Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Dispatcher > WX > Flashcards

WX Flashcards

1
Q

9147

(refer to Figure 144.) What effect will a microburst encounter have upon the aircraft in positions3?

A

Strong downdraft.

AIM 7-1-25

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

9214

Which weather condition is an example of a nonfrontal instability band?

A

Squall line.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

8723
A flight is scheduled at daybreak. The current conditions are rainy, but conditions are expected to clear. The forecast temperature is 10 degrees C, dew point 10 degrees C, with winds 330 degrees at 5 knots. What weather conditions can you expect?

A

The conditions are favorable for radiation fog.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

9182

What is the result when water vapor changes to the liquid state while being lifted in a thunderstrom?

A

Latent heat is released to the atmosphere.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

9215

Which atmospheric factor causes rapid movement of surface fronts?

A

Upper winds blowing across the front.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

9736
During an IFR cross-country flight you picked up rime icing which you estimate is 1/2” thick on the leading edge of the wings. You are now below the clouds at 2000 feet AGL and are approaching your destination airport under VFR. Visibility under the clouds is more than 10 miles, winds at destination airport are 8 knots right down the runway, and the surface temperature is 3 degree Celsius. You decide to

A

use a faster than normal approach and landing speed.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

9704
Data that may be added (manual weather augmentation) to the Automated Weather Observing System (AWOS) report is limited to

A

thunderstorms (intensity and direction), precipitation (type and intensity), and obstructions to visibility (dependent on the visibility being 3 miles or less).

AIM 7-1-11

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

9448

Anti-icing fluid should provide freezing point protection to

A

a freezing point no greater than 20F below the ambient or airplane surface temperature.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

9939

(Refer to Figure 149A Area 10.)What is the forecast wind direction, speed, and temperature over ELY at 30,000 feet?

A

220 degrees, 35 knots, -33 degree C.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

9810

Large areas of land

A

tend to increase temperature variations.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

9747.3

Airborne weather radar is installed to help the crew

A

avoid server weather.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

9441

Which is a disadvantage of the one-step over the two-step process when deicing/anti-icing an airplane?

A

More fluid is used with the one-step method when large deposits of ice and snow must be flushed off airplane surfaces.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

9227

Where is the normal location of the jetstream relative to surface lows and fronts?

A

The jetstream is located north of the surface systems.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

9452

Snow on top of deicing or anti-icing fluids

A

must be considered as adhering to the aircraft.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

9185

What weather condition occurs at the altitude where the dewpoint lapse rate and the dry adiabatic lapse rate converge?

A

Cloud bases form.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

9238

Where do the maximum winds associated with the jetstream usually occur?

A

In the vicinity of breaks in the tropopause on the polar side of the jet core.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

9166

What is an important characteristic of wind shear?

A

It may be associated with either a wind shift or a windspeed gradient at any level in the atmosphere.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

9444

Which of the following will decrease the holding time during anti-icing using a two-step process?

A

Apply heated Type 2 fluid.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

9262
What type turbulence should be reported when it causes slight, rapid, and somewhat rhythmic bumpiness without appreciable changes in attitude or altitude, less than one-third of the time?

A

Occasional light chop.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

9293

(Refer to Figure 149.) What is the forecast temperature at ATL for the 3,000-foot level?

A

Not reported.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

9285
When you hear a SIGMET on an ATC frequency forecasting sever icing conditions on the route to your destination, you plan for

A

the possibility of freezing rain and freezing drizzle that can accumulate on and beyond the limits of any deicing/anti-icing equipment.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

9176

At which location does Coriolis force have the least effect on wind direction?

A

At the Equator.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

9151

What is a characteristic of the troposphere?

A

There is an overall decrease of temperature with an increase of altitude.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

9169

What condition produces the most frequent type of ground- or surface-based temperature inversion?

A

Terrestrial radiation on a clear, relatively calm night.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

9240

What weather feature occurs at altitude levels near the tropopause?

A

Maximum winds and narrow wind shear zones.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

9143

Maximum downdrafts in a microburst encounter may be as strong as

A

6,000 ft/min.

AIM7-1-25

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

9194

Which condition produces weather on the lee side of a large lake?

