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Aqa Biology GCSE > Y10 MOCKS 1 > Flashcards

Y10 MOCKS 1 Flashcards

AQA Biology GCSE 2024

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1
Q

What is a eukaryotic cell?

A

A cell which has a nucleus

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2
Q

What is a prokaryotic cell?

A

a cell which doesn’t have a nucleus

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3
Q

what is an example of a eukaryotic cell?

A

animal or plant cell

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4
Q

what is an example of a prokaryotic cell?

A

a bacterial cell

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5
Q

what is the function of a red blood cell?

A

to carry oxygen

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6
Q

what is the function of a guard cell?

A

allows gases to enter and leave the cell

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7
Q

what is the function of a root hair cell?

A

to absorb water and nutrients

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8
Q

what is the function of a sperm cell?

A

to fertilise an egg cell

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9
Q

what is the function of a nerve cell?

A

to carry electrical impulses

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10
Q

what is the function of a skin cell?

A

covers the body

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11
Q

what is the function of a palisade cell?

A

has lots of chloroplasts so it absorbs more light to increase the rate of photosynthesis

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12
Q

what is the function of an epithelial cell?

A

produces mucus

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13
Q

what is a cell?

A

the building block of living things

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14
Q

what is a tissue?

A

a group of cells with a similiar structure and function

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15
Q

what is an organ?

A

a collection of tissues working together to perform a function (e.g stomach)

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16
Q

what is an organ system?

A

a collection of organs working together to perform a function (e.g digestive system)

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17
Q

what is the function of the cell wall?

A

made of cellulose and strengthens the cell

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18
Q

what is the function of the mitochondria?

A

releases energy via respiration

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19
Q

what is the function of the vacuole?

A

filled with cell sap and keeps the cell rigid

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20
Q

what is the function of the chloroplasts?

A

contains chlorophyll to absorb light for photosynthesis

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21
Q

what is the function of the cytoplasm?

A

chemical reactions take place here

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22
Q

what is the function of the nucleus?

A

controls the cell and contains DNA

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23
Q

what is the function of the ribosomes?

A

a site of protein synthesis

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24
Q

what is the function of the cell membrane?

A

controls entry and exit of substances into the cell

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25
Q

what is the function of the epithelial tissue in the stomach?

A

protects the stomach by covering the inner and outer part of it

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26
Q

what is the function of muscle tissue in the stomach?

A

contracts for movement which churns the food

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27
Q

what is the function of glandular tissue in the stomach?

A

produces acid and enzymes

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28
Q

how has a sperm cell adapted?

A

has a tail to swim
has many mitochondria
head contains DNA and digestive enzymes

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29
Q

how has a nerve cell adapted?

A

long, thin fibres

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30
Q

how has a muscle cell adapted?

A

many mitochondria for energy

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31
Q

what are the 2 types of microscope?

A

electron and light

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32
Q

what are the advantages of a light microscope?

A

can study live specimens
cheap
portable
can see colour

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33
Q

what are the disadvantages of a light microscope?

A

lower resolution and magnification

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34
Q

what are the advantages of an electron microscope?

A

higher resolution and magnification
can see 3D images (cellular structures)

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35
Q

what are the disadvantages of an electron microscope?

A

expensive
don’t see colour
only work in a vacuum
bulky
affected by magnetic fields

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36
Q

what is the formula to calculate the magnification of a cell?

A

image size = magnification x actual size

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37
Q

what is mitosis needed for?

A

growth and repair

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38
Q

what is differentiation?

A

when cells become specialised to perform a function

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39
Q

what are stem cells?

A

unspecialised cells which can differentiate into different types of cells

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40
Q

where can stem cells be derived from in humans?

A

embryos or adult bone marrow

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41
Q

why are scientists experimenting with stem cells?

A

medical treatments and research

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41
Q

why are scientists experimenting with stem cells?

A

medical treatments and research

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42
Q

what is diffusion?

A

the movement of particles/dissolved substances from a high concentration to a low concentration down a concentration gradient until an equilibrium is reached. It is a passive process

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43
Q

what is osmosis?

A

the net movement of water from an area of high concentration to an an area of low water concentration across a semi-permeable membrane. It is a passive process

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44
Q

what is active transport?

A

the movement of particles/dissolved substances from an area of low concentration to an area of high concentration against the concentration gradient. It requires energy

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45
Q

what is the function of the mouth?

A

teeth and enzymes in saliva break down food

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46
Q

what is the function of the salivary gland?

A

produces saliva which contains enzymes

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47
Q

what is the function of the oesophagus?

A

transports food from mouth to stomach

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48
Q

what is the function of the stomach?

A

produces hydrochloric acid, food is broken down with enzymes

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49
Q

what is the function of the liver?

A

produces bile which neutralises the stomach acids so the enzymes don’t denature and it emulsifies fats

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50
Q

what is the function of the pancreas?

A

produces enzymes to break down food

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51
Q

what is the function of the gall bladder?

A

stores bile then releases it into the small intestine

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52
Q

what is the function of the small intestine?

A

it produces enzymes which break down food. the products are then absorbed into the blood

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53
Q

what is the function of the large intestine?

