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X-Ray Technology > X-Ray > Flashcards

X-Ray Flashcards

1
Q 
used for large objects
 have a short exposure time
increase penumbra (blurrred margins)
A

Large filaments

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2
Q

used for small objects
have a longer exposure time
produce a sharper image
decrease penumbra

A

Small filaments

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3
Q

is negatively charged and contains a focusing cup

A

cathode

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4
Q

is positively charged, made of tungsten, and is the target plate

A

anode

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5
Q

makes 85-90% of the x-ray beam and creates the image

A

Bremsstrahlung radiation (braking radiation or soft x-rays)

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6
Q

makes 10-15% of the x-ray beam and does not contribute to the formation of the image

A

Characteristic radiation (hard x-rays)

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7
Q

complete absorption of x-ray which does not affect the image

A

photoelectric effect

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8
Q

two types of radiographic noise

A

artifact and mottle

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9
Q

three types of mottle

A

quantum, structure, and film graininess

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10
Q

variation of density of a uniformly exposed film that results from random spatial distribution of x-ray quanta absorbed in the screen

A

quantum mottle

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11
Q

factors that affect scatter radiation

A

beam size, field size, and patient size

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12
Q

4 ways to reduce scatter radiation

A

reduce beam size
increase beam energy or increase Kvp
decrease field size w/ grid or collimator
air gap technique

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13
Q

purpose of the grid

A

to prevent scatter radiation and allow useful x-rays through

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14
Q

refers to the distance between the object and the film

A

air gap technique

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15
Q

what happens when you reduce the OFD

A

reduce scatter

image magnification

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16
Q

produces 99% heat and 1% x-rays

A

anode

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17
Q

reduces amount of radiation exposure to the patient

A

port filters and collimator

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18
Q

increasing the mAs incorporates the use of which filament

A

large filament

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19
Q

what is the best grid ratio that also has the greatest effect in reducing scatter radiation

A

16:1

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20
Q

what type of crystals does the film consist of

A

silver halide crystals

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21
Q

directly proportional to the Kvp and Ma and contributes to the overall darkness of the fil

A

density

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22
Q

refers to the differences in the shades of gray of an image and is indirectly related to the Kvp

A

contrast

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23
Q

contrast recommended for soft tissue

A

low contrast (high Kvp)

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24
Q

contrast recommended for bone

A

high contrast (low Kvp)

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25
Q

increasing the OFD results in

A

image magnification

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26
Q

exposes patient to less radiation, reduces penumbra, decreases magnification, and increases detail

A

FFD 72 inches (FFD of 40 inches does opposite)

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27
Q

blurred margins

A

penumbra

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28
Q

sharp margins

A

umbra

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29
Q

50% decrease in mAs is equivalent to a 15% increase in Kvp

A

50/15 rule

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30
Q

when decreasing the kvp by 16%, you have to double the mAs or it will halve the film distance
OR
when increasing the kvp by 20% you have to decrease the mAs by half or you will double the film density

A

16:20% rule

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31
Q

the anode heel effect is stronger on the cathode or anode

A

cathode

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32
Q

the cathode should be placed closer to the fatter part of the object in the anode heel effect

A

FAT CAT

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33
Q

increases film exposure, scatter radiation, and fog and decreases contrast

A

increasing the kvp

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34
Q

increases film exposure and darkens the film

A

increasing mAs

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35
Q

radio sensitivity of tissue is directly proportional to the rate at which the tissue multiplies (the more rapid a tissue grows, the more susceptible it is to damage)

A

bergonie-tribondeau law

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36
Q

radio resistant tissues

A

brain, spinal cord, thyroid, and muscle

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37
Q

radiosensitive tissues

A

gonads, bone marrow, lymphoid tissue, colon, and lungs

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38
Q

when taking x-rays in a female, within how many days should the procedure be performed

A

within 10 days of her LMP

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39
Q

in regards to density, which factors have a direct relationship

A

Kvp, mAs, collimator

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40
Q

in regard to density, which factors have an inverse relationship

A

FFD, OFD, grid

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41
Q

in regards to contrast, which factors have a direct relationship

A

OFD and grid

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42
Q

in regards to contrast, which factors have an inverse relationship

A

Kvp, mA, collimator

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43
Q

in regards to size distortion, which factor has a direct relationship

A

OFD

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44
Q

in regards to size distortion, which has an inverse relationship

A

FFD

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45
Q

in regards to detail, which has a direct relationship

A

FFD

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46
Q

in regards to detail, which has an inverse relationship

A

OFD

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47
Q

in regards to exposure time, which factors have a direct relationship

A

kvp, mAs, OFD

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48
Q

in regards to exposure time, which factors have a inverse relationship

A

FFD and collimator

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49
Q

all radiographic views have a FFD of 40 inches except the following which are at 72 inches

