Wszystko Do Jednego Kotla Flashcards by Karol Suchecki

Co wiesz o smtp

Wysyłanie maili między serwerami
Wysyłanie maili z urządzeń klienta

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Z charakteryzuj T F T P

Bardzo podstawowy protokół wymiany plików i nie zapewnia security features czytam obrony ochrony plików przesyłu danych

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Co wiesz o IMAP cztery

Spełnia tą samą tą samą funkcję co pop trzy ale też zapewne więcej czyli to jest taka lepsza wersja tego po trzy i to jest generalnie lepsza wersja pop3

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Protokół zarządzania systemami sieciowymi do monitorowania dołączonych do sieci urządzeń

SN MP

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Ldap to przykład jakiego protokołu

Directory access protocol

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Scharakteryzuj smb i cifs

Zapewnia dostęp do plików folderów i urządzeń oraz używany głównie na windowsie

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Taki protokół jak team sy że tam jest głos wideo application and sharing instante message and Services czy jakieś czaty pewnie

Sip (siup bo na callach się pije)

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Co zapewniają headery ah oraz esp

Ah uwierzytelnianie
Esp CIA (Confidentiality…)

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Tryb ipseca do szyfrowania

Tunneling

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Tryb ipsec do szyfrowania samych danych

Transport

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Co robi hub

Takie gowienko do łączenia wielu rzeczy w topologii gwiazdy

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Tak się nazywają dane na poziomie TCP?

Segment

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Nazwa danych na poziomie udo

Datagram

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Podaj przykłady protokołów warstwy aplikacji

HTTP SMTP ftp

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Wymień i opisz funkcje warstw modelu osi

No opisuj xd

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Od czego jest rekord A w dnsie

Adresy ipv4

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Od czego jest rekord AAAA w dnsie?

Ipv6

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Co to stratum?

Dokładność zegara w kontekscie ntp. Stratum 0 to gpsy czy zegary atomowe, 1 synchronizuje się do 0 i tak dalej.

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Contemporary

Wspolczesny

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Jaki rodzaj topologii jest najczęściej używany w LAN?

Star topology

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Czy architektura klient- serwer jest bardziej solidna (reliable) niż architektura peer2peer?

Nie, jest mniej niezawodna, coś się zepsuje i dupa

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Jaka sieć to połączenie paru LANów!

CAN

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

xxx - protokół sieciowy oryginalnie zaprojektowany przez firmę IBM. Zapewnia podstawowy interfejs łączenia aplikacji z innymi aplikacjami w innych komputerach znajdujących się w tej samej sieci lokalnej oraz umożliwia współdzielenie danych. xxx działa w 5. warstwie (sesji) modelu OSI.

NetBIOS

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Which of the following protocols reside(s) at the application layer of the OSI model? (Select all that apply)
ATM
HTTP
FTP
IP
SMTP
TCP/UDP

HTTP, FTP, SMTP

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

xxx is a telecommunications standard defined by American National Standards Institute (ANSI) and ITU-T (formerly CCITT) for digital transmission of multiple types of traffic.

ATM

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

xxx is an intrusion detection system that is capable of monitoring and analyzing the internals of a computing system as well as the network packets on its network interfaces

HIDS (host-based intrusion detection system)

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Which of the following answers refers to a dedicated device designed to manage encrypted connections established over an untrusted network, such as the Internet?
VPN headend
Proxy server
Distributed switch
UTM appliance

VPN headend

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

VPN headend

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

xxx allow different hosts to use the switch as long as they exist within the same host cluster.

Distributed switch

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

xxx is a hardware device that plugs in to your organization’s network at the network perimeter. It serves as a gateway onto your corporate network, providing all the security services you need to protect your network from malware, unauthorized intrusion, and other security risks. Key word here is unified

UTM appliance

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Which of the following terms refers to an environmental control system?
SCADA
HIPS
TEMPEST
HVAC

HVAC

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

xxx - system informatyczny nadzorujący przebieg procesu technologicznego lub produkcyjnego. Jego główne funkcje obejmują zbieranie aktualnych danych (pomiarów), ich wizualizację, sterowanie procesem, alarmowanie oraz archiwizację danych.

xxx is a control system architecture comprising computers, networked data communications and graphical user interfaces for high-level supervision of machines and processes. It also covers sensors and other devices, such as programmable logic controllers, which interface with process plant or machinery.

SCADA

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

xxx to zainstalowane bezpośrednio na urządzeniu końcowym oprogramowanie, które monitoruje pojedynczy host pod kątem podejrzanej aktywności, analizując zdefiniowane zdarzenia występujące na tym hoście.

HIPS
Host-based Intrusion Prevention System
Bo hips don’t lie i jest dobry do monitorowania

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

EDR

Endpoint detection and response

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

xxx is computer software used to manage the creation and modification of digital content (content management)

CMS
content management system

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

xxx is an electronic control system and associated instrumentation used for industrial process control

ICS
Industrial control system

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

xxx is used for managing mobile devices

MDM
mobile device managment

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

xxx allows routes from one routing protocol to be advertised in another routing protocol.xxx is common in environments that support legacy equipment, proprietary protocols, or that have merged with other networks using a different routing protocol.
Czyli wymiana opinii między protokołami.

Route redistribution

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

xxx is used to combine a set of more specific routes into a single more general route.

This reduces the number of routes advertised by a given protocol.

Route aggregation

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Automatic routing table update is a feature of:
Static routing
Route redistribution
Dynamic routing
Route aggregation

Dynamic routing (sprawdz to ziom!)

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Which of the following answers refers to a link-state routing protocol?
BGP
EIGRP
RIP
OSPF

OSPF

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

xxx care more about speed of connection that number of hops

link-state routing protocols

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

xxx and yyy are examples of distance-vector routing protocols

RIP and EIGRP

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

BGP (baldur’s gate protocol :) ) is an example of…

Hybrid routing protocols (hybrydowe, bo jedynka ok, ale dwójeczka wybitna)

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

The term “Default route” refers to a “last resort” network path used by a router for forwarding all packets with destination addresses not listed in its routing table.
True
False

True

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

In routing, the term “Administrative distance” refers to a value used in routers to rank routes from most preferred (high AD value) to least preferred (low AD value).
True
False

W sumie imo true

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Which of the following is an exterior gateway protocol?
OSPF
BGP
EIGRP
RIP

BGP (border, ale jednocześnie jedyny exterior)

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

xxx is a Routing Protocol which is used to find network path information between different networks. It is commonly used in the Internet to exchange routing table information between two neighbor gateway hosts (each with its own router) in a network of autonomous systems. xxx is the only xxx at the time.

Exterior Gateway Protocol (EGP)
Border Gateway Protocol (BGP)
Exterior Gateway Protocol (EGP)

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Which of the following answers refer(s) to (an) interior gateway protocol(s)? (Select all that apply)
RIP
EIGRP
BGP
OSPF

RIP
EIGRP
OSFP

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

An xxx or xxx is a type of routing protocol used for exchanging routing table information between gateways (commonly routers) within an autonomous system (for example, a system of corporate local area networks).

interior gateway protocol (IGP)
Interior routing protocol
ich przykłady to ospf, rip, eigpr

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

A field in an IP datagram that specifies how many more hops a packet can travel before being discarded is called:
SPB
TTL
MTU
VTC

TTL

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

xxx is a value how fat packets/data units can be

MTU

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

xxx is a technology that facilitates the communication and interaction of two or more users through a combination of high-quality audio and video over Internet Protocol (IP) networks. Such setups are highly useful in business and enterprise computing because they simulate real and face-to-face communication over sophisticated digital platforms and established telecommunication networks.

Video teleconferencing (VTC)

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

xxx, specified in the IEEE 802.1aq standard, is a computer networking technology intended to simplify the creation and configuration of networks, while enabling multipath routing.

Shortest Path Bridging (SPB)

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Which of the following terms refer to solutions used for controlling network resources and assigning priority to different types of traffic? (Select 2 answers)
Acceptable Use Policy (AUP)
Packet shaping
Bandwidth cap
Quality of Service (QoS)
Fair access policy

Packet (sometimes also traffic) shaping
Quality of Service (QoS)

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

xxx, acceptable usage policy or fair use policy is a set of rules applied by the owner, creator or administrator of a computer network website, or service. That restricts the ways in which the network, website or system may be used and sets guidelines as to how it should be used.

An acceptable use policy (AUP)

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

xxx is a limit placed on the size and speed of data transfers by an Internet service provider (ISP).

A bandwidth cap

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Which of the following terms refers to a logical grouping of computers that allow computer hosts to act as if they were attached to the same broadcast domain, regardless of their physical location?

Honeynet
Virtual Private Network (VPN)
Demilitarized Zone (DMZ)
Virtual Local Area Network (VLAN)
SNMP community

VLAN

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

xxx is a network set up with intentional vulnerabilities hosted on a decoy server to make hackers fall into a trap

Honeynet (honeypot podobna rzecz)

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

xxx is a physical or logical subnetwork that contains and exposes an organization’s external-facing services to an untrusted, usually larger, network such as the Internet. The purpose of a xxx is to add an additional layer of security to an organization’s local area network (LAN): an external network node can access only what is exposed in the xxx, while the rest of the organization’s network is firewalled. The xxx functions as a small, isolated network positioned between the Internet and the private network.

DMZ (demilitarized zone)

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Data from multiple VLANs on a single switch is carried through a single network link between switches. This is often referred to as “trunking” or “VLAN multiplexing”, and each of the switches has a special port (trunk port) configured to pass all the data, regardless of the VLAN number, between all switches on a LAN. To allow for multiple VLANs on one link, frames from individual VLANs must be identified. The most common and preferred method, IEEE 802.1Q, adds a tag to the Ethernet frame header labeling it as belonging to a certain VLAN.
True
False

True

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

xxxx will combine multiple physical ports into one logical one.

Link Aggregation Control Protocol (LACP)

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

xxx is a network protocol that builds a loop-free logical topology for Ethernet networks. The basic function of xxx is to prevent bridge loops and the broadcast radiation that results from them. xxx also allows a network design to include backup links providing fault tolerance if an active link fails.

STP (spanninf tree protocol) (zalatuje grafami :D )

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Virtual Router Redundancy Protocol (VRRP) in an example of…

Multicast protocol

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

HSRP, VRRP, GLBP are examples of …

Gateway redundancy protocols

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

xxx are used to create virtual routers which virtually group many physical routers into one and in case of one router fails, another router will take it’s job. All hosts are assigned to a virtual router and have no idea of physical devices and one of them eventually failing

Gateway redundancy protocols

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

In the context of implementing secure network designs, the term “Port security” may apply to:
Disabling physical ports on a device (e.g. RJ-45 device ports on a router, switch, or patch panel)
Implementing MAC address filtering
Disabling unused logical ports (TCP/UDP)
Implementing Port-based Network Access Control (defined in the IEEE 802.1X standard)
All of the above

All of the above

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Port mirroring allows an administrator to inspect traffic passing through a network switch. On a switch that supports port mirroring, a packet analyzer can be connected to an empty port and the switch can be configured to pass a copy of the data sent over one or multiple ports on that switch to the packet sniffer port allowing the administrator to monitor contents of the traffic passing through the switch.
True
False

True

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Transmission carried out in one direction only is described as simplex mode. Communication that takes place only in one direction at a time is referred to as half-duplex mode. Two devices communicating with each other in both directions simultaneously are said to be in full-duplex mode. Network devices supporting autonegotiation feature automatically configure best mode supported by both devices. Duplex mismatch is the term used for a situation where two devices communicate with each other using different duplex modes.
True
False

True

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

True

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

The term “VoIP endpoint” refers to a dedicated hardware device or an application program that enables Voice over Internet Protocol (VoIP) telephone calls from computing devices.
True
False

True

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

xxx is an extensible web server software created by Microsoft for use with the Windows NT family.[2] IIS supports HTTP, HTTP/2, HTTPS, FTP, FTPS, SMTP and NNTP.

Internet Information Services (IIS, formerly Internet Information Server)

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

TCP port 389 is the default network port for:
RDP
LDAP
SMB
LDAPS

LDAP

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

RDP uses tcp/udp port number xxx

3389

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

SMB uses tcp/udp port number xxx

445

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

LDAPS uses tcp/udp port number xx

636

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

https uses port tcp/udp number xx

443

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Which of the following protocols runs on TCP port 445?
HTTPS
SMB/CIFS
IMAP
H.323

SMB/CIFS

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Which of the following ports is used by syslog?
445
514
587
636

514 (both tcp or udp)

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Where is port number 587 used?

SMTP (communication between servers)

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

A network technician uses Remote Desktop Protocol (RDP) client on their Windows OS to remotely troubleshoot a problem on another Windows machine. Which of the following ports needs to be opened for the built-in Windows RDP server to allow this type of network connection?
TCP port 1720
TCP port 636
TCP port 3389
TCP port 445

TCP port 3389

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Which of the ports listed below are assigned to the Session Initiation Protocol (SIP)? (Select 2 answers)
UDP port 67
TCP port 5060
TCP port 389
UDP port 68
TCP port 5061
TCP port 3389

TCP port 5060
TCP port 5061

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Which of the following answers refers to a protocol used by routers, hosts, and network devices to generate error messages and troubleshoot problems with delivery of IP packets?
CCMP
RSTP
ICMP
SNMP

ICMP

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

RSTP is an extension on protocol xxx

STP

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

CCMP is and ___ protocol
encryption
routing
mail
access directory

encryption

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

CCMP is and ___ protocol
encryption
routing
mail
access directory

encryption

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Which of the following answers refers to a tunneling protocol?
VRRP
GRE
RTSP
BGP

GRE

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

A computer networking protocol that provides for automatic assignment of available Internet Protocol (IP) routers to participating hosts. This increases the availability and reliability of routing paths via automatic default gateway selections on an IP subnetwork.
RSTP
GRE
CRRP
IMAP

CRRP

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

An IPv4-to-IPv6 transition mechanism with native support for Network Address Translation (NAT) is known as:
6to4
Teredo
eDiscovery
Miredo

Teredo

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

xxx is a Teredo tunneling client designed to allow full IPv6 connectivity to computer systems which are on the IPv4-based Internet but which have no direct native connection to an IPv6 network.

Miredo

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

xxx is a transition technology that gives full IPv6 connectivity for IPv6-capable hosts that are on the IPv4 Internet but have no native connection to an IPv6 network. Unlike similar protocols, it can perform its function even from behind network address translation (NAT) devices such as home routers.

Teredo

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

xxx is an Internet transition mechanism for migrating from Internet Protocol version 4 (IPv4) to version 6 (IPv6) and a system that allows IPv6 packets to be transmitted over an IPv4 network (generally the IPv4 Internet) without the need to configure explicit tunnels. Special relay servers are also in place that allow xxx networks to communicate with native IPv6 networks.

6to4

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

What is the difference between 6to4 and Toredo?
Toredo changes IPv4 to IPv6
Toredo, unlike 6to4 can perform its function even from behind network address translation (NAT) devices such as home routers
Toredo isn’t IP protocol

Toredo, unlike 6to4 can perform its function even from behind network address translation (NAT) devices such as home routers

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

What does the term “Miredo” refer to?
IPv4 to IPv6 migration mechanism
Load balancing solution
Teredo tunneling software
Content filtering solution

Teredo tunneling software

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

The term “Dual-stack IP” refers to a solution that relies on implementing both IPv4 and IPv6 protocol stacks on various network devices to facilitate seamless migration from IPv4 to IPv6.

True

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Which of the following answers lists a valid IPv6 address of FE80:00A7:0000:0000:02AA:0000:4C00:FE9A after compression?
FE80:00A7::2AA:0:4C:FE9A
FE80:A7::2AA::4C00:FE9A
FE80:00A7::2AA:0:4C00:FE9A
FE80:A7::2AA:0:4C00:FE9A

FE80:A7::2AA:0:4C00:FE9A

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

An IPv6 protocol used by routers to advertise their presence on a network is called:
NDR
NCP
NDP
NTP

NDP

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

NDR stands for ___

Network detection and response

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

xxx was software that ran on a 37xx communications controller and managed communication with remote devices. NCP provided services comparable to the Data Link Layer and Network Layer functions in the OSI model of a Wide area network.[1]

NCP

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Which of the following allows a network node to autoconfigure an IPv6 address in the absence of a Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol for IPv6 (DHCPv6) server?
APIPA
CIDR
NetBEUI
SLAAC

SLAAC

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

xxx is a method for allocating IP addresses and for IP routing without classes

CIDR

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

xxx metoda, która umożliwia komputerowi przypisanie sobie adresu IP wówczas, gdy serwer DHCP jest niedostępny lub nie istnieje w danej sieci. Metoda ta znacznie ułatwia konfigurowanie i obsługę niewielkiej, prostej sieci lokalnej (LAN, Local Area Network), w której jest używany protokół TCP/IP. Działa zarówno w IPv4 jak i IPv6

APIPA

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

APIPA

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

is a mechanism that enables each host on the network to auto-configure a unique IPv6 address without any device keeping track of which address is assigned to which node.

SLAAC
Stateless Address Autoconfiguration - stateless, czyli nikt nie śledzi tego, kto ma jaki numer ip, które adresy wolne i które zajęte

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

An IP address that doesn’t correspond to any actual physical network interface is called a virtual IP address (VIP/VIPA).
True
False

True

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

What is the function of FTP?
Email service
Directory access
Serving of web pages
File exchange

File exchange

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

A type of cryptographic network protocol for secure data communication, remote command-line login, remote command execution, and other secure network services between two networked computers is known as:
TFTP
SSH
Telnet
RDP

SSH

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

A network protocol for secure file transfer over Secure Shell (SSH) is called:
TFTP
SFTP
Telnet
FTPS

SFTP

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Telnet: (Select 3 answers)
Encrypts network connection
Provides username & password authentication
Transmits data in an unencrypted form
Does not provide authentication
Enables remote login and command execution

Provides username & password authentication
Transmits data in an unencrypted form
Enables remote login and command execution

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

The SMTP protocol is used for: (Select 2 answers)
Sending email messages between mail servers
Name resolution services
Serving of web pages
Retrieving email messages from mail servers
Sending email messages from a client device

Sending email messages between mail servers
Sending email messages from a client device

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Which of the following answers refers to a system containing mappings of domain names to various types of data, such as numerical IP addresses?
TCP/IP
DNS
SQL
DHCP

DNS

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

xxx is a method of mapping an IP address space into another by modifying network address information in the IP header of packets while they are in transit across a traffic routing device

NAT (network address translation)
Na przykład wychodzisz na router na świat i nie używasz swojego lokalnego adresu ip 192.168.0.50

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

What are the characteristic features of TFTP? (Select 2 answers)
Provides no security features
Typically used for exchanging files over the Internet
A very basic form of