X100 Flashcards
1
Q
What are the four steps of the operations process?
A
Plan, Prepare, Execute, and Assess
2
Q
What is the set of required conditions that define achievement of all military objectives?
A
Military End State
3
Q
What is the theater army commander’s principal focus?
A
Providing Title 10 functions
Army executive agent responsibilities,
Army Support to Other Services (ASOS)
4
Q
Materiel development and acquisition are integral within JCIDS, the Army Force Management Model, and DOTMLPF-P by
A
Attempting to satisfy identified and validated capability gaps with rapid or deliberate materiel acquisition solutions.
5
Q
Augmentation is required for an Army Sustainment Brigade (SB) to conduct which mission?
A
Theater distribution
6
Q
Legitimacy and host-nation ownership; unity of effort and unity of purpose; conflict transformation; and building host-nation capacity are foundational principles of what doctrinal concept?
A
STABILITY OPERATIONS
7
Q
According to the JP 4-0, Using the ___ ___ __ as a frame, the JFC’s logistics staff elements develop and codify an overarching approach to theater operations in the __ ___ ___.
A
TLA
TLO
8
Q
What are the forms of the defense?
A
Defense of a Linear obstacle,
Perimeter defense,
Reverse slope defense
9
Q
- Which DOTMLPF-P domain usually represents the most costly solution to implementing change?
A
MATERIEL
10
Q
Which of the following is a DSCA core task?
A
Provide support for domestic disasters,
provide support for domestic CBRN incidents,
provide support for domestic civilian law enforcement agencies,
provide other designated support (Enforce local/state/federal law)
11
Q
According to ADP 6-22, which response is the best description of organizational climate?
A
How members feel about the organization
12
Q
Which of the following was a feature of Frederick the Great’s Prussian army?
A
An extraordinary commitment to discipline (Soldier discipline)
13
Q
What are the three levels of leadership?
A
Strategic, Organizational, Direct
14
Q
The document that establishes the President’s guidance to Combatant Commanders on missions, responsibilities, and geographic and functional delineations.
A
The Unified Command Plan (UCP)
15
Q
_____ _______ ________ are the primary plans through which the CCMDs execute day-to-day campaigning.
They address theater objectives as well as objectives directed by GCPs and FCPs.
One of 3 campaign plans directed by the Joint Strategic Campaign Plan (JSCP)
A
Combatant Command Campaign Plan (CCP)
16
Q
Joint functions are related capabilities and activities grouped together to help the Joint Force Commander to:
A
Integrate, synchronize, and direct joint operations
17
Q
What term best describes the conditions of an environment in terms of those aspects, both military and nonmilitary, that may differ from one area to another, and may have an effect on operations?
A
Operational variables
18
Q
Within the definition of strategy as the integration of ends, ways, and means while accounting for risk to meet a desired end state, the term “risk” means:
A
The chance of failure or unacceptable consequences in performing that sequence of actions
19
Q
Which tasks are those that the higher commander assigns to a subordinate in a WARNORD, OPORD or another directive? These are tasks the higher commander wants the subordinate to accomplish.
A
SPECIFIED
20
Q
What type of control includes the authority to task-organize subordinate forces, assign missions and functions, and geographic responsibilities to forces.
A
Operational Control (OPCON)
21
Q
According to joint doctrine, a purpose of COA Analysis is to:
A
Identify advantages and disadvantages of proposed COAs
22
Q
What are the characteristics of offensive operations?
A
Concentration, Audacity, Surprise, and Tempo
23
Q
What was the desired strategic end state of the Schlieffen Plan as executed in 1914?
A
The defeat of Russia and France
24
Q
describe jus ad BELLUM (justice of going to war).
A
- Just Cause
- Legitimate Authority
- Public Declaration
- Just Intent
- Proportionality
- Last Resort
- Reasonable Hope of Success
Going to war for the right reasons, as a last resort, and with a reasonable hope for success.
25
describe a systems perspective.
Based on a node-link analysis of PMESII systems concerning adversaries and other relevant actors, the commander understands the series of complex, interconnected relationships at work within the OPERATIONAL ENVIRONMENT.
26
The purpose of ____________ is to limit collateral damage and prevent the unnecessary or unlawful use of force.
RESTRAINT
27
What organizational structure might a state use if it needed to provide unity of command for both Soldiers and Airmen responding to an emergency?
Joint Task Force - state
28
During the early phases of the attack on OBJ HAMILTON, the 1/3ID ABCT S2 informs the commander that enemy armored forces on OBJ MONROE are beginning to attack south. The commander's decision support matrix did not account for this event. Given the situation, what is the most appropriate planning methodology for adjusting the ABCT's course of action?