A

chest films
lateral sternum films
full spine films
Non-AP cervical films (lateral, oblique, flexion, extension)

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50
Q

all views are AP projections except the following which are PA projections

A 
skull
mandible
chest
wrist
tunnel
patella
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51
Q

all oblique films are midway between a PA and a lateral position (usually at 45 degrees) except

A

thoracic spine

SI joint

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52
Q

all views are taken on suspended on expiration except the following which are performed on full inspiration

A

PA and lateral chest
AP full spine
AP and lateral thoracic

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53
Q

gonadal shielding should be used on children and adults within what range

A

2 inches

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54
Q

grids should be used on

A

all body parts measuring >12cm to reduce scatter radiation and use 70kvp to penetrate the grid

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55
Q

all tube tilts are cephalic except the following which are caudal

A

cervical anterior oblique
lateral lumbar
AP coccyx
Y-scapula

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56
Q

CT is measured in what units

A

Hounsfield

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57
Q

Caldwell view shows what

A

Frontal sinus

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58
Q

Towne view shows

A

Foramen magnum

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59
Q

Water view shows

A

Maxillary sinus

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60
Q

Lateral skull shows

A

Sella turcica

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61
Q

APOM shows

A

C1 fractures

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62
Q

AP cervical shows

A

Luschka joints

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63
Q

Cervical oblique shows

A

Intervertebral foramina

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64
Q

Apical lordotic shows

A

Pancoast tumor

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65
Q

Swimmers shows what

A

C7 spinous process

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66
Q

Frog leg shows

A

Femoral head in abduction and external rotation

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67
Q

Tunnel shows

A

Intercondylar fossa in knee

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68
Q

Sunrise shows

A

Apical view of patella and the intercondylar groove

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69
Q

Lumbar oblique shows

A

Pars interarticularis

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70
Q

Lumbar lateral shows

A

IVF

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71
Q

MRI contraindications

A

pacemaker
cochlear implant
intracranial aneurysm
implanted neurostimulators

72
Q

MRI is useful in demonstrating what

A 
spinal cord and brain pathology
disc lesions
solid organ pathology
metasteses in bone
demyelinating CNS disorders
musculotendinous disorders
73
Q

Which type pf imaging has contrast resolution that is 10x better for soft tissue pathology

A

MRI 10x better than CT

74
Q

CT and bone scan contraindications

75
Q

CT is useful in demonstrating

A 
intraspinal and intracranial masses
intracranial bleeding
spinal canal stenosis
abdominal masses
bony structures
LUNG pathology (best in CT than in MRI)
disc (spiral CT)
76
Q

which form of advanced imaging produces reconstructed axial images in any plane of the body

77
Q

has a contrast resolution that is 95 times better than conventional radiography

78
Q

uses a gamma camera to create images

A

radionuclide bone imaging (bone scan or bone scintigraphy)

79
Q

what are some common radioactive pharmaceuticals used in a bone scan

A

technetium 99 and indium 111

80
Q

what are normal areas of increased uptake on bone scans

A 
SI joint
SC joint
AC joint
kidney
tips of scapula
costochondral joints
frontal parasagittal regions of the skull
81
Q

bone scans are useful in determining what

A 
primary bone tumors except multiple myeloma
blastic metastases
osteomyelitis
occult or stress Fx
avascular necrosis of bone
pulmonary embolism
82
Q

what form of imaging is helpful in the investigation of suspected vascular diseases

A

diagnostic ultrasound

83
Q

what form of imaging is excellent in determining the size of tumors or abdominal aneurysms

A

diagnostic ultrasound

84
Q

what imaging form uses high frequency sound waves

A

diagnostic ultrasound

85
Q

diagnostic ultrasound uses

A 
abdominal aortic aneursym
carotid artery disease
vertebral artery disease
pregnancy 
ovarian disease
cholelithiasis
86
Q

What form of imaging is used to measure brain activity and changes in blood oxygenation

87
Q

Which form of imaging measures regional cerebral blood flow using radioactive labeled tracer glucose molecules

88
Q

tumors preferentially use the glycolytic pathway for energy therefore, there is a greater concentration of of radioactive glucose in malignant tissues

A

Warburg Effect (PET SCAN)

89
Q

what form of imaging uses an injection of radionuclide into the bloodstream

90
Q

mammograms use a ___ Kvp and a ___ mA

A

lower; higher

91
Q

is used for blood flow in arteries or veins with ultrasound

92
Q

is used to visualize the esophagus

A

barium swallow

93
Q

is used to visualize filling defects in the stomach or hiatal hernias

A

barium meal

94
Q

is used to visualize filling defects in the small intestines

A

barium follow through

95
Q

is used to visualize filling defects in the large intestine

A

barium enema

96
Q

is used to visualize narrowing or clots in arterial blood vessels by injecting a radio contrast agent into an artery