A

water is absorbed

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54
Q

what is the function of the rectum?

A

stores faeces

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55
Q

what is the function of the anus?

A

releases faeces

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56
Q

which order does food travel through the digestive system?

A

mouth -> oesophagus -> stomach -> small intestine -> large intestine -> rectum -> anus

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57
Q

what parts of the body are made of proteins?

A

enzymes, antibodies, hormones

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58
Q

what is a catalyst?

A

something that speeds up a chemical reaction without being used up

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59
Q

what is an enzyme?

A

a biological catalyst

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60
Q

what happens to enzymes at a high pH or temperature?

A

they denature, so the substrate no longer fits into the active site

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61
Q

what organs secrete amylase?

A

salivary gland
pancreas
small intestine

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62
Q

what organs are amylase secreted into?

A

mouth
small intestine

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63
Q

what does amylase do?

A

breaks down with starch to produce sugar

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64
Q

what organs secrete protease?

A

stomach
pancreas
small intestine

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65
Q

what organs is protease secreted into?

A

stomach
small intestine

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66
Q

what does protease do?

A

reacts with proteins to produce amino acids

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67
Q

what organs secrete lipase?

A

pancreas
small intestine

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68
Q

what organs is lipase secreted into?

A

small intestine

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69
Q

what does lipase do?

A

reacts with lipids to produce fatty acids and glycerol

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70
Q

where is hydrochloric acid secreted from?

A

the stomach

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71
Q

where is hydrochloric acid secreted into?

A

the stomach

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72
Q

where is bile made?

A

the liver

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73
Q

where is bile stored?

A

the gall bladder

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74
Q

where is bile secreted into?

A

the small intestine

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75
Q

what are the functions of hydrochloric acid?

A

to provide the best conditions for stomach enzymes

kills bacteria

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76
Q

what are the functions of bile?

A

neutralises stomach acid

enzymes in small intestine work best in alkaline conditions

emulsifies fats

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77
Q

what is the test for protein?

A

biurets reagent

blue -> purple

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78
Q

what is the test for starch?

A

iodine

orange/brown -> blue/black

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79
Q

what is the test for sugar?

A

benedict’s reagent + heat

blue -> red

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80
Q

how does temperature increase transpiration?

A

high temperature -> increased evaporation of water from leaf surface

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81
Q

how does humidity increase transpiration?

A

low humidity -> greater concentration gradient -> more water can evaporate

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82
Q

how does wind increase transpiration?

A

more wind -> greater air flow -> more water can evaporate from the leaf surface

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83
Q

how does light intensity increase transpiration?

A

higher light intensity -> stomata remain open to allow c02 to enter plant for photosynthesis -> more water can leave via the stomata

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84
Q

what are the adaptations of a root hair cell?

A

large SA
many mitochondria

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85
Q

Xylem’s structure

what are the adaptations of the xylem?

A

hollow tubes made of lignin

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86
Q

what are the adaptations of the phloem?

A

tubes of elongated cells
cell sap in the phloem moves from one cell to the next as there are pores in the end walls

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87
Q

what is the function of the meristem?

A

contains stem cells which can differentiate into other cell types

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88
Q

what is the function of the palisade mesophyll?

A

absorbs light for photosynthesis

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89
Q

what is the function of the spongy mesophyll?

A

gaps between cells allow gases to pass through easiliy

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90
Q

what is the function of the stomata/guard cells?

A

opens and closes by changing size to allow gases to enter and exit

controls transpiration

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91
Q

what is the function of the xylem?

A

transports water and ions

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92
Q

what is the function of the phloem?

A

transports sugars (translocation)

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93
Q

what are the types of pathogens?

A

bacteria
virus
protist
fungus

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94
Q

how do (bacterial) pathogens make us feel ill?

A

they produce toxins which damage our tissues and make us feel ill

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95
Q

how do viruses destroy cells?

A

viruses reproduce in cells which causes them to burst open/ causes cell damage

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96
Q

how does a vaccination make someone immune to a pathogen?

A

introduces small quantities of dead/inactive forms of a pathogen into the body

this stimulate the white blood cells to produce antibodies

this means that if the same pathogen re-enters the body, antibodies can be produced rapidly

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97
Q

how does the trachea/ bronchi defend against disease?

A

cilia (hairs) waft the mucus to the back of the throat where it is swallowed and goes to the stomach

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98
Q

how does the stomach defend against disease?

A

strong acids in the stomach (pH 2) kill most bacteria

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99
Q

how does the nose defend against disease?

A

nose hair traps pathogens

snot/mucus can trap pathogens

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100
Q

how does the skin defend against disease?

A

a layer of dead cells full of keratin acts as a physical barrier

produces antibacterial fluids

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101
Q

what is the first line of defence against disease?

A

your body’s natural barriers to infection

non-specific

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102
Q

what is the second line of defence?

A

phagocytosis (a type of white blood cell)

non-specific

6 billion per litre

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103
Q

describe phagoytosis?

A

phagocytes are attracted to pathogens when they have been ‘branded’ by antibodies

when a phagocyte comes into contact with a pathogen, it binds to it

the membrane of the phagocyte surrounds the pathogen, breaks it down with digestive enzymes and engulfs it into its vacuole

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104
Q

what is the third line of defence?

A

lymphocytes (a type of white blood cell)

specific

3 million per litre

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105
Q

how do lymphocytes defend against disease?

A

recognises one type of antigen and binds to it

lots of antibodies are produced which clump the pathogens together

this prevents them from entering cells and make them more vulnerable to phagocytosis

antibodies can also cause cell lysis

lymphocytes also produce antitoxins, which neutralise any toxins produced by the pathogen

memory lymphocytes are also made, which circulate the blood and provide long-term immunity

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106
Q

why does each lymphocyte have a specific antibody to attack a specific pathoogen?

A

each lymphocyte only produces one types of antibody. the binding site has a unique shape that will only match one type of antigen

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107
Q

what type of pathogen causes smallpox?

A

a virus

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108
Q

how was james phipps given immunity to smallpox?

A

he was infected with cowpox by edward jenner, which produced memory cells for it. the antibodies needed for smallpox and cowpox were similar, so his body could quickly find the antibodies needed for smallpox as well.

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109
Q

what happens if memory cells recognise an antigen?

A

they multiply to quickly destroy the pathogens. the antibody concentration stays high in case of another infection

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110
Q

how does ring vaccination work?

A

you only vaccinate people who have been in contact with the infected person

used if the virus mutates quickly or if there aren’t many vaccines

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111
Q

define monoclonal?

A

all one type

identical copies of one type of antibody

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112
Q

how is a hybridoma cell made?

A

b-lymphocytes from a mouse (specific)
+
tumour cells ( can divide)
I
membranes broken down with detergents or electricity
I
> hybridoma cell (MAKES specific antibodies + can divide)

monoclonal antibodies are then purified

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113
Q

name the main uses of monoclonal antibodies?

A

pregnancy/covid tests

locating/ identifying specific molecules by binding to them with fluorescent dye

diagnosing cancer

detecting pathogens/ measuring hormone levels

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114
Q

pros of monoclonal antibodies?

A

cancer: only combine with tumour cells, so healthy body cells wouldn’t be killed

they can also encourage your immune system to directly attack the cancerous cells

can be produced quickly

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115
Q

cons of monoclonal antibodies?

A

can produce immune responses from the foreign mous proteins

has lots of side effects like chills, fever, nausea and blood pressure changes

ethical issues

have previously resulted in a cytokine storm (organ failure)

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116
Q

what is the first clinical phase of drug trials?

A

small number of healthy male volunteers
testing for safety in humans
10-100

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117
Q

what is the second clinical phase of drug trials?

A

small number of infected patients
testing for effectivity, safety, dosage
100-400

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118
Q

what is the third clinical phase of drug trials?

A

large scale
3000+ volunteers
does it work for everyone?
testing for dosage and safety
uses placebo

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119
Q

what is the fourth clinical phase of drug trials?

A

rollout
takes over a decade
costs around half a billion pounds

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120
Q

why are drug trials peer-reviewed?

A

opposing companies are the most critical of their competitors

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121
Q

what is a preclinical drug trial?

A

tested on cells then genetically engineered mice

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122
Q

how does antibiotic resistance happen?

A

through mutation:
there are errors when the bacteria copies its DNA

some of these random mutations give the bacteria antibiotic resistance

the resistant bacteria survive and reproduce, increasing the resistant strain.

if antibiotic courses aren’t finished:
the most dangerous bacteria are left at the end, as the weakest bacteria are killed first

this means that any surviving resistant bacteria had loads of space to reproduce

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123
Q

what family does MRSA belong to?

A

staphylococcus

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124
Q

what do antibiotics do?

A

interfere with a pathogen’s metabolism

slow bacterial growth and reproduction long enough for the immune system to help

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125
Q

why is the heart referred to as a double circulatory system?

A

on one circuit of the body, the blood passes through the heart twice

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126
Q

how does the blood on the left side of the heart differ to the blood on the right side?

A

the blood on the left is oxygenated and higher pressure

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127
Q

what tissue makes up the heart?

A

muscle

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128
Q

what is the role of the coronary artery?

A

supplies oxygen and sugars to the heart

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129
Q

why is the left ventricle the biggest chamber?

A

it needs to have lots of strong muscle to pump blood all through the body, so the chamber is bigger and the muscle around it is thicker, so can contract more powerfully

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130
Q

what is the journey of the blood in the circulatory system?

A

lungs -> pulmonary vein -> left atrium ->ATRIO-VENTRICULAR VALVE-> left ventricle ->SEMI-LUNAR VALVE-> aorta -> rest of the body -> vena cava -> right atrium -> ATRIO-VENTRICULAR VALVE-> right ventricle ->SEMI-LUNAR VALVE -> pulmonary artery -> lungs

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131
Q

how does the blood travel?

A

the part containing the blood contracts and the one in front realxes, sending the blood forwards. then, the one in front contracts and the one in front relaxes and so on

132
Q

describe the stages of the cardiac cycle?

A

the atriums(atria) relax and the blood flows in

the ventricles relax and the atria contract, so blood is squeezed into the ventricles

the ventricles contract, the valves shut and the blood is squeezed out of the heart through the arteries

133
Q

what are the advantages of an artificial heart?

A

less likely to be rejected by the immune system

easier to get

134
Q

what are the disadvantages of an artificial heart?

A

usually temporary fix (5 years)
surgery can lead to bleeding or infection

electrical motor could fail

could cause blood clots and strokes

135
Q

what are the advantages of a heart transplant?

A

leads to better quality of life

permanent fix

136
Q

what are the disadvantages of a heart transplant?

A

major surgery

anti-rejection drugs needed

long recovery time

few donors available

immune system could rejects it

137
Q

what controls the resting heart rate?

A

a group of cells called pacemakers which send electrical signals to the heart muscle

this can be replaced by an artificial pacemaker

138
Q

what would happen if a coronary artery got blocked?

A

less blood flow

less glucose and oxygen would reach the heart
=
heart has less energy
=
heart can’t contract
=
cells may die
=
heart attack

139
Q

what is the name for fatty deposits of cholestrol?

A

atheroma

140
Q

what are the consequences of cholestrol being stuck in the lining of the coronary artery?

A

smaller vessel diameter

vessel could rupture

blood clots could form

141
Q

what is the name for a blood blockage?

A

thrombosis

142
Q

what can narrowing of the coronary artery cause other than a heart attack?

A

angina:
attacks of chest pain caused by reduced blood flow

cardiac arrest:
when the heart stops pumping blood to vital organs

143
Q

what are the risk factors for heart disease?

A

genetic factors
diet (salt and saturated fat)
lack of exercise
high blood pressure

144
Q

what are statins?

A

drugs that stop the liver producing cholestrol

145
Q

what are the properties of an artery?

A

out of the heart

oxygenated blood
>EXCEPT PULMONARY ARTERY

low c02 content
low blood pressure
fast flow
strong pulse
thick wall
no valves
small lumen diameter

146
Q

what are the properties of a vein?

A

into the heart

deoxygenated blood
>EXCEPT PULMONARY VEIN

high c02 content
high blood pressure
slow flow
no pulse
thin wall
valves
very large lumen diameter

147
Q

what is a capillary?

A

a type of very thin blood vessel
they are found everywhere
c02, general waste products and water pass into the capillaries
>VIA DIFFUSION

148
Q

what is a capillary?

A

very thin type of blood vessel

found everywhere

c02, general waste and water pass into the capillaries via diffusion

149
Q

how are capillaries adapted to their function?

A

thinner cell walls (one cell thick)

thick lumen so more substances can pass through the capillary

150
Q

what is the whole blood split into?

A

blood cells 45%
plasma 55%

151
Q

what is in plasma?

A

water 90%
dissolve solutes 10%

152
Q

what is in the dissolved solutes of plasma?

A

proteins
> antibodies, clotting factors, LDLs, HDLs

hormones

digestion products
> glucose, glycerol, amino acids

minerals

waste products
> urea, carbon dioxide, lactic acid

153
Q

what is in the blood cells part of the whole blood?

A

white blood cells 25%
> immune system

red blood cells 70%
> carry oxygen

platelets 5%
> clotting stream

154
Q

what do the white blood cells consist of?

A

phagoctes 75%
>engulf and digest bacteria

lymphocytes
>antibodies and memory cells

155
Q

what are the adaptations of a red blood cell?

A

biconcave shape
> larger SA:V ratio
> faster diffusion

no nucleus
> carry more haemoglobin which binds tightly to oxygen

156
Q

what is haemoglobin?

A

a protein without oxygen bound to it (dark red)
oxyhaemoglobin is the same protein but with oxygen bound to it (bright red)

it is found in all arteries except the pulmonary artery. iron is found at the centre of the protein, which binds the oxygen

iron is needed to make haemoglobin

157
Q

how is oxyhaemoglobin formed?

A

in the lungs, haemoglobin binds with oxygen

oxyhaemoglobin is now formed and the blood is now bright red

the blood carries the oxygen to all the tissue

the haemoglobin releases oxygen and the blood is now dark red

haemoglobin is now formed and oxygen diffuses into the cells

blood returns to the lungs

158
Q

what is blood clotting?

A

a series of chemical reactions resulting in the change of fibrinogen ( a soluble blood protein) to fibrin ( a soluble blood protein)

this forms a network of fibres which trap blood cells and cause a clot. the clot then hardens to form a scab

159
Q

what are platelets?

A

small fragments of cells involved in blood clotting

160
Q

what does anerobic mean?

A

without oxygen

161
Q

what does aerobic mean?

A

with oxygen

162
Q

what is respiration?

A

breaking down glucose to provide energy for the cell

it is an exothermic reaction which is continuously occurring in living cells

a biochemical reaction

163
Q

what is fatigue?

A

when muscles accumulate lactic acid and can’t contract effectively

164
Q

what is glycogen?

A

a polymer of glucose used as an energy store

165
Q

what is oxygen debt?

A

the oxygen needed to break down lactic acid

166
Q

what is the equation for aerobic respiration/ photosynthesis?

A

glucose + oxygen -> carbon dioxide + water
c6h12o2 + 6h2o -> 6co2 + 6h2o

167
Q

what is the equation for anerobic respiration in muscles?

A

glucose -> lactic acid

168
Q

why does anerobic respiration result in less energy?

A

the oxidation of glucose is incomplete, so much less energy is transferred

169
Q

what is the equation for anerobic respiration in plant and yeast cells?

A

glucose -> ethanol + carbon dioxide + energy
C6H12O6 ⟶ 2C2H5OH + 2CO2

this is called fermentation in yeast cells and is used to make alcoholic drinks and bread

170
Q

why do mitochondria have folded inner membranes?

A

for a larger SA

171
Q

where are the most mitochondria found?

A

muscle cells - needed for contraction
nerve cells - needed to produce impulses

172
Q

which cells have few mitochondria?

A

prokaryotic cells and dead cells

173
Q

what effect does exercise have on pulse rate?

A

during exercise, the muscles need energy to contract

this energy comes from glucose and oxygen to produce co2

more glucose and oxygen are needed, so the pulse rate increases, meaning the blood is pumped round to the muscles faster, so glucose and oxygen arrive faster and waste products get removed faster

174
Q

what are the stages of anerobic respiration?

A

heart and lungs can’t supply oxygen fast enough

aerobic respiration provides less and less energy
SO
anerobic respiration provides energy

glucose is broken down into lactic acid

lactic acid accumulates in muscles, causing fatigue

FORCED TO STOP EXERCISE

some lactic acid is oxidised to water and oxygen

some lactic acid is transported from muscles to liver

oxygen debt has been repayed

175
Q

which type of respiration is the most complete breakdown of glucose?

A

aerobic respiration (19x as effective)

176
Q

what does ‘repaying the oxygen debt’ mean?

A

oxidising the lactic acid to oxygen and water

177
Q

how does your fitness affect the changes in breathing rate when exercising?

A

unfit:
- breathing rate increases faster due to the
smaller lung volume
slower diffusion
slower blood flow

fit:
-lower resting breathing rate as each breath transfers more oxygen to the blood
repays the oxygen debt faster
returns to normal faster
higher max breathing rate

178
Q

what is glycogen?

A

a polymer of glucose

it is made of stored glucose molecules, when the body has too much glucose, as it is stored until the body is short on glucose

it is broken down by glucagon into glucose which is released into the blood. glycogen formations is promoted by insulin

it is found in the liver

179
Q

what is metabolism?

A

the sum of all the chemical reactions that take place in the body

180
Q

what is a catabolic reaction?

A

this break down large molecules into smaller ones and don’t require much energy from respiration

these are exergonic and give out energy

eg. amino acids broken down into urea

181
Q

what is an anabolic reaction?

A

a synthesis reaction where larger, complex molecules are formed

they require much more energy released from respiration and are endergonic

eg. photosynthesis; glucose -> starch

182
Q

what are triglycerides?

A

made from a glycerol molecules and three fatty acid molecules

required to synthesise lipids

183
Q

what is required to convert glucose into amino acids in plants?

A

glucose is joined with nitrates from the soil to form amino acids

184
Q

what is the formula for cardiac output?

A

heart rate x stroke volume

185
Q

what conditions may be caused by a poor diet?

A

high fat/ sugar diet:
-high blood pressure
-depression
-heart disease
-strokes
-type 2 diabetes

low calcium diet:
-osteoporosis

too much red or processed meat:
-bowel cancer

186
Q

what conditions can be caused by high levels of stress?

A

depression

asthma

can increase factors of obesity, heart disease, diabetes, alzheimers

187
Q

what conditions can be caused by life situation?

A

stress

mental illness

188
Q

how can being overweight increase the risk of a stroke

A

having high pressure is strongly related to being overweight

this damages the body’s arteries in the long term by making the walls thick and stiff. this may cause a blood clot in a brain’s vessel, causing a stroke

189
Q

what is the link between infection of a pathogen and asthma?

A

pathogens can cause immune reactions which can cause allergic reactions

severe viral respiratory infections in childhood can lead to the development of asthma as the child grows, as the body can attack itself the lungs as well as the virus

this can trigger asthma

190
Q

what is the link between cancer and mental health problems?

A

severe physical ill health like cancer can cause depression or other mental illnesses

191
Q

what is SCID

A

severe combined immunodeficiency

a group of rare inherited disorders which cause severe abnormalities of the immune system

this happens when white blood cells are missing or working poorly

this results in serious or life threatening infections

192
Q

what is a pathogen?

A

a disease-causing microorganism

193
Q

how does the body respond to allergen?

A

the immune system produces antibodies to fight off the allergen
the first time it is encountered, the immune response is smaller than the subsequent times

with repeated exposure, the body produces large amounts of the specific antibodies and stimulate the cells to release histamine, the chemical that produces allergic symptoms

this helps expel the allergen out of the body

194
Q

how can diet affect the incidence on non-communicable diseases?

A

a better diet without processed foods can reduce your chance of cancer

a high cholesterol diet can lead to build ups of atheroma which lead to blocked arteries and strokes or heart attacks

195
Q

how can alcohol consumption affect the incidence of non communicable diseases?

A

drinking alcohol has been linked to mouth, liver, breast and stomach cancers

alcohol consumption helps prevent kidney cancer

it is a depressant, so can lead to depression or memory loss

alcohol withdrawal symptoms can lead to raised pulse, nausea, headaches, insomnia, anxiety and depression

alcohol increases your blood pressure and heart rate which can lead to other things

196
Q

how does smoking affect the incidence of non-communicable diseases?

A

cigarettes contain over 60 carcinogens

carbon monoxide binds easier to haemoglobin easier than oxygen, so the blood carries less oxygen which can cause anemia

chemicals in cigarette smoke increase the likelihood of blood clotting, which can cause a stroke or a heart attack

197
Q

what are the risk factors for cardiovascular disease?

A

poor diet

smoking

no exercise

198
Q

what are the risk factors for type II diabetes?

A

obesity

199
Q

what are the risk factors for liver and brain damage?

A

alcohol

200
Q

what are the risk factors for lung disease and cancer?

A

smoking

201
Q

what are the risk factors for low birth weight or premature birth?

A

smoking

202
Q

what are the risk factors for abnormal foetal brain development?

A

alcohol

203
Q

what are the risk factors for cancer?

A

carcinogens, smoking, obesity and radiation

204
Q

what is cancer?

A

the result of changes in cells that lead to uncontrolled growth and division (mitosis)

205
Q

what is a benign tumour?

A

a mild tumour which doesn’t spread

206
Q

what is a malignant tumour?

A

spreads to other parts of the body and forms secondary tumours

this is called metastasis

207
Q

how does cancer happen?

A

chromosomes are damaged

cancerous cells multiply to form a tumour within a block of tissue

the tumour cells enter the bloodstream and cancer is spread through the body

208
Q

what is vasoconstriction?

A

when your capillaries and arteries are thinner because it is cold

209
Q

what is vasodilation?

A

when your capillaries and arteries are wider and the blood is closer to the surface of the skin

210
Q

what is myopia?

A

when the eyeball is too long for the strength of the lense, the lense is too strong/ thick or the cornea is too sharply curved

when the eye attempts to produce an image, it falls short of the retina

the image focuses in front of the retina

211
Q

what is hyperopia?

A

when the eyeball is too short for the strength of the lense, the lens is too weak/thin or the cornea isn’t curved enough

when the eye wants to produce an image, it falls behind the retina

the image focuses behind the retina

212
Q

what are stents?

A

needed when blood vessels are blocked with cholesterol plaque

carried out with a catheter and a balloon

213
Q

what are the advantages of stents?

A

little risk to the patient
reduces pain
increases quality of life

214
Q

what are the disadvantages of stents?

A

the fatty deposits can rebuild
can cause blood clots

215
Q

what is an artificial pacemaker?

A

needed when the patient’s heartbeat needs electrical pulses to control it

a wire is attached from their vein to the right atrium

216
Q

what are the advantages of an artificial pacemaker?

A

major surgery isn’t needed
can eliminate shortness of breath

217
Q

what are the disadvantages of an artificial pacemaker?

A

can be rejected by the immune system
can cause infections

218
Q

what is an artificial valve?

A

used to replace heart valves when they are damaged from disease or age

if not fixed, the blood can flood back, meaning oxygenated and deoxygenated blood can mix

they can be biological, inserted through a small leg incision or mechanical, inserted with open heart surgery or a catheter in the leg

219
Q

what are the advantages of a biological valve?

A

red blood cells won’t be damaged
won’t be rejected by the body

220
Q

what are the disadvantages of biological valves?

A

they can harden so may need replacing

221
Q

what are the advantages of mechanical valves?

A

won’t be rejected by the body

222
Q

what are the disadvantages of mechanical valves?

A

can damage the red blood cells, so anti clotting drugs may be needed

223
Q

how can plant diseases be identified?

A

consulting a garden manual or website

using monoclonal antibodies testing kit

taking the infected plant to a lab for expert advice

224
Q

what are the mechanical responses of plants?

A

thorns and hairs

mimicry

leaves drop/ curl when touched

225
Q

how do thorns and hairs help plant defence?

A

hairs prevent larvae from reaching the epidermis to feed

thorns impale insects and prevent eggs laying

they also deter grazing herbivores and wear down their teeth

226
Q

how does mimicry help plant defence?

A

features trick animals into not feeding or laying eggs

some grasses and hollyhocks have stem markings that look like aphids

227
Q

What is the function of a capsule?

A

for protection/sticking prokaryotic cells together

228
Q

What is the function of a flagella?

A

movement

229
Q

What is the function of the pili?

A

for sticking to surfaces, such as cells to spread disease

230
Q

What are plasmids?

A

extra bits of circular DNA for antibiotic resistance

231
Q

What are the main organelles in a eukaryotic cell?

A

cytoplasm
nucleus
cell membrane
ribosome
mitochondria

232
Q

What is the relative size of bacterial cells?

A

Smaller than a eukaryotic cell

233
Q

How is genetic material found in a eukaryotic cell?

A

rings of DNA

234
Q

How is genetic material found in a prokaryotic cell?

A

in the nucleus

235
Q

What conditions can be helped by stem cell treatment?

A

Parkinson’s, cancer, heart disease

236
Q

What are some of the substances transported in and out of cells by diffusion?

A

oxygen and co2 and urea

237
Q

What is the pH of bile?

A

8

238
Q

What factors affect the rate of transpiration?

A

humidity
light intensity
wind
temperature

239
Q

Why is it difficult to develop drugs that kill viruses?

A

viruses ‘live’ inside cells, so it is very hard to kill the virus without also killing the cell it is living in

240
Q

Where are plant stem cells found?

A

in the meristem (roots and shoots)

241
Q

What are some possible uses for plant stem cells?

A

to prevent extinction
economic benefit
food production
research
disease resistance

242
Q

What are some ethical/religious concerns about stem cell use?

A

destroying the embryo
umbilical cord stem cells need mother’s consent

243
Q

What are some risks associated with stem cell use?

A

cells can behave like cancer
immunosuppressant drugs often needed

244
Q

What factors affect the rate of diffusion?

A

temperature
concentration gradient
surface area

245
Q

What factors increase the effectiveness of an exchange surface?

A

-large SA to increase the exchange site
-thin walls/ membrane, decreases diffusion distance
-a good blood supply to maintain a steep concentration gradient
-well ventilated for gaseous exchange (IN ANIMALS)

246
Q

How is active transport used in root hair cells?

A

to absorb nitrate ions from soil water

247
Q

How is active transport used in villi in the small intestine?

A

to absorb amino acids and glucose into the blood

248
Q

What is in an organisational hierachy?

A

organelle →cells → tissues → organs → organ systems

249
Q

What is denaturation?

A

When the active site of an enzyme changes and no longer fits the substrate

250
Q

What is the purpose of digestive enzymes?

A

To convert food into small soluble molecules which can be absorbed into the bloodstream

251
Q

How can the spread of disease be reduced?

A

preparing food hygienically, washing, vaccination

252
Q

Name 3 diseases caused by a virus

A

measles, HIV, TMV

253
Q

Name 2 diseases caused by bacteria

A

Salmonella, gonorrhoea

254
Q

Name a disease caused by a protist

A

malaria

255
Q

Name a disease caused by a fungus

A

rose black spot

256
Q

How is measles transmitted?

A

droplet infection

257
Q

How is HIV transmitted?

A

direct contact of bodily fluids

258
Q

How is salmonella transmitted?

A

contaminated food

259
Q

How is gonorrhoea transmitted?

A

unprotected sex

260
Q

How is malaria transmitted

A

mosquito bites

261
Q

How is rose black spot transmitted?

A

spores from a parasitic fungus

262
Q

How is TMV transmitted?

A

wounds in the plant skin or epidermis

263
Q

What are the symptoms of measles

A

fever/ red rash

264
Q

What are the symptoms of HIV?

A

weak immune system
AIDS
flu-like symptoms

265
Q

What are the symptoms of salmonella?

A

vomiting
stomach aches
diarrhoea

266
Q

What are the symptoms of gonorrhoea?

A

vaginal/penile discharge
pain urinating

267
Q

What are the symptoms of malaria?

A

fever
muscle pains
cough
headache

268
Q

What are the symptoms of rose black spot?

A

black spots on leaves
leaves turn yellow

269
Q

What are the symptoms of TMV?

A

discoloured mosaic/mottling on leaves

270
Q

How can measles be prevented?

A

MMR vaccination

271
Q

How can HIV be prevented?

A

Antiretroviral drugs (stop the virus replicating)

272
Q

How can salmonella be prevented?

A

vaccination animals
hygenic conditions

273
Q

How can gonorrhoea be prevented/ treated?

A

condoms
antibiotics

274
Q

How can malaria be prevented/ treated?

A

Spraying pools of stagnant water with:
-insecticides to kill mosquitoes
-oil to suffocate the larvae
drain stagnant water pools
mosquito nets
taking drugs to kill the protist in the blood

275
Q

How can TMV be prevented/ treated?

A

removing infected plant materials
controlling pests
sterilising tools
washing hand after handling infected plants

276
Q

How can rose black spot be treated?

A

removing and burning dropped leaves
pruning and burning shoots
fungicides
surrounding plants with manure to stop fungal spores from reaching the stems

277
Q

What is herd immunity?

A

resistance to an infectious disease within a population based on a high proportion of the population being immune. this makes it harder for the virus to spread to people who aren’t immune

278
Q

What is a painkiller?

A

a chemical that relieves the symptoms but doesn’t kill the pathogen

279
Q

What factors affect the rate of photosynthesis?

A

light intensity
CO2 concentration
temperature
chlorophyll shortage

280
Q

What are the symptoms of a magnesium deficiency?

A

yellow leaves

281
Q

What are the symptoms of a nitrate deficiency?

A

poor growth, yellow leaves

282
Q

What are the symptoms of a potassium deficiency?

A

poor growth of fruits and flowers, discoloured leaves

283
Q

What are the symptoms of a phosphate deficiency?