Rapid decision-making and synchronization process
29
If the 1/3ID ABCT staff identifies during planning that the 2/641 BTG (Motorized) will likely commit its reserve, A/4/620 Tank Company, if its defensive positions are penetrated, then what best describes what the staff should do to ensure that this action is analyzed during COA analysis and war gaming?
Identify this as a critical event
30
If your active duty battalion/squadron is committed for a DSCA mission, this is usually based on a disaster declaration under which act?
The Stafford Act
31
According to OPFOR tactics, what are preferred conditions for conducting an integrated attack?
The OPFOR possesses significant overmatch in combat power over enemy forces.
32
1/3ID ABCT were to attack with the aim of gaining control of terrain, resources, or key population centers, which doctrinal concept is best represented?
Purposes of OFFENSIVE operations
33
What are the 5 Army planning methodologies available to commanders and staffs?
Army design methodology,
military decision-making process,
troop leading procedures,
rapid decision and synchronization process,
Army problem solving process
34
What does a good operational approach provide the staff?
The basis for detailed planning and establishment of a logical framework
35
What are the four elements of the commander's reconnaissance guidance?
Displacement criteria,
engagement/disengagement criteria (if any) both lethal and nonlethal,
focus,
tempo of reconnaissance
36
During stability operations, if there is no legitimate government to support, what alternative governance entity might US forces support instead?
Transitional civil or military authority
37
In opposing force tactics, what is a battle zone?
A zone where the OPFOR expects to conduct decisive actions
38
In which MDMP step do commanders issue final planning guidance that communicates acceptable risk?
Step 6: COA approval
(May also be called COA "Decision")
39
During DSCA operations, what best illustrates the principle of tiered response?
A local mayor initiates a request to the governor for state national guard assistance
40
How does a shaping operation enable the decisive operation?
It creates and preserves conditions for success through effects on the enemy, other actors, and terrain
41
What best describes security operations?
Protects a force from surprise and reduce the unknowns in any situation
42
How do commanders and staffs synchronize specific functions throughout the operations process?
establish and use systematic processes and procedures
43
When conducting defensive operations commanders strive to regain the initiative from whom?
Attacking enemy forces
44
How does the Army apply the operational concept of Unified Land Operations (ULO)?
Through simultaneous execution of offense, defense, stability, or DSCA across multiple domains to shape operational environments, prevent conflict, prevail in large-scale ground combat, and consolidate gains as part of unified action.
45
During orders production, which member of the staff establishes and enforces timings, directs the order type and format, and specifies the attachments each staff section publishes?
The executive officer / chief of staff
46
Understanding a state's rules for the use of force (RUF) and the federal standing rules for the use of force (SRUF) during DSCA missions is analogous to understanding which of the following during other decisive action operations?
Rules of engagement
47
As part of security operations planning considerations, which formation is best suited to conduct extensive coordination to enable a forward or rearward passage of lines?
Cavalry Squadron
48
Which staff product consists of a continuous assessment of the current situation used to determine if the current operation is proceeding according to the commander's intent and if planned future operations are supportable?
Running estimates
49
What event within the preparation phase ensures a commander that the activities within a plan are synchronized in time / space and fully understood by the staff and subordinate commanders prior to execution?
Combined Arms Rehearsal
50
If the commander states that he wants to "keep the enemy on the defense and not allow them to recover from the speed of our actions and the application of combined arms effects across multiple domains,"
TEMPO
51
At the tactical level, which form of maneuver focuses on seizing terrain, destroying specific enemy forces, and interdicting enemy withdrawal routes?
ENVELOPMENT
52
What are the purposes of DSCA?
*Protect infrastructure and property*
Save lives
restore essential services
maintain/restore law and order
support maintenance of restoration of local government
shape the environment for intergovernmental success
53
During planning for defensive operations, the commander describes the necessity to prioritize engineer assets to conduct the survivability tasks of constructing combat vehicle fighting positions and protecting artillery firing positions and radar systems. Which WfF?
PROTECTION
54
What are the two descriptors the US Agency for International Development (USAID) uses to define the status of fragile states?
Crisis and Vulnerable states
55
How do stability operations differ from defense support of civil authorities (DSCA)?
DSCA operations are solely executed in the US homeland and US territories
56
Which retrograde variant best reflects a change of mission that directs preservation of combat power while maintaining contact with the attacking enemy force?
Withdrawal under pressure
57
Who establishes priorities for Army force integration efforts?
The Army G-3/5/7
58
__________ readiness prioritizes the readiness of specific units to keep them at a high level of readiness;
________readiness rotates which units are prioritized to build readiness at the time of need (employment).
TIERED
CYCLIC
59
What is the theater army commander's principle focus?
Providing Title 10 functions, Army executive agent responsibilities, and Army Support to Other Services (ASOS)
60
How does the Army publish its priorities for unit resourcing?
Dynamic Army Resource Priorities List (DARPL)
61
FORSCOM (the Army's force provider) follows ________, the model used to generate readiness to meet global demand while providing time for organizations to modernize.
Regionally Aligned Readiness and Modernization Model (ReARMM)
62
Who manages the Army's equipment distribution and redistribution?
Army Materiel Command (AMC)
63
To streamline modernization, Army Futures Command has established _____ __________ ____________ bringing all stakeholders into the conversation.
Cross-Functional Teams (CFTs)
64
Which three methods does the Defense Acquisition System (DAS) use for materiel development based on immediacy of need?
Urgent, Emergent, and Deliberate
65
What represents a "Must-Do", or minimum requirement a capability?
Key Performance Parameter (KPP)
66
The Army processes urgent acquisition requirements through Operational Needs Statements (ONSs). The Joint community uses ___________.
Joint Urgent Operational Needs (JUONs) and Joint Emergent Operational Needs (JEONs)
67
The two most important organizations in Army acquisition are ____________.
The Office of the Assistant Secretary of the Army for Acquisition, Logistics, and Technology (ASA(ALT)) and Army Futures Command (AFC)
68
JCIDS uses ____________ to identify capability needs, gaps, and solution analysis.
Capabilities-Based Assessments (CBAs)
69
A _______ ____________ describes how the joint community wants to operate in future conflicts.
Joint Concept
70
Within JCIDS, what construct do capability developers use to identify a wide range of possible solutions?
DOTMLPF-P
71
The ___ manages the Joint Requirements Oversight Council (JROC) and the _______ manages the Army Requirements Oversight Council (AROC).
Joint Staff J-8
HQDA G-8
72
A Modified Table of Organization and Equipment (MTOE) is an ________________________ document.
authorizations
73
What process does the Army use to develop organizational designs?
Force Development
74
What analytical framework does HQDA use to assess an FDU prior to approval?
Force Integration Functional Area (FIFA) analysis
75
Replacing HMMWVs with JLTVs on TOEs requires a ________________ to update the TOE.
Basis of Issue Plan (BOIP)
76
If a program is unable to spend appropriated funds, the Army can shift the funds to another program through ____________ but only if it is less than the allowable threshold.
Reprogramming
77
The conclusion of TAA marks the transition from ____________ to ___________________________.
Planning to Programming
78
The Program Objective Memorandum (POM) is built during _______.
PROGRAMMING
79
the Army Budget Office (ABO) monitors expenditures during ______________
EXECUTION
80
Of the choices below, what needs to occur for the Department of Defense to be able to fund operations at the beginning of FY22?
Congress passes and the President signs both the Defense Appropriation Bill and the Defense Authorization Bill for FY22.
81
Force Management develops and fields capabilities that combatant commanders ___________ to meet the ____________ of the contemporary operating environment
require
demands
82
By law, Headquarters, Department of the Army (HQDA) is limited in size. What organization(s) does it use to accomplish its Title 10 missions?
Army Commands (ACOMs),
Army Service Component Commands (ASCCs),
Direct Reporting Units (DRUs), and
Field Operating Agencies (FOAs)
83
Which is a factor that guided the Army's organizational evolution after Vietnam?
A clearly defined threat: the Soviet Union
84
Congress directs the Department of the Army (DA) to accomplish certain tasks through (code) ________________.
US Code Title 10
85
An MTOE is an _______________ document that details a resourced organization. A TOE is a ________________ document that details the doctrinal requirements for an organization.
authorizations
requirements
86
Within Total Army Analysis (TAA), the Qualitative Analysis phase provides a _____________________ view to apply operational ______________ and professional military __________ to the final Army force structure decisions
human-in-the-loop
experience
judgment
87
Army Senior Leaders document TAA decisions on the total force structure in the
Army Structure Memorandum (ARSTRUC)
88
What process do Army Senior Leaders use to determine the best force to meet operational requirements that they can afford within end strength limitations?
Total Army Analysis (TAA)
89
Who is a primary decision-maker in the Total Army Analysis?
The Chief of Staff of the Army (CSA)
90
T/F The BSB is organic to the Division Sustainment Brigade (DSB) and is employed by the BCT
False. The BSB is an organic component of a BCT, and the corps field artillery brigade.
91
T/F A brigade support battalion (BSB) capabilities are tailored to the type of brigade (e.g., ABCT, IBCT, Combat Aviation Brigade) it is supporting.
True: Sustainment at this echelon is centered on the BSB as an organic component of the brigade.
It provides supply, maintenance, motor transport, and Role 2 medical support to the supported BCT or brigade (figure 2-33). I
t is tailored to support the brigade to which it is assigned.
92
The ____________ ____ _____provides support and services to ensure freedom of action, extended operational reach, and prolong endurance.
Sustainment Warfighting Function
93
When a Combined Arms Battalion echelons the battalion trains, they are normally organized into _____ and _____ trains.
Combat
Field
94
The forward support company (FSC) supporting a maneuver battalion, positions elements forward of the Brigade Support Area (BSA) to provide responsive support to the maneuver companies. The maneuver battalion aid station and maneuver battalion maintenance collection point are normally collocated with these FSC elements at the __ ____________ _______________ .
Battalion combat trains.
95
T/F The Division Sustainment Brigade is normally assigned to a Theater Sustainment Command, but directly supports all units in the divisional area.
False - Normally assigned to a Div.
96
What function of sustainment provides religious services for Soldiers?
Personnel Services
97
Which sustainment principle is defined as the ability to foresee operational requirements and initiate necessary actions that most appropriately satisfy a response without waiting for operations orders or fragmentary orders?
ANTICIPATION
98
The Army Health System consists of how many roles of care?
Four
99
A method of distributing supplies by which the receiving unit is issued supplies in its own area, with transportation furnished by the issuing agency/organization is ____ ____________.
Unit Distribution.
100
____ ____________ ________________ is the Nation's combat logistics support agency, providing nearly 100 percent of the military's consumable items, and is the Department of Defense Executive Agent for subsistence and bulk petroleum.
Defense Logistics Agency
101
The Army Health System medical capabilities (ten medical functions) are grouped under two Army warfighting functions- _________________ under protection and ______________________ under sustainment warfighting functions.
Force Health Protection (FHP)
Health Service Support (HSS)
102
The distance and duration across which a joint force can successfully employ military capabilities is ________________ __________________
Operational Reach.
103
The ______________ ______________________ ___________________ connects strategic enablers to the tactical formations.
Theater Sustainment Command (TSC)
104
Recruiting, Supplying, Mobilizing, Organizing, and Maintaining are ________ __ requirements
Title 10
105
The ability to establish, and operate ports of debarkation (air, sea, and rail), to establish a distribution system and sustainment bases, and to facilitate port throughput and sustainment support for the reception, staging, onward movement and integration of forces within a theater of operations is:
Theater Opening
106
_____ ____is a term used to indicate a delegation of authority by the Secretary of Defense to a subordinate to act on behalf of the Secretary of Defense.
Executive Agent
107
A _____ ___ is normally assigned to the theater army and is the senior army medical headquarters in an AOR.
MEDCOM (DS)
108
In multinational operations, sustainment of forces is primarily a _______ responsibility.
However, relations between the United States and its NATO allies have evolved to where sustainment is viewed as a _________ responsibility (NATO Military Committee Decision 319/1). True
national
collective
109
______________ plans support Global Campaign Plans (TCPs) by interfacing with the GCCs Theater posture plans (TPPs) to support strategic lift, infrastructure, distribution enablers, agreements, policies, processes, and information systems.
Distribution
110
Which plan provides detailed theater mobility and distribution analysis to ensure the sufficient capacity of planned enhanced capability throughout the theater?
Theater Distribution Plan
111
The __ ________ ____________ provides a means of anticipating future requirements to ensure responsiveness and adequacy of support and provide an understanding of current conditions of the operational environment (i.e., a country/AO assessment).
Theater Logistics Analysis (TLA)
112
In the development of a Theater Campaign Plan, the Joint Logistics Planning Process has four key outputs:
theater logistics analysis,
theater logistics overview,
logistics estimate,
*Concept of logistics support*
113
using the _____ _____ _______ as a frame, the JFC's logistics staff elements develop and codify an overarching approach to theater operations in the____ _____ _____ .
Theater Logistics Analysis (TLA)
Theater Logistics Overview (TLO)
114
Materiel development and acquisition are integral within the Joint Capabilities and Development System (JCIDS), the Army Force Management Model, and Doctrine, Organization, Training, Material, Leadership, Personnel, Facilities, and Policy (DOTMLPF-P) since they satisfy identified and validated capability gaps with ____ or _____ materiel acquisition solutions.
rapid or deliberate
115
What portion of the commander's area of operations is not assigned to subordinate units but is frequently tied to other events distant in time and space?
Deep area
116
describe organizational-level leaders: Organizational-level leaders often apply elements of _____________ leadership and ______________ leadership simultaneously.
direct
organizational
117
describe organizational-level leaders: Organizational-level leaders must _________ and _______ organizations while_______ the mission.)
develop
improve
accomplishing
118
Which echelon above brigade (EAB) Army headquarters has administrative control (ADCON)/Title 10 responsibilities across the area of responsibility (AOR) for a geographic combatant command (GCC)?
Theater Army
119
What was the desired strategic end state of the Schlieffen Plan?
-The defeat of Russia and France
-Destroy the French Army (swiftly) in 6 weeks
120
What is a feature of Fredrick the Great's Prussian Army?
An extraordinary commitment to discipline
121
What source of power is based on the acknowledged expertise of the leader or reverence for the leader?
Personal Power
