. Erosive lesion with hard borders
  5. Lumps
  6. Unexplained bleeding in the mouth or throat
  7. Soreness in the back of mouth or in the throat
  8. Hoarseness, chronic sore throat or changes in the voice
321
Q

State the dose of radiotherapy for oral cancer?

A
  1. Total dose: 50-70 Gy
  2. 1.8-2 Gy per day 5 days a week over 6-8 weeks
  3. Among the complications are:
    a) Mucositis
    b) Salivary gland damage > xerostomia > candidosis
    c) Osteoradionecrosis (if total dose is more than 50 Gy it will never be safe to extract teeth)
322
Q

Describe the TNM staging system

A
  1. T: describes size and degree of invasion of tumour
    T0: no sign on primary tumour
    Tis: carcinoma in situ
    T1: less than 20mm
    T2: 20-40mm
    T3: more than 40m
    T4: tumour extends into bone, skin and neck
  2. N: describes the involvement of regional lymph nodes
    N0: no tumour cells in regional lymph nodes
    N1: single regional lymph node metastasis on the same side less than 30mm
    N2: single regional lymph node metastasis on the same side 30-60mm
    N3: tumour spread to contra lateral side and to numerous lymph nodes
  3. M: describes distant metastasis
    M0: no distant metastasis
    M1: metastasis to distant organs (beyond regional lymph nodes)
323
Q

What is the treatment of oral candidosis?

A
  1. Control of predisposing factor
  2. Clearance of infection foci
  3. Anti fungals
    a) Primarily topical (Nystatin and Chlorhexidane)
    b) If patient is immunocompromised combine with systemic anti fungal for a week
324
Q

What are the two common strains that causes candidosis in cancer patients?

A
  1. Candida Glabrata
  2. Candida Krusei
    * also the strain that gets resistance to Azoles
325
Q

How does alcohol cause oral cancer?

A
  1. The first metabolite of alcohol is acetaldehyde which is mutagenic
  2. This can occur either
    a) In the liver: liver cancer
    b) In the mouth via oral microbes (they possess alcohol dehydrogenase enzyme): mouth cancer
326
Q

What are aerobic microorganisms in the mouth?

A
  1. Gram positive cocci
    a) Staph (aurius, epidermidis)
    b) Strep (milleri, mutans, pyogenes, sanguis)
  2. Gram negative cocci
    a) Neisseria
  3. Gram positive rods
    a) Cornybacterium
  4. Gram negative rods
    a) Eikenella
    b) Haemophilus
327
Q

What are anaerobic microorganisms in the mouth?

A
  1. Gram positive cocci
    a) Peptostreptococcus
  2. Gram negative cocci
    b) Veillonella
  3. Gram positive rods
    a) Actonimyces
    b) Lactobacillus
    c) Eubacterium
    d) Fusibacterium
  4. Gram negative rods
    a) Bacteroides (gingivalis, intermedius, oralis)
    b) Fusobacterium
328
Q

What are the common culprits in oral infection?

A
  1. Gram negative rods
    a) Fusobacteria
    b) Bacteroides
  2. Gram positive cocci
    a) Strep/Peptostreptococci
329
Q

What are the different types of antibiotics based on their mode of action?

A
  1. Action on cell wall/membrane
    a) Penicillin
    b) Cephalosporin
  2. Inhibition of protein synthesis
    a) Tetracycline
    b) Aminoglycosides
  3. Inhibition of nucleus acid synthesis
    a) Sulphonamides
    b) Quinolones
330
Q

List the non resistant and resistant penicillins with beta-lactamase

A
  1. Non resistant
    a) Benzylpenicillin
    b) Phenoxymethylpenicillin
  2. Resistant
    a) Amoxicillin
    b) Flucloxacillin
    c) Co amoxiclav
331
Q

List three broad spectrum penicillin

A
  1. Ampicillin
  2. Amoxicillin
  3. Co-amoxiclav (amoxicillin and clavulanic acid)
332
Q

How does tetracycline inhibit bacteria protein synthesis?

A
  1. By blocking tRNA binding
  2. Examples of antibiotics from this class are
    a) Tetracycline
    b) Doxycycline
    c) Minocycline
333
Q

How does aminoglycosides inhibit bacterial protein synthesis?

A
  1. By blocking mRNA recognition
  2. Examples of antibiotic using this mechanism are
    a) Streptomycin
    b) Neomycin
    c) Clindamycin
  3. By translocation
  4. Example of antibiotic using this mechanism is
    a) Erythromycin
334
Q

List examples of parenteral and broad spectrum cephalosporins

A
  1. Parenteral
    a) Cefuroxime
    b) Cefalexin
  2. Broad spectrum
    a) Cephalexin
    b) Cephradine
335
Q

List examples of Quinolones

A
  1. Metronidazole
  2. Naladixic acid
  3. Ciprofloxacin
336
Q

What are adult doses for some common antibiotics?

A
  1. Penicillin V: 500mg-1000mg QDS
  2. Amoxycillin: 250-500mg TDS
  3. Flucloxacillin: 250-500mg QDS
  4. Metronidazole: 200-400mg TDS
  5. Erythromycin: 250-500mg QDS
  6. Cefalexin: 250-500mg QDS
  7. Cefradine: 250-1000mg QDS
337
Q

What are signs of anaphylaxis?

A
  1. Itching, flushing, hives
  2. Rash
  3. Rhinitis
  4. Bronchospasm
  5. Laryngeal oedema
  6. Loss of consciousness
  7. Cardiac arrest
  8. Weak pulse (syncope)
338
Q

What antibiotics are indicated and contraindicated in a pregnant woman?

A
  1. Indicated
    a) Penicillin
    b) Cephalosporin
  2. Contraindicated
    a) Metronidazole
    b) Tetracycline
339
Q

What are features of monoamine oxidase inhibitor?

A
  1. Class of anti depressant
  2. Induce accumulation of amine neurotransmitter
  3. Act as indirect-acting sympathomimetics
  4. Result in acute hypertensive crisis

Symposia (5 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions