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"MY" XLX AIRCRAFT GENERAL > XlS AIRCRAFT GENERAL > Flashcards

XlS AIRCRAFT GENERAL Flashcards

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1
Q

XLS DIMENSIONS

A

55.7’ wide
52.73’ Long
17.2’ High

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2
Q

Turning Radius

A

70.60’ Wingtip

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3
Q

Engine off Tank-to-tank x-feed rate

A

Transfer rate is dependant on the receiving engines requirements but it is generally 700-900 lbs/hour with
the engines shut down.

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4
Q

LOW FUEL PRES light illuminates when ? Extinguishes when ?

A

<5psi. Extinguishes >7 psi.

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5
Q

When X-feed is selected, what happens ?

A

Boost pump on supplying side activates (Fuel Boost L/R light illuminates)
X-feed valve opens (Fuel X-Feed advisory light illuminates when fully open)
Motive Flow on receiving side is energized closed 3 seconds after X-feed selected.
Motive Flow on “supply” fuel tank, is now providing fuel to opposite engine and tank

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6
Q

What if the X-feed valve doesn’t open all the way when de-selecting X-feed ?

A

FUEL X-FEED advisory light illuminates flashing and activates the MC light steady.

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7
Q

How many fuel pumps types are there per engine ?

6

A

1 Fuel boost pump
1 Engine driven fuel pump
1 Primary ejector pump
3 Ejector pumps

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8
Q

What will happen if you select X-feed but have the fuel boost pumps in the OFF position ?

A

x-feed valve will not open BUT the primary motive flow (receiving tank) will close resulting in a
LO FUEL PRESS light. Engine flameout may occur.

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9
Q

What indication that the motive flow has failed (Boost pump in the NORM position)

3 parts

A

LO FUEL PRESS light flashes on momentarily…boost pump auto starts due to lo fuel pressure condition…
FUEL BOOST light illuminates

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10
Q

Fuel planning estimates

A

Reserve: 900 lbs
Taxi: 200 lbs
1 st Hour 1600 lbs
2 nd Hour 1400 lbs
3 rd Hour 1200 lbs

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11
Q

How many fuel drains per wing ?

A

5

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12
Q

What are the primary ejector pumps for and how many are there ?

A

1 per wing. Takes over the function of supplying fuel to the eng driven fuel pump at around 45 % N2
during start.

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13
Q

What do the scavenger pumps do and how many are there ?

A

3 per wing. They re-distribute fuel from unusable portions of the fuel tank directly to the fuel hopper
(where the primary ejector pump sits) so that the ejector pump can continue to supply fuel to the engine.

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14
Q

When fuel transfer is selected, what does the motive flow shutoff valve do and when ?

A

Shuts off primary ejector pump flow in the “receiving” tank during x-feed.

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15
Q

How do you activate the fuel shutoff valves ? How do you re-open them ?

A

Press the FIRE button once. Pressing a second time opens them back up.

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16
Q

Fuel quantity system consists of what ?(4)

A
  • Fuel capacitance probes – 7 (signal to the fuel quantity indicators)
  • Low level fuel float switch – 1 per wing (signal to Lo Fuel Level L/R light)
  • Fuel flow meter – 1 in each engine just downstream of the fuel control unit (signal to fuel flow gauge)
  • Fuel temp sensors – in the fuel sump area (send signal to the fuel temp sensor)
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17
Q

What is important to remember if you get a R/L FUEL GAUGE light ?

A

Do not remove DC power until the BIT test lights can be confirmed by maintenance

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18
Q

When must the fuel boost pump switch be in the ON position ?

A

<400 lbs

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19
Q

What type Hyd system ?

A

Open center system

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20
Q

Hyd system unpressurized psi ? Pressurized psi ?

A

60 psi/1500 psi

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21
Q

Why do you descend to FL 310 and reduce speed to 200 kts if hyd system remains pressurized
during flight ?

A

Air has poor cooling qualities above 310 and the speed restriction reduces the engine rotation/hyd pump
rotation speed to help cool the hyd pump

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22
Q

When does the Hyd system fully pressurize ?

A

When a service is commanded (flaps/gear/speed brakes/TR’s/stabilizer)

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23
Q

Delete
How does it pressurize ?

A

Delete
Hyd Ctrl Valve controls pressurization/de-pressurization of the system – heart of the system

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24
Q

Is there pressure in the hyd reservoir with engines off ?

A

Yes – spring-loaded piston pressure to provide head pressure to pumps & absorb pressure spikes
-SPEEDBRAKES-

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25
Q

How are speedbrakes held open and closed ?

A

Closed via mechanical lock – Open via trapped hyd fluid

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26
Q

When will speedbrakes retract ?

A

-selecting “retract” on speedbrake switch
-either throttle advanced past 80-85% N2

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27
Q

If DC power lost with speedbrakes in extended position, what happens ?

A

They blow to trail. Need DC power to maintain trapped hyd fluid.

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28
Q

If Hyd power is lost, what happens to extended speedbrakes ?

2 parts

A

will remain extended until you move the switch or advance throttles past 80-85% N2. They will then blow
back.

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29
Q

While taxiing, you press the brakes but they won’t budge (hard brake). What is the problem ?

A

Anti-skid system malfunction. Remove feet and use pneumatic braking

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30
Q

What functions require BOTH squat switches to be depressed ?(3)

A

T/R deployment
Stick shaker test
locked wheel protection

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31
Q

When must Ignitions be on ?3

A

<70% N2
Severe Turbulence
Heavy Rain

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32
Q

Pitot/Static htr limit – Gnd:

A

2 minutes unless in freezing conditions

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33
Q

Gen Amps limited to ___ on gnd:

2 part anser

A

200 amps gnd opns – transient up to
250 amps for up to 4 minutes.

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34
Q

Max Gen load in flight:

A

300 amps

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35
Q

Max Gen load differential ?

A

30 amps

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36
Q

Starter Limitation:

A

3 eng starts/30 mins with 90 sec rest

between each cycle

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37
Q

Battery Limitation:(starts)

A

3 per hour

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38
Q

Gen Assist start counts as __ bat starts.

A

1/3

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39
Q

GPU start counts as ___ bat starts.

A

0

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40
Q

GPU power requirements:

A

800-1000 amps/28 VDC

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41
Q

Max Oil Consumption:

A

1 quart per 10 hour period

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42
Q

Min fuel Temp

A

-40

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43
Q

Max fuel temp

A

+57

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44
Q

Max fuel imbalance:

A

400 lbs /800 lbs in emergency

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45
Q

Vmo below 8000’

A

260

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46
Q

Vmo 8000-26,515’

A

305

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47
Q

Mmo (Abv 26,515)

A

.75

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48
Q

Vfe 35

A

175 kts

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49
Q

Vfe 7/15

A

200 kts

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50
Q

Flaps should not be retracted above:

A

200 kts

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51
Q

VLE (extending

A

250 Knots

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52
Q

Vlo (retracing)

A

200 knots

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53
Q

Vmca

A

90

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54
Q

Vmcg (speed)

A

81

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55
Q

Min A/S in icing:

A

160

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56
Q

Max Altitude T/O-LDG

A

14,000’

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57
Q

Max Ambient Temp:

A

ISA+39C

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58
Q

Min Ambient Temp:

For operations

A

-54C

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59
Q

Max Tire groundspeed:

A

165

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60
Q

Wet rwy with T/R’s perf credit limited to…

A

min 75 foot wide rwy

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61
Q

Anti-skid must be…

A

operational for T/O and Ldg

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62
Q

Rudder Bias and heat must be…

A

operational for T/O and Ldg

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63
Q

Must rudder bias be tested prior to flt ?

A

Yes

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64
Q

Max Altitude w/1-3 VG’s missing:

A

410

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65
Q

How many vortex generators ?

A

52 total (26 ea wing)

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66
Q

How many Vortex Generators may be missing ?

A

3 – consult MEL

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67
Q

How many Boundary Layer Energizers ?
How many BLE’s may be missing ?

A

22 total (11 per wing)
0

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68
Q

Max Cabin Pressure:
Pressure Relief Valve opens:
Pressure Gauge Redline:

A

9.6 +/-.1 psi
9.5 +/-.1 psi
9.7 psi

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69
Q

Stall altitude limit ?

A

25,000’

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70
Q

Autopilot min altitudes
Enroute:
Precision approach:
Non precision approach

A

Enr 1000’. P.Appr 180’. N.Prec Appr 300’

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71
Q

delete

Radome Fan Annc on limit:

A

30’ gnd opn OR until IC1 or IC2 light
illuminates and dispatch only into VMC

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72
Q

VOR appr’s w/o DME signal ?

Can it be done, if so how

A

Prohibited with A/P coupled or FD only.

73
Q

Crew O2 mask limit:
Pax mask limit:

A

Not for prolonged use above 40,000’
Not for prolonged use above 25,000’

74
Q

T/R speed limit after landing:

A

Idle thrust by 60 kts at ldg

75
Q

Max Time Reverse Thrust limit:

A

3 minutes in any 10 minute period

76
Q

AHRS slaving limit:

A

If DG mode selected in flight, must remain
in DG mode for remainder of flight. Slave
mode may be selected after ldg for next flt.

77
Q

Tail De-ice Min temp for use:

A

-40C <150kts) -35C >150kts)

78
Q

Squat Switch Functions in-flight(L)/on-ground(L)/L&R Squat switches

9 Item s

A

In-Flight (left squat switch):
- Hobbs Meter
- Digital Clock - Elapsed Flight time
- Opening of Emer Press Valve
- Auto pressurization control enabled
- Landing Gear Handle unlocked
- Rosemount probe heat enabled (with Avionics sw on)
- Flight idle enabled (with EEC’s operating)
- Ram air door modulation for pre-coolers
- AOA enabled anytime nose gear is down/locked with acft in flight. Enables
indexer 20 secs after takeoff with gear down.

79
Q

On Ground (left squat switch):

5 Items

A
  • Press controller to open outflow valves when <85% N2
  • Pre-pressurization during T/O
  • Gen Assisted Starts
  • Engine bypass valve for precooler opn
  • Gnd idle (with EEC’s operating)
80
Q

delete

In- Flight (L and R squat switches):

A
  • Stick shaker opn
81
Q

On Ground (L and R squat switches):

3 things

A
  • T/R deployment (either L or R squat switch down)
  • Stick shaker test
  • Antiskid locked wheel protection (both down)
82
Q

Which amber annunciator lights activate the Master Warning light ?

A

Dual gen failure and ARM/UNLOCK T/R lights in flight

83
Q

Which white annunciator lights illuminate the Master Caution light ?

A

Flashing GND IDLE
Flashing FUEL X-FEED – fuel xfeed valve didn’t shut after x-feed de-selected

84
Q

What does the Interior Master switch do ?

A

Removes all electrical power from the cabin except emergency lighting

85
Q

When will the CABIN DOOR annunciator illuminate ?

4 parts

A
  • door closed with BAT off
  • if vent door doesn’t close within 1 second
  • if any latch pin is not fully extended
  • if door is unlocked
86
Q

PASS SAFETY SW on does what ?

A

Sounds chime and illuminates seatbelt on/no smoking sign and all emer exit lights (if EMER LTS sw is
ON)

87
Q

SEAT BELT ON SW does what ?

A

Sounds chime and illuminates the SEATBELT ON sign.

88
Q

Emergency lighting consists of what ?

A

4 reading lamps/all EXIT signs/floor lighting takes you to emer exit/3 wing egress lights (rt side of acft – 2
above wing illuminates the wing, 1 forward of wing illuminates ground)

89
Q

How is Emergency lighting powered ?

2 parts 1, or 2

A
  • main DC power (or)
  • 2 emer nicad bat packs
90
Q

How are the Emergency lights activated ?

3 parts

A

-Switch to ON turns all lights on
-Switch to ARM arms the lighting system. 5g’s will auto activate as will total
DC power loss.

91
Q

Amber light to the left of the Emer Lights switch is for what ?

A

To remind you to turn the Emer lights switch to ARM.

92
Q

Where are the two emer bat packs located and what do they power ?

A

Front pack – powers EXIT sign over cabin door, Reading light opposite cabin door, reading light aft of
cabin door and left side aisle lighting.
Back pack – powers 2 EXIT signs over aft divider and over Emer Exit door, overhead light above emerg
exit door, left rear reading light and right side aisle lighting as well as the 3 exterior emergency lights.

93
Q

How do the following valves fail with a loss of DC power ?
Fuel x-feed:
Fuel Motivef Flow Valve:
Anti-ice stator Valve:
Hydraulic Control Valve:
Outflow Valves:
Wing Anti-ice X-feed:

A

fuel x-feed valve last known position
fuel motive flow valve open
anti-ice stator valve open
Hyd Control valve open
Outflow valves open
wing anti-ice x-feed valve closed

94
Q

What powers the tailcone lights ?

A

Battery Bus – they turn on with the battery hooked up without Bat switch on

95
Q

Primary electrical source for the acft ? volts and amps?

A

Generators – 30volt/300 amp

96
Q

Primary function of the battery ?

2 parts

A

Starting the engines and emergency operations

97
Q

Battery can power the entire electrical system for how long ?

A

10 minutes

98
Q

Battery can power the EMER BUS items for how long ?

A

30 minutes

99
Q

GPU must be regulated to what ?

A

28V…800-1000 amps

100
Q

What should you do if the GPU is connected for long periods of time ?

A

disconnect the battery

101
Q

Should the GPU be connected to the acft powered up or down ?

A

powered up

102
Q

How many different sources of emergency power are there ?

A

-2 battery packs in the nose compartment power the Meggitt and stby HSI
-2 battery packs in the cockpit (1) and cabin (1) area which are used for Emer Exit lighting.

103
Q

What does the BATTERY DISCONNECT switch do ?

A

Disconnects the battery electrically by opening the battery disconnect relay which removes the gnd.

104
Q

What does the Master Interior Switch do ?

cockpit

A

Removes all electrical power in the cabin except emergency lighting

105
Q

What does the elec system look like with BAT off ?

A

Battery and Bat Bus are isolated from the rest of the electrical system. Voltmeter is inop.

106
Q

What does the elec system look like with BAT On ?

A

Bat isolation relay closes connecting the Bat & Bat Bus to the X-feed Bus. Bat Bus is not directly
connected to the Emer Bus. Voltmeter indicates system voltage.

107
Q

What does the elec system look like with BAT Emer ?

A

Bat isolation relay opens isolating Bat & Bat Bus from main system. Emer Pwr Relay closes connecting
the Bat & Bat Bus directly to the Emer Bus powering all Emer Bus items. Voltmeter reads Bat voltage
unless L or R Gen is selected

108
Q

delete

What does the elec system look like with GEN off ?

A

GCU deactivated. Gen Power relay disconnects the Gen from the system.

109
Q

What is happening when GEN Reset selected ?

A

Gen Field relay is being reset.

110
Q

What does the GCU do ?

7 parts U
R
O
F
F

A

Parallels: both gens to within 30 amps.
Protect: Undervoltage – opens Pwr relay
Reverse Current – opens Pwr relay
Overvoltage – opens Field relay
Feeder fault – opens Field relay
Fire Switch – opens Field relay

Regulate: 30v to 28.5 volts

“you Are Off” U R O

111
Q

How do you reset flashing LED lights on the GCU ?

A

Reset the Gen switch 3 times in 3 seconds.

112
Q

What is on the BAT BUS ?

A

Tailcone Access and Baggage lights
Cabin Entrance lights
Voltmeter (On and Emer only)
Emer Busses (when in Bat EMER)
APU preflight panel in tailcone

113
Q

If Gen sw is off and Voltmeter reads 0 for that gen, which relay has tripped ? Is reset probable ?

A

Gen Field relay is tripped
Reset is probable

114
Q

If Gen sw is off and Voltmeter reads 28.5 for that gen, which relay has tripped ? Is reset
probable ?

A

Power relay is tripped.
Reset is NOT probable

115
Q

Indications that a current limiter is open.

A

Gens cannot be paralleled
If failed prior to start, eng on the OPEN side cannot be started. Master Warning on opposite side will illuminate
steady.

116
Q

If DC power is lost to the Meggitt, what happens ?

A

If the STBY PWR switch is in the ON position, the Meggitt backup battery pack will power the Meggitt
and backlighting for the standby HSI and N1 gauges.

117
Q

The Emergency Avionics Bat pack provides backup power for what and when ?

A

If DC power lost, with the STBY PWR switch ON, the emer avionics bat packs provide power to the
AHRS and MEGGITT.
Left side bat pack powers the Meggitt directly. (:30 minutes)
Right side (nose compartment) bat pack powers the AHRS (:30 minutes)

118
Q

Emer Lighting Bat Packs do what and when ?

3 things

A

If DC power lost, with Emer Light Sw ARM, they will illuminate 4 reading lights, front left and back right
aisle lighting, Exit lights, 2 over-the-wing lights and 1 front-of-wing light on right side of fuselage.
Also powers up these lights if there is a 5G impact..
Also on if Emer Light Sw is selected ON or PASS SAFETY sw ON. (????)

119
Q

How many Alternators, and what are they for ?

A

2 alternators, 1 on each engine, used to power up the windshield heat. Controlled by Windhield Anti-Ice
switches and always ON at Netjets.

120
Q

How do the following starts count against the battery ?
Bat start-
Gen start -
GPU start-
Airstart-
APU start -

A

Bat start 1
Gen start 1/3
GPU start 0
Airstart 1
APU start 1/3 rd of a battery start so 1/9 th of an engine start
APU with engine running (Gen online) 1

121
Q

What lights illuminate with dual GEN failures ?

A

Master Warning, Master Caution LH/RH GEN OFF

122
Q

Left (Cpt) side CB panel has what ?
Right (FO) side CB panel has what ?

A

Systems
Avionics

123
Q

The Bat disconnect switch is powered by the what ?

A

Battery – If battery runs out of power, the Bat disconnect will de-energize which will re-connect the battery
to the electrical system.

124
Q

Ground ops What does the over-voltage monitor do ?

A

If system voltage exceeds 32 volts during external power operations, it will disconnect the source.

125
Q
  1. When is a battery cold soaked ?
A

<-10 degrees C

126
Q

What powers the electrical system ?

A

1 battery/2 Gens/1 APU gen is available too/2 Alternators for windshield heat

127
Q

What are bus extensions for ?

A

Logical placement of CB’s on CB panels (systems with systems/avionics with avionics etc.)

128
Q

The Emergency battery bus powers what ?

(11)

A

Comm 1/Nav1/Stby Radio Ctrl Head
Ignitions L/R
AHRS 2
Stby pitot-static heat
N1 Indicators
Audio Panel 1 and 2
Meggitt
Cockpit flood/Glareshield lighting
Gear control & warning (lights and horn)
Flap & Stab Control
Hyd Control valve

129
Q

The meggitt battery also provides power for what ?

A

Emergency instrument lighting

130
Q

If the battery has been cold soaked below ____o and engines not preheated what should you do ?

A

-10C Should use external power or warm the battery to at least -10C

131
Q

After doing a GPU start, why should you wait for the GPU to be disconnected prior to Gen On ?

A

To make sure the battery is connected to the system

132
Q

Engine type, thrust?

A

Pratt and Whitney 545A producing 3804 lbs of thrust.

133
Q

With the Electronic Engine Control (EEC) in AUTO mode, what is provided ?

7 Things

A

Detented throttle positions
Auto Gnd Idle governing
Accel/Decel limiting
N1/N2 limiting and N2 overspeed protection
BOV control
Eng Sync
Engine Diagnostic function

134
Q

What does the Bleed off valve (BOV) do ?

A

Prevents compressor stall via the EEC

135
Q

If EEC Auto is disengaged, what happens to BOV control ?

A

BOV reverts to pneumatic mode (still does the job)

136
Q

How do you know that electric power has reached the ignition excitor box ?

A

Green ignition light.

137
Q

How many ignitors ? How do you know if one of them fails ?

A

2 – You don’t know (green light stays on)

138
Q

Ignition switch in NORM ?

A

Auto ignition for “start” and “eng or wing anti-ice on.”

139
Q

Ignition switch in SEC ?

A

Powers the Ignitors from the EMER bus continuously. Only done when directed to by an emergency
checklist.

140
Q

When should Ignition switches be in the ON position ?

A

Takeoff/Landing/Turbulence/Stalls/Heavy precipitation/emergency descent/N2<70%

141
Q

What is the brain of the fuel system ?

A

The Fuel Control Unit (FCU)

142
Q

What normally controls the FCU ?

A

The EEC

143
Q

What makes up the Eng Fire system ?

A

Sensing loop (2), fire ctrl unit (2), 2 extinguisher bottles, Test function and 3 lights: ENG FIRE Light-FIRE
DET SYS L/R light-FIRE EXT BOTL LOW light.

144
Q

What does the emergency shutoff valve do ?

A

auto shuts the engine down if a rearward movement of the LPT shaft occurs beyond .007”

145
Q
  1. If you lose the ADC, will you lose the EEC’s ?
A

Yes

146
Q

If you lose service air, will you lose EEC’s ?

A

Throttle detents not available

147
Q

When should eng sync’s be off ?

A
  • T/O and Ldg
  • 1 eng out
  • large power changes
  • airwork
148
Q

What bleed air is not regulated by the pre-coolers ?

A

Engine and stator anti-ice bleed air

149
Q

Which systems use bleed air ? 6
Service air? 5

A
  • Bleed air: ACM/Pressurization/engine Anti-ice/fuel flow divider/rudder bias heater/svc air
    -Service air: wing anti-ice/outflow valves/primary and acoustic door seals/throttle detents/tail deice
150
Q

Describe Engine start sequence

A

Starter depressed – Starter turns engine
8-10% - Throttle past detent – Fuel boost pump activates, ignitors fire (fuel and fire)
40-45% - Start switch light goes out, Ignitors deactivate, fuel boost pump de-activates, primary ejector
pump takes over for boost pump.

151
Q

The EEC temperature probe is called the…

A

T0 probe

152
Q

Engines produce how much thrust ?

A

3804 lbs.

153
Q

The EEC does what ?

A

Automatically sets T/O, CLIMB and CRUISE thrust when in AUTO mode and throttle in detent.

154
Q

During T/O, what is the only annunciator that should be illuminated ?

A

Gnd Idle

155
Q

What happens to Eng RPM after landing ?

A

N2 spools down from flt idle (51.5) to gnd idle (47) 8 seconds after landing automatically.

156
Q

What kind of engine fire protection system ?

A

Closed loop sensing system with a control unit, eng fire light, 2 bottles and a fire det circuit test.

157
Q

Fuel capacity ?

A

1006 gallons/6790 lbs

158
Q
  1. What determines/controls the stab’s position ?
A

The flap handle.

159
Q

With flaps selected in any position OTHER THAN 0, what happens to the stab ?

A

It moves to the -2 o T/O and LDG position.

160
Q

At what speed does the anti-skid system begin to work ? What speed does it drop out ?

A

activates: >12 kts drops out: <10 kts

161
Q

Touchdown protection does what ?

as it relates to main gear

A

Prevents the power brakes and anti-skid from working until wheel speed is at least 40 kts and both wheels
have been on the ground for at least 5 secs.

162
Q

The pneumatic bottle used by the pneumatic braking system is used for one other
function…what is it ?

A

gear extension (blow down bottle)

163
Q

When will the landing gear warning horn sound ?

A

-Gear not down and locked with both throttles below 70% N2 and:
- flaps >15 degrees
- radar altimeter indicates <500’ agl
- non-valid radar altimeter and <150 kts

164
Q

How is the brake hydraulic reservoir pressurized ?

A

Cabin air pressure

165
Q

When will the BIAS HEATER FAIL light illuminate ?

A

If either of the thermostats fail it will illuminate flashing – sets off the MC light.

166
Q

What are the BLE’s for ?

A

Increase airflow over the wing at high AOA to improve stall characteristics and maintain aileron
effectiveness throughout the stall region

167
Q

What is the altitude restriction for speed brakes ?

down low

A

50’ AGL

168
Q

5 ways to disengage the autopilot.

A

AP TRIM DISC button depress/Elec Trim activate/Go-Around button Press/Press A/P button to remove
power/manually overcoming the AP with force

169
Q

When should ALL anti-icing systems be turned on ?

A

When RAT is +10c and below with visible moisture

170
Q

Define visible moisture

A

visibility <1 mile

171
Q

What is the water/slush depth limit for operating the airplane ?

A

.75 inches. Compressor surges may result if taxiing in water/slush deeper than this.

172
Q

The pitot-static heating system switch heats what ?

A
  • Three pitot tubes
  • Six static ports
  • One AOA vane
    Ten total
173
Q

The stby pitot/static system is powered by which bus ?

A

Emer bus – so that heat can be applied to stby pitot-static during loss of DC power emergency

174
Q

The main pitot/static heat is powered by ?

A

Battery Bus

175
Q

Static port identification.

A

Left lower/right upper – Cpt
Left upper/right lower – FO
Rear – Stby

176
Q

Pitot tube identification.

A

Left – cpt
Right – fo
Rear – stby

177
Q

Rosemount probe is heated when ?

A

Avionics sw on with weight off wheels

178
Q

Rosemount probe does what ?

A

Only provides temp info directly to the MADC

179
Q
A

"MY" XLX AIRCRAFT GENERAL (1 decks)

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