97
Q

uses a magnetic field and pulses of radio wave energy to visualize arteries int he body

98
Q

What does ALARA stand for

A

As low as reasonably achievable

99
Q

what is the screen made from

A

phosphorus crystals

100
Q

X-RAY guidelines

A 
pain or limitation of motion
spinal trauma
malignancy
congenital anomalies
previously detected spinal abnormality
scoliosis and kyphosis
shoulder or arm pain from suspected cervical radiculopathy
occipital headache
pain radiating around the chest wall
pain radiating into hip, buttock, hip or groin
compression Fx
101
Q

radiographs needed if any of the following are present after trauma
high risk factors such as older than 65, work with dangerous mechanisms paresthesia in the extremities
presence of midline cervical spine tenderness or delayed onset neck pain
unable to actively rotate the neck beyond 45 degrees

A

Canadian C spine rules

102
Q 
no radiographs are needed if all of the following are present in a patient with a history of injury to the neck 
no posterior cervical spine tenderness 
no evidence of intoxication
normal level of alertness
no focal neurological damage
no painful distracting injury
A

NEXUS (national emergency x-ray utilization study)

103
Q

ottawa knee rules

A

X-rays recommended if there is a history of trauma to the knee and if any of the following are present
age 55 or over
isolated tenderness of the patella (no bone tenderness of the knee other than the patella)
tenderness at the head of the fibula
inability to flex to 90 degrees
inability to take more than 4 consecutive weight bearing steps both immediately and in the office

104
Q

ottawa ankle rules

A

X-rays are recommended if there is a history of trauma to the ankle and any of the following:
age over 55
unable to take more than 4 successive weight bearing steps shortly after the injury and in the office
localized tenderness along posterior aspect or crest of either malleolus
localized tenderness over any of the following:
talus
navicular
cuboid
5th metatarsal

105
Q

champagne glass pelvis, splayed cupped metaphysics, small skull base

A

achondroplasia

106
Q

large sella turcica, arrowhead phalanges, heel pad >23mm

A

acromegaly

107
Q

soap bubble appearance, metaphysical lytic lesion, filled with blood, balloting of the cortex

A

Aneurysmal bone cyst

108
Q

shiny corners, romans lesions, dagger sign, bamboo spine

109
Q

wedged shape dense *medial upper end of tibia, overweight and black kids

110
Q

AVN of the *head of the femur, patchy sclerosis and lucency, crescent sign

111
Q

totally disorganized joint with destruction, debris, and distension

A

Charcot’s joint

112
Q

stones in the upper right quadrant and +Murphys sign

A

cholelithiasis

113
Q

dense sclerotic well circumscribed lesion rarely >2 cm in the skull or spine

114
Q

lucent lesion <2cm surrounded by a rim of dense bone, long bone or spine

A

osteoid osteoma

115
Q

metaphysical Fxs at different healing stages and pencil thin cortices

A

osteogenesis imperfecta

116
Q

broad based bone outgrowth cauliflower or coat hanger look

A

osteochondroma

117
Q

AVN, *medial femoral epicondyle, ankle, hip, and elbow, arc like cleft, fragment

A

ostechondritis dessicans

118
Q

eccentric, lytic lesion located in the diaphysis or metaphysis or neural arch

A

osteoblastoma

119
Q

subluxation of the proximal radio-ulnar joint

A

nursemaids elbow

120
Q

triangular sclerosis of the lower ilium near the SI joint, bilateral, and symmetrical

A

osteitis condensans ilii

121
Q

solitary oval radiolucent defect, thin cortex, bunch of grapes appearance

A

non-ossifying fibroma

122
Q

dystrophic calcification in muscle (brachial, quadriceps, thigh adductors)

A

myositis ossificans

123
Q

ivory vertebra, punched out lytic lesions, bilateral hilar lymphadenopathy

A

lymphoma in bone

124
Q

small femoral head, mushroom deformity, epiphyseal sclerosis, fragmentation *head of femur in a child

A

legg calves perthes disease

125
Q

thick tranverse radio dense metaphysis bands

A

lead posioning

126
Q

AVN, partial fragmentation, sclerosis, and collapse of the *navicular bone

127
Q

blocked vertebrae, occipitilization of C1, platybasia, wasp-waist sign

A

Klippel feil syndrome

128
Q

AVN, dense sclerotic *lunate bone with partial fragmentation and collapse

129
Q

salt and pepper skull, acro-osteolysis, bone cysts, rugger jersey spine

A

hyperparathyroidism

130
Q

articular irregularity, wide intercondylar femoral groove, soft tissue swelling

A

hemophilia

131
Q

beak like spurs on radial sides of metacarpal heads, joint space narrowing

A

hemochomatosis

132
Q

osteolytic lesion, corduroy cloth, striated vertebrae, picture frame like

A

hemangioma

133
Q

periarticular calcification around the shoulder joint, may affect hip and spine

134
Q

soft tissue swelling, periarticular bone erosion, overhanging margin sign

135
Q

eccentric metaphysical lesion crosses epiphyseal line, soap bubble appearance

A

giant cell tumor

136
Q

AVN, sclerosis, fragmentation and deformation of the *2nd metatarsal head

137
Q

lytic metaphysical lesion extending into diaphysis, soft tissue involved

A

fibrosarcoma

138
Q

circumscribed lytic lesion, ground glass appearance, soap bubble, shepherds crook

A

fibrous dysplasia

139
Q

diaphysial permeative, onion skin appearance with cortical saucerization

A

Ewings sarcoma

140
Q

geographic lesion medullary region, destructive moth eaten pattern

A

eosinophilic granuloma

141
Q

numerous intramedullary lesions in long bones, phlebolith calcifications

A

enchondromatosis

142
Q

geographic central expansile lesion with stippled calcification, hand or feet

A

enchondroma

143
Q

ADI >5mm in a child, hypo plastic atlas, genesis of the dens

A

down’s syndrome

144
Q

generalized osteoporosis, compression fractures, cod fish vertebrae

A

Cushing’s syndrome

145
Q

small femoral epiphysis, lateral femoral displacement, shallow acetabulum

A

congenital hip dysplasia

146
Q

absent clavicles, numerous wormian bones, pear shape skull

A

cleidocranial dystosis

147
Q

intramedullary lytic soap bubble lesion, speckled calcification in the tibia

A

chondrosarcoma

148
Q

round or elongated lesion eccentrically located, thins the cortex

A

chondromyxoid fibroma

149
Q

oval epiphyseal lytic lesion in lower or upper tibia, fluffy cotton wool

A

chondroblastoma

150
Q

eccentric lucent lesion in metaphysis with cortical depression

151
Q

linear intra articular calcification in the knee, elbow, shoulder, or wrist

A

CPPD (pseudo gout)

152
Q

slipping sideways injury through growth plate

A

Grade 1 (Slipping)

153
Q

Fx of the edge of the metaphysis and growth plate

A

Grade 2 (Metaphysis)

154
Q

fracture through the growth plate and articular surface

A

Grade 3 (articular)

155
Q

fracture through the metaphysis and epiphysis into the articular surface

A

Grade 4 (complete)

156
Q

compression of growth plate

A

Grade 5 (Krush)

157
Q

pseudo fractures in long bones, decreased bone density, coarsened trabeculae

A

osteomalacia

158
Q

soft tissue swelling, periosteal elevation, brodies abscess, involocrum

A

osteomyelitis

159
Q

plastic metaphysical permeative lesion, conman triangle, sunburst appearance

A

osteosarcoma

160
Q

cotton wool skull, mixed plastic/lytic lesion pelvic brim and candle flame sign

161
Q

ossification of medial knee collateral ligament, traumatic

A

pelligrini stieda disease

162
Q

AVN, sclerosis and fragmentation of the proximal pole of the *scaphoid

163
Q

cup and pencil deformity of DIP joints, mouse ears, sausage digits

A

psoriatic arthritis

164
Q

soft tissue swelling, intra-articular erosions, ulnar deviation of MCP joint

165
Q

widened growth plate, metaphysical cupping, paint brush appearance in a child

166
Q

anterior wedging, schmorls nodes, decreased disc height in 3+ vertebrae

A

Scheurmanns disease

167
Q

ice cream sliding off the cone sign, disrupted kleins line and shentons lines

168
Q

soft tissue retraction, calcinosis cutis and aero-osteolysis

A

scleroderma

169
Q

Frankl’s line, Pelkens spur, and wimbergers ring

170
Q

AVN, fragmented irregular sclerosis of the *calcaneal apophysis

171
Q

hair on end skull, undertubulation of long bones, cod fish vertebrae

A

sickle cell disease

172
Q

slippage of one vertebra on the other, most common at L5/S1, pars Fx

A

spondylolisthesis

173
Q

expansile geographic defect in proximal humerus or femur, fallen fragment sign

A

simple bone cyst

174
Q

small elevated scapula, omovertebral bone (30%), and lipped feel syndrome

A

sprengels deformity

175
Q

soft tissue swelling, periarticular osteoporosis, reducible ulnar deviation

176
Q

apical cavitation; unilateral or bilateral hilar lymphadenopathy, tracheal shift

177
Q

causes of AVN (STARS)

A 
Sickle cell disease
Trauma
Alcoholism
Radiation
Steroids

X-Ray Technology (1 decks)

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