A

Warm air flowing over a colder lake may produce fog.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

9453

Freezing point Depressant (FPD) fluids are highly soluble in water; however,

A

ice is slow to absorb it, and to melt when in contact with it.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

9217

What weather difference is found on each side of a ‘dry line’?

A

Dowpoint difference.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

9219

What action is recommended when encountering turbulence due to a wind shift associated with a sharp pressure trough?

A

Establish a straight course across the strom area.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

9198

What feature is normally associated with the cumulus stage of a thunderstorm?

A

Continuous updraft.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

9270

(Refer to Figure 145.) What condition is reported at Dallas (KDAL)?

A

Altimeter setting is 30.07.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

9207

Which conditions are necessary for the formation of upslope fog?

A

Moist, stable air being moved over gradually rising ground by a wind.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

9196

Which weather phenomenon signals the beginning of the mature stage of a thunderstorm?

A

The start of rain at the surface.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

9447

What is the minimum glycol content of Type 2 deicing/anti-icing fluid?

A

50 percent.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

9448

Anti-icing fluid should provide freezing point protection to

A

a freezing point no greater than 20F below the ambient temerature.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

9237

What is a likely location of clear air turbulances?

A

In an upper trough on the polar side of a jetstream.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

9186

Which process causes adiabatic cooling?

A

Expansion of air as it rises.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

9157

At lower levels of the atmosphere, friction causes the wind to flow across isobars into a low because the friction

A

decreases windspeed and Coriolis force.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

9146
(Refer to Figure 144.) When penetrating a microburst, which aircraft will experience an increase in performance without a change in pitch or power?

A

1

AIM 7-1-25

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

9747.2

Maximum turbulence potential chart (GTG-2) are issued

A

hourly.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

9287
(Refer to Figure 149.) What approximate wind direction, speed, and temperature (relative to ISA) are expected for a flight over OKC at FL 370?

A

260 true; 27 knots; ISA +6C.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

9221

What condition is necessary for the formation of structural icing in flight?

A

Visible water.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

9167
What information from the control tower is indicated by the following transmission? ‘SOUTH BOUNDARY WIND ONE SIX ZERO AT TWO FIVE, WEST BOUNDARY WIND TWO FOUR ZERO AT THREE FIVE.’

A

There is a possibility of wind shear over or near the airport.

AIM4-3-7

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

9230

Which action is recommended if jetstream turbulence is encountered with a direct headwind or tailwind?

A

Change altitude or course to avoid a possible elongated turbulent area.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

9257

If a SIGMET alert is announced, how can information contained in the SIGMET be obtained?

A

By contacting the nearest flight service.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

9193

What minimum thickness of cloud layer is indicated if precipitation is reported as light or greater intensity?

A

4,000 feet thick.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

9212

When flying over the top of a severe thunderstorm, the cloud should be overflown by at least

A

1,000 feet for each 10 knots windspeed.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

9183

What is a feature of supercooled water?

A

The unstable water drop freezes upon striking an exposed object.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

9189

Convective clouds which penetrate a stratus layer can produce which threat to instrument flight?

A

Embedded thunderstorms

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

9165.1

Low pressure areas are areas of

A

ascending air.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

9188

Which condition is present when a local parcel of air is stable?

A

The parcel of air resists convection.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

9779

The tropopause is generally found when the free air temperatures are

A

between -55degC and -65degC.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

9709

A calm wind that is forecast, in the International Terminal Aerodrome Forecast (TAF), is encoded as

A

00000KT

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

9139

Which is a definition of ‘sever wind shear’?

A

Any rapid change in wind direction or velocity which causes airspeed changes greater than 15 knots or vertical speed changes greater than 500 ft/min.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

9283
Vertical wind shear can be determined directly from the dashed lines on the tropopause date chart. The vertical wind shear that is critical for probability of turbulence is

A

6 knots or more per 1,000 feet.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

9228.1

Steep frontal surfaces are usually associated with

A

fast moving cold front.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

9209

Which feature is associated with the tropopause?

A

Abrupt change of temperature lapse rate.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

9268

(Refer to Figure 146.) What method was used to obtain the METAR at Tyler (KTYR) at 1753z?

A

Automated Surface Observing System (ASOS), having a precipitation discriminator.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

8265

What action is required prior to takeoff if snow is adhering to the wings of an air carrier airplane?