A

poor root growth, discoloured leaves

284
Q

What is the inverse square law (photosynthesis)?

A

If you move the light source double the distance, the intensity will quarter

intensity = 1/ distance^2

285
Q

How do watering systems increase food production in greenhouses?

A

regular, equal amounts of water to each plant without labour

286
Q

How do hydroponics increase food production in greenhouses?

A

this is growing plants in mineral solutions without soil- expensive but effective

287
Q

How does shading increase food production in greenhouses?

A

controls light and temperature

288
Q

How do biological control increase food production in greenhouses?

A

pesticides aren’t used- living organisms in a closed growing environment

289
Q

How do humidifiers increase food production in greenhouses?

A

reduce water loss via transpiration, reducing the need for water

290
Q

How do heaters increase food production in greenhouses?

A

control temperature and co2 concentration (paraffin heaters)

291
Q

How does the sun increase food production in greenhouses?

A

faster rate of photosynthesis (but can denature enzymes)

292
Q

How does ventilation increase food production in greenhouses?

A

helps control humidity and temperature

293
Q

What are the uses of glucose in plants?

A

Respiration
Starch for energy storage
Proteins for growth and repair
Cellulose to strengthen cell wall
Oils and fats for energy storage

294
Q

What do organisms need energy for?

A

Movement
Respiration
Sensitivity
Growth
Reproduction
Excretion
Nutrition

295
Q

What is homeostasis?

A

the regulation of the internal conditions of a cell or organism to maintain optimum conditions for function in response to internal and external changes

296
Q

Name 3 levels controlled by homeostasis

A

blood glucose concentration
body temperature
water levels

297
Q

What can automatic control systems involve

A

nervous or chemical responses

298
Q

What is a receptor?

A

cells which detects changes in the environment

299
Q

What is purpose of a coordination centre?

A

to receive and process information from receptors

300
Q

Name 3 examples of coordination centres in the body

A

brain
spinal cord
pancreas

301
Q

What is an effector?

A

muscles or glands which bring about responses to restore optimum levels

302
Q

What is the main function of the nervous system?

A

to enable humans to react to their surroundings and coordinate their behaviour

303
Q

What is binary fission?

A

cell division

304
Q

Describe the SA:V ratio in single-celled organisms

A

relatively larger to allow sufficient transport of molecules into and out of the cell

305
Q

How is the small intestine adapted for exchanging materials?

A

villi, for a large surface area, shorter diffusion path and rich blood supply

306
Q

How are the lungs adapted for exchanging materials/ gaseous exchange?

A

well ventilated
capillaries ensure good blood supply and steep concentration gradient
alveoli provide a large surface are and are very thin, so there is a smaller diffusion distance

307
Q

How are gills adapted for exchanging materials?

A

good blood supply
continuous water flow
gills made of thin filament stacks (large surface area and smaller diffusion distance)

308
Q

How are roots adapted for exchanging materials?

A

large sa (root hair cells)
constant water flow

309
Q

How are leaves adapted for exchanging materials?

A

flat, so have a large surface area
thin walls
stomata to allow movement of gases

310
Q

How are enzymes linked to metabolism?

A

chemical processes within a cell require an enzyme to speed up the reaction-the enzyme helps to increase or decrease the rate of metabolism in the body

311
Q

What is health?

A

The state of physical and mental wellbeing

312
Q

What is the function of epidermal tissues?

A

The upper epidermis is transparent to let light through for photosynthesis
The lower epidermis contains guard cells

313
Q

What is a limiting factor?

A

anything that slows or stops a process

314
Q

What is a placebo?

A

a substance with no chemical effects given to a patient instead of a drug

315
Q

What is a double blind trial?

A

a trial where neither the researchers nor the patients know whether they are getting a placebo

316
Q

How do plants use nitrate ions from the soil?

A

to make proteins

317
Q

Why does anerobic respiration take place in muscles in exercise?

A

there isn’t sufficient oxygen present in the muscle cells

318
Q

What is the liver’s role in the removal of lactic acid?

A

The blood flow through muscles removes lactic acid and transports it to the liver.

319
Q

How is the nervous system adapted to its functions?

A

Nerve cells (neurons):
- have a long fibre to carry messages long distances
- their axons are insulated by a myelin sheath, which increases the speed of nerve impulses

320
Q

Define hormones

A

A chemical substance produced by a gland and carried in the bloodstream

321
Q

State 5 metabolic processes

A

breaking down glucose, making glucose, breaking down fat, making ATP, the krebs cycle

322
Q

What is a metabolic process?

A

A chemical reaction in the cells of an organism

323
Q

How have neuroscientists been able to map the regions of the brain to particular functions?

A

MRI scans, CT scans, EEGs

324
Q

What is an MRI scan?

A

Magnetic resonance imagery

325
Q

What is a CT scan?

A

Computed tomography scan- uses x rays. It is easier to use than MRI, although there is some risk of radiation and injected dyes

326
Q

What is EEG?

A

electroencephalography- small sensors are placed all over the scalp to detect electrical brain signals. It can’t be used to detect cancer.

327
Q
A

Aqa Biology GCSE (8 decks)

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