A

Assure that the snow is removed from the airplane.

CFR121.629

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

9184

What is indicated about an air mass if the temperature remains unchanged or decreases slightly as altitude is increased?

A

The air is stable.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

9824

In this METAR excerpt, “SLP993 SNINCR 1/10” means

A

there is 10” of snow on the ground with a 1” increase in the last hour.
the depth increase in the past hour and the total depth on the ground are separated from each other by a /.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

9247

What sources reflect the most accurate information on current and forecast icing conditions?

A

AIRMET Zulu.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

9269

(Refer to Figure 145.) What condition is reported at Childress (KCDS)?

A

Light rain showers.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

9137

Which wind-shear condition results in a loss of airspeed?

A

Decreasing headwind and increasing tailwind.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q 
9717
The symbol ($) at the end of the following METAR indicates that METAR KFSM 131756Z AUTO 00000KT M1/4SM R25/0600V1000FT -RA FG VV004 06/05 A2989 RMK AO2 $
A

maintenance is needed on the system.

AIM7-1-11

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

9216

In which meteorological condiitons can frontal waves and low pressure areas form?

A

Slow-moving cold fronts or stationary fronts.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

9207.2
You are approaching an airport to land in 20 minutes. The METAR reports temperature 10 degrees C, dew point 10 degree C, winds 310/04, scattered clouds and rain. You expect

A

radiation fog.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

9442

The purpose of diluting ethylene glycol deicing fluid with water in non-precipitation conditions is to

A

decrease the freeze point.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

9440.1

Frozen dew is

A

hard and transparent.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

9255
A station is forecasting wind and temperature aloft to be 280 at 205 knots; temperature -51C at FL390. How would this data be encoded in the FD?

A

789951

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

9160

Where is the usual location of a thermal low?

A

Over the surface of a dry, sunny region.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

9835

A steady state tunderstorm is associated with

A

weather systems

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

9246

Which are the only cloud types forecast in the Terminal Aerodrome Forecast?

A

Cumulonimbus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

9445

What should the deice/anti-ice fluid temperature be during the last step of a two-phase process?

A

Cold.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

9232

Clear air turbulence (CAT) associated with a mountain wave may extend as far as

A

5,000 feet above the tropopause.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

9218

Under what conditions would clear air turbulence (CAT) most likely be encountered?

A

When constant pressure charts show 20-knot isotachs less than 150 NM apart.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

9747

Volcanic Ash Advisory charts are updated every

A

6 hours

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

9700

What is the effect of Freezing Point Depressant (FPD) fluid residue on engine fan or compressor blades?

A

It can reduce engine performance and cause surging and/or compressor stalls.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

9925

Cumulus clouds often indicate

A

possible turbulence.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

9302

Even a small amount of frost, ice, or snow may

A

hinder lift production to a point where takeoff will be impossible

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

9171

What is the approximate rate unsaturated air will cool flowing upslope?

A

3C per 1,000 feet.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

9708

A squall is a sudden increase of at least 15 knots in average wind speed to a sustained speed of

A

20 knots or more for at least 1 minute.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

9706

A severe thunderstorm is one is which the surface wind is

A

58 MPH or greater and/or surface hail is 3/4 inch or more in diameter.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

9440

Which is an effect of ice, snow, or frost formation on an airplane?

A

Decreased angle of attach for stalls.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

9716
The prevailing visibility in the following METAR is METAR KFSM 131756Z AUTO 00000KT M1/4SM R25/0600V1000FT -RA FG VV004 06/05 A2989 RMK AO2 $

A

less than 1/4 statute mile.

AIM 7-1-11

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

9252
How will an area of thunderstorm activity, that may grow to severe intensity, be indicated on the Severe Weather Outlook Chart?

A

APCHG within any area.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

9250

Which type of weather can only be directly observed during flight and then reported in a PIREP?

A

Turbulence and structural icing.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

9288
(Refer to Figure 149.) What approximate wind direction, speed, and temperature (relative to ISA) are expected for a flight over TUS at FL270?

A

010 true; 5 knots; ISA +13C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

9200

Where do squall lines most often develop?

A

Ahead of a cold front.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

9226

What is the lowest cloud in the stationary group associated with a mountain wave?

A

Rotor cloud.

92
Q

9718
The VV001 in the following METAR indicates METAR KFSM 131756Z AUTO 00000KT M1/4SM R25/0600V1000FT -RA FG VV001 A2989 RMK AO2 VIS3/4 RWY19 CHINO RWY19 $

A

a 100 foot indefinite ceiling.

AIM7-1-11

93
Q

9698
The practice developed and accepted by the North American air carrier industry using traditional North American fluid is to ensure that the freeze point of the remaining film is below ambient temperature by at least

A

20F.

94
Q

9134

Which condition would INITIALLY cause the indicated airspeed and pitch to increase and the sink rate to decrease?

A

Sudden increase in a headwind component.

95
Q

9207.1

Precipitation induced fog

A

results from relatively warm rain or drizzle falling through cooler air.

96
Q

9267

(Refer to Figure 145.) What type of report is listed for Lubock (KLBB) at 1818z?

A

An Aviation selected special weather report.

97
Q

9814

Maximum downdrafts in a microburst encounter are strong and may include horizontal winds near the surface as strong as

A

45 knots.

AIM7-1-25

98
Q

9159

What is a feature of air movement in a high pressure area?

A

Descending to the surface and then outward.

99
Q

9450

Freezing Point Depressant (FDP) fluids used for deicing

A

are intended to provide ice protection on the ground only

100
Q

9274
METAR KMAF 131756Z 02020KT 12SM BKN025 OVC250 27/18 A3009 RMK RAE44. Which weather condition is indicated by this METAR report at Midland (KMAF)?

A

Rain of unknown intensity ended 16 minutes before the hour.

101
Q

9135

Which INITIAL cockpit indications should a pilot be aware of when a constant tailwind shears to a calm wind?

A

Altitude, pitch, and indication airspeed increase.

102
Q

9140
Doppler wind measurements indicate that the windspeed change a pilot may expect when flying through the peak intensity of a microburst is approximately

A

45 knots.

AIM7-1-25

103
Q

9190

Which type clouds are indicative of very strong turbulence?

A

Standing lenticular.

104
Q

8258
The pilot in command of an airplane en route determines that icing conditions can be expected that might adversely affect safety of the flight. Which action is appropriate?

A

The pilot in command shall not continue flight into the icing conditions.

CFR121.629

105
Q

9178

Which weather condition is defined as an anti-cyclone?

A

High pressure area.

106
Q

9224
Which type of icing is associated with the smallest size of water droplet similar to that found in low-level stratus clouds?

A

Rime ice.

107
Q

9178.1

A cyclone is

A

a hurricane force storm in the Indian Ocean.

108
Q

9251

Forecast winds and temperatures aloft for an international flight may be obtained by consulting?

A

Wind and temperature Aloft Chart prepared by the U.S. National Centers of Environmental Prediction (NCEP)

109
Q

9295

What wind direction and speed aloft are forecast by this WINDS AND TEMPERATURE ALOFT FORECAST (FD) for FL390- ‘750649’?

A

250 at 106 knots.

110
Q

9233

Summer thunderstorms in the arctic region will generally move

A

northeast to southwest in polar easterlies.

111
Q

9923

The stability of an air mass can usually be determined by

A

cloud types and the type of precipitation.

112
Q

9241

Where are jetstreams normally located?

A

In a break in the tropopause where intensified temperature gradients are located.

113
Q

9191

What is a feature of a stationary front?

A

Surface winds tend to flow parallel to the frontal zone.

114
Q

9244

Which primary source contains information regarding the expected weather at the destination airport, at the ETA?

A

Terminal Aerodrome Forecast.

115
Q

9203

Why are downdrafts in a mature thunderstorm hazardous?

A

Downdrafts are kept cool by cold rain which tends to accelerate the downward velocity.

116
Q

9229

Which type clouds may be associated with the jetstream?

A

Cirrus clouds on the equatorial side of the jetstream.

117
Q

9292

(Refer to Figure 149.) What will be the wind and temperature trend for a DSM LIT SHV flight at 12,000 feet?

A

Windspeed decrease.

118
Q

9273

(Refer to Figure 145.) What weather improvement was reported at Lubbock (KLBB) between 1750 and 1818 UTC?

A

The vertical visibility improved by 2,000feet.

119
Q

9211

A clear area in a line of thunderstorm echoes on a radar scope indicates

A

an area where precipitation drops are not detected.

120
Q

9165

What term describes an elongate area of low pressure?

A

Trough.

121
Q

9291

(Refer to Figure 149.) What will be the wind and temperature trend for a DEN ICT OKC flight at 11,000 feet?

A

Windspeed increase slightly.

122
Q

9235

Turbulence encountered above 15,000 feet AGL, not associate with cloud formations, should be reported as

A

clear air turbulence.

123
Q

9264
What type turbulence should be reported when it momentarily causes slight, erratic changes in altitude and/or attitude, one-third to two-thirds of the time?

A

Intermittent light turbulence.

124
Q

9272
SPECI KGLS 131802z 10012G21KT 060V140 2SM +SHRA SCT005 BKN035 OVC050CB 24/23 A2980 RMK RAB57 WS TKO RW09L WSHFT 58 FROPA. This SPECI report at Galveston (KGLS) indicates which condition?

A

Precipitation started at 1757.

125
Q

9231

Which action is recommended regarding an altitude change to get out of jetstream turbulence?

A

Descend if ambient temperature is falling.

126
Q

9289

(Refer to Figure 149.) What will be the wind and temperature trend for an SAT ELP TUS flight at 16,000 feet?

A

Wind direction shift from southwest to east.

127
Q

9305

What information is provided by a Convective Outook(AC)?

A

It provides prospects of both general and severe thunderstorm activity during the following 24 hours.

128
Q

9286

which type weather conditions are covered in the Convective SIGMET?

A

Embedded thunderstorms, lines of thunderstorms, and thunderstorms, and thunderstorms with 3/4-inch hail or tornadoes.

129
Q

9145
(Refer to Figure 144.) If involved in a microburst encounter, in which aircraft positions will the most severe downdraft occur?

A

3 and 4

AIM7-1-25

130
Q

9205

Which type storms are most likely to produce funnel clouds or tornadoes?

A

Cold front or squall line thunderstorms.

131
Q

9242
METAR KFSO 030856Z VRB02KT 7SM MIFG SKC 15/14 A3012 RMK SLP993 6///// T01500139 56012
In the above METAR, the SLP993 6//// indicates

A

sea-level pressure 999.3 hectopascals and an indeterminable amount of precipitation has occurred over the last 3 hours.

132
Q

9284
(Refer to Figure 148.) Which system in the Convective SIGMET listing has the potential of producing the most severe storm?

A

The isolated storm 50 miles northeast of Memphis (MEM).

133
Q

9208

How are haze layers cleared or dispersed?

A

By wind or the movement of air.

134
Q

9168

Where is a common location for an inversion?

A

In the stratosphere.

135
Q

9701

The horizontal wind shear, critical for turbulence (moderate or greater) per 150 miles is

A

greater than 18 knots.

136
Q

9281

Constant pressure Analysis Charts contain contours, isotherms and some contain isotechs. The contours depict

A

ridges, lows, troughs and high aloft.

137
Q

9158

Which type wind flows downslope becoming warmer and dryer?

A

Katabatic wind.

138
Q

9271
(Refer to Figure 145.)
The peak wind at KAMA was reported to be from 320 true at 39 knots

A

which occurred at 1743z.

139
Q

9181

When will frost most likely form on aircraft surfaces?

A

On clear nights with stable air and light winds.

140
Q

9275
METAR KSPS 131757Z 09014KT 6SM -RM SCT025 OVC090 24/22 A3005.
SPECI KSPS 131820Z 01025KT 3SM +RA FC OVC015 22/21 A3000. Which change took place at Wichita Falls (KSPS) between 1757 and 1820 UTC?

A

A funnel cloud was observed.

141
Q

9710
In the International Terminal Aerodrome Forecast (TAF), a variable wind direction is noted by ‘VRB’ where the three digit direction usually appears. A calm wind appears in the TAF as

A

00000KT.

142
Q

9707
On the constant pressure analysis chart, satellite and aircraft observations are used in the analysis, over areas of sparse data. A satellite observation plotted using

A

a star at the cloud top location.

143
Q

9177

How does Coriolis force affect wind direction in the Southern Hemisphere?

A

Causes clockwise rotation around a low.

144
Q

9775

Which of the following weather conditions are conductive to in-flight icing?

A

Visible rain with temperatures below 0 degrees C.

145
Q

9192

Which event usually occurs after an aircraft passes through a front into the colder air?

A

Atmospheric pressure increases.

146
Q

9130

What is the expected duration of an individual microburst?

A

Seldom longer than 15 minutes from the time the burst strikes the ground until dissipation.

AIM 7-1-25

147
Q

9708.1

Shear turbulence from a thunderstorm has been encountered

A

20 miles from the severe thunderstorm.

148
Q

9294
(Refer to Figure 149.) What approximate wind direction, speed, and temperature (relative to ISA) are expected for a flight over MKC at FL 260?

A

260 true; 43 knots; ISA +10C.

149
Q

9144
An aircraft that encounters a headwind of 45 knots, within a microburst, may expect a total shear across the microburst of

A

90 knots.

AIM7-1-25

150
Q

9185.1

Adiabatic warming is also described as

A

compressional heating.

151
Q

9210

Which type cloud is associated with violent turbulence and a tendency toward the production of funnel clouds?

A

Cumulonimbus mammatus.

152
Q

9926

(Refer to Figure 144.) On final approach to the airport, airplane in position 5 would experience

A

poor performance.

AIM7-1-25

153
Q

9922
What is indicated by the following report?
TYR UUA/OV TYR180015/TM 1757/FL310/TP B737/TB MOD-SEV CAT 350-390

A

An urgent pilot report for moderate to severe clear air turbulence.

154
Q

9197

During the life cycle of a thunderstorm, which stage is characterized predominately by downdrafts?

A

Dissipating.

155
Q

9149

(Refer to Figure 144.) How will the aircraft in position 4 be affected by a microburst encounter?

A

Performance decreasing with a tailwind and downdraft.

AIM7-1-25

156
Q

9138

Which wind-shear condition results in an increase in airspeed?

A

Decreasing tailwind and increasing headwind.

157
Q

8735
What hazard should you expect for a morning departure from KPDX, based on this METAR? KPDX 271154Z 0000KT 9SM CLR -10/-10 A2979.

A

Frost on the aircraft.

158
Q

9161

Freezing rain encountered during climb is normally evidence that

A

a layer of warmer air exists above.

159
Q

9202

Atmospheric pressure changes due to a thunderstorm will be at the lowest value

A

when the thunderstorm is approaching.

160
Q

9179

Which conditions result in the formation of frost?

A

Temperature of the collecting surface is below the dewpoint and the dewpoint is also below freezing.

161
Q

9443

Which procedure increases holding time when deicing/anti-icing an airplane using a two-step process?

A

Heated Type fluid followed by cold Type 2 fluid.

162
Q

9449

Clear ice generally forms in outside temperature ranges of

A

0 to -10 deg C.

163
Q

9747.1
All ATC facilities using radar weather processors with the ability to determine precipitation intensities will describe the intensity as

A

light, moderate, heavy, extreme

164
Q

9152

What is the primary cause of all changes in the Earth’s weather?

A

Variations of solar energy at the Earth’s surface.

165
Q

9131

Maximum downdrafts in a microburst encounter may be as strong as

A

6,000 ft/min.

166
Q

9175

Isobars on a surface weather chart represent lines of equal pressure

A

reduced to sea level.

167
Q

9711
On the constant pressure analysis chart, aircraft and satellite observations are used in the analysis over areas of spares data. An aircraft observation is plotted using

A

a square at the aircraft location.

168
Q

9774

The most likely condition in which to experience severe inflight icing with the ambient temperature below 0 degree C is

A

rain

169
Q

9148

(Refer to Figure 144.) What effect will a microburst encounter have upon the aircraft in position 4?

A

Strong tailwind.

AIM 7-1-25

170
Q

9748

When flying in the rain and an air temperature of 1 degree C, a pilot should

A

be aware of the possibility of airframe icing.

171
Q

9249

If squalls are reported at the destination airport, what wind conditions exist?

A

A sudden increase in wind speed of at least 16 knots, the speed rising to 22 knots or more for 1 minute or longer.

172
Q

9451
Test data indicate that ice, snow, or frost having a thickness and roughness similar to medium or coarse sandpaper on the leading edge and upper surface of a wing can

A

reduce lift by as much as 30 percent and increase drag by 40 percent.

173
Q

9238.1

The rate of decrease in wind speed from the jet stream core is considerable greater on the

A

polar side.

174
Q

9239

Which type jetstream can be expected to cause the greater turbulence?

A

A curving jetstream associated with a deep low pressure trough.

175
Q

9228.2

If a sample of air is forced upward and it is colder than the surrounding air, it

A

sinks until it reaches denser air.

176
Q

9446

What is the minimum glycol content of Type 1 deicing/anti-icing fluid?

A

80 percent.

177
Q

9245
Weather conditions expected to occur in the vicinity of the airport, but not at the airport, are denoted by the letters ‘V(C).’ When V(C) appears in a Terminal Aerodrome Forecast, it covers a geographical area of

A

a 5 to 10 statute mile radius from the airport.

178
Q

9150

What is the expected duration of an individual microburst?

A

Seldom longer than 15 minutes from the time the burst strikes the ground until dissipation.

AIM 7-1-25

179
Q

9276

(Refer to Figure 146.) What was the ceiling at Walnut Ridge (KARG)?

A

1,000 feet AGL.

180
Q

9162

What temperature condition is indicated if precipitation in the form of wet snow occurs during flight?

A

The temperature is above freezing at flight altitude.

181
Q

9195

How can the stability of the atmosphere be determined?

A

Ambient temperature lapse rate

182
Q

9223

Which type precipitation is an indication that supercooled water is present?

A

Freezing rain.

183
Q

9248

What weather is predicted by the term VCTS in a Terminal Aerodrome Forecast?

A

Thunderstorms are expected in the vicinity.

184
Q

9206
You are planning a flight to a coastal area which is currently below published weather minimums for the ILS approach due to fog. The winds are forecast to increase to 20 knots from the west at your schedueled arrival time. What weather should you expect?

A

A low layer of stratus or stratocumulus clouds.

185
Q

9135.1

Which initial cockpit indications should a pilot be aware of when a constant headwind shears to a calm wind?

A

Altitude, pitch, and indicated airspeed decrease.

186
Q

9263
What type turbulence should be reported when it causes changes in altitude and/or attitude more than two-thirds of the time, with the aircraft remaining in positive control at all times?

A

Continuous moderate turbulence.

187
Q

9180

What condition is indicated when ice pellets are encountered during flight?

A

Freezing rain at higher levels.

188
Q

9266

(Refer to Figure 145.) What was the local Central Standard Time of the Aviation Routine Weather Report at Austin (KAUS)?

A

11:53 a.m.

189
Q

9132
An aircraft that encounters a headwind of 40 knots, within a microburst, may expect a total shear across the microburst of

A

80 knots.

AIM7-1-25

190
Q

9776
A jet stream is a narrow, shallow, meandering river of maximum winds extending around the globe in a wavelike patter with speeds of

A

50 knots or greater.

191
Q

9154

What feature is associated with a temperature inversion?

A

A stable layer of air.

192
Q

9141
Which airplane performance characteristics should be recognized during takeoff when encountering a tailwind shear that increases in intensity?

A

Loss of, or diminished, airspeed performance.

193
Q

9924

Clouds with extensive vertical development over mountainous terrain are a sign of

A

an unstable air mass.

194
Q

9133

Which INITIAL cockpit indications should a pilot be aware of when a headwind shears to a calm wind?

A

Indicated airspeed decreases, aircraft pitches down, and altitude decreases.

195
Q

9155

When does minimum temperature normally occur during a 24-hour period?

A

After sunrise.

196
Q

9199

What is indicated by the term ‘embedded thunderstorms’?

A

Thunderstorms are obscured by other types of clouds.

197
Q

9452

Snow on top of deicing or anti-icing fluids

A

must be considered as adhering to the aircraft.

198
Q

9136

What is the recommended technique to counter the loss of airspeed and resultant lift from wind shear?

A

Maintain, or increase, pitch attitude and accept the lower-than-normal airspeed indications.

199
Q

9290

(Refer to Figure 149.) What will be the wind and temperature trend for an STL MEM MSY flight at FL 330?

A

Windspeed decrease.

200
Q

9215.1

Dew point fronts result from

A

air density differences due to the humidity levels.

201
Q

9259

Which weather condition is present when the tropical storm is upgraded to a hurrican?

A

Sustained winds of 65 knots or more.

202
Q

9296

What wind direction and speed aloft are forecast by this WINDS AND TEMPERATURE ALOFT FORECAST (FD) for FL390-‘731960’?

A

230 at 119 knots.

203
Q

9153

What characterizes a ground-based inversion?

A

Poor visibility.

204
Q

9187

When saturated air moves downhill, its temperature increases

A

at a slower rate than dry air because vaporization uses heat.

205
Q

9229.1

When high level moisture is available, cirrus clouds forms on the

A

equatorial side of the jet stream.

206
Q

9236

A strong wind shear can be expected

A

on the low pressure side of a 100-knot jetstream core.

207
Q

9713
KFTW UA/OV DFW/TM 1645/FT100/TP PA30/SK SCT031-TOP043/BKN060-TOP085/OVC097-TOPUNKN/WXFV00SM RA/TA07.
This pilot report to Fort Worth (KFTW) indicates

A

the ceiling at KDFW is 6,000 feet.

208
Q

9142
Thrust is being managed to maintain desired indicated airspeed and the glide slope is being flown. Which characteristics should be observed when a tailwind shears to a constant headwind?

A

PITCH ATTITUDE: Increases. VERTICAL SPEED: Decreases. INDICATED AIRSPEED: Increases, then decreases.

209
Q

9777

Clear air turbulence associated with a jet stream is

A

most commonly found in the vicinity of the tropopause.

210
Q

9277
METAR KHRO 131753Z 09007KT 7SM FEW020 BKN040 30/27 A3001.
SPECI KHRO 131815Z 13017G26KT 3SM +TSRA SCT020 BKN045TCU 29/24 A2983 RMK RAB12 WS TKO LDG RW14R FRQ LTGICCG VC.
What change has taken place between 1753 and 1815UTC at Harrison (KHRO)

A

Thundershowers began at 12 minutes past the hour.

211
Q

9228

Which type frontal system is normally crossed by the jetstream?

A

Occluded front.

212
Q

9213

If the winds aloft are blowing parallel to the front,

A

the front moves slowly if at all.

213
Q 
9278
A PROB40 (PROBability) HHhh group in an International Terminal Aerodrome Forecast (TAF) indicates the probability of
A

thunderstorms or other precipitation.

214
Q

9225

Which is a necessary condition for the occurrence of a low-level temperature inversion wind shear?

A

A calm or light wind near the surface and a relatively strong wind just above the inversion.

215
Q

9777.1

The threshold wind speed in the jet stream for clear air turbulence is generally considered to be

A

110 kts.

216
Q

9185.2

Temperature and radiation variations over land with a clear sky typically lead to

A

incoming terrestrial radiation peaking at noon.

217
Q

9201

Where can the maximum hazard zone caused by wind shear associated with a thunderstorm be found?

A

On all sides and directly under the thunderstorm cell.

218
Q

9695

The adverse effects of ice, snow, or frost on aircraft performance and flight characteristics include decreased lift and

A

an increased stall speed.

219
Q

9170

Which term applies when the temperature of the air changes by compression or expansion with no heat added or removed?

A

Adiabatic.

220
Q

9156

Which area or areas of the Northern Hemisphere experience a generally east to west movement of weather systems?

A

Arctic and subtropical.

221
Q

9454

Freezing Point Depressant (FDP) fluid residue on engine fan or compressor blades

A

can reduce engine performance and cause surging and/or compressor stalls.

222
Q

9204

What is a difference between an air mass thunderstorm and a steady-state thunderstorm?

A

Air mass thunderstorm downdrafts and precipitation retard and reverse the updrafts.

223
Q

9234

Which arctic flying hazard is caused when a cloud layer of uniform thickness overlies a snow or ice covered surface?

A

Whiteout.

224
Q

9220
In comparison to an approach in a moderate headwind, which is an indication of a possible wind shear due to a decreasing headwind when descending on the glide slope?

A

Higher pitch attitude is required.

225
Q

9260

What is the general direction of movement of a hurricane location in the Caribbean or Gulf of Mexico region?

A

Northwesterly curving to northeasterly.

Dispatcher (4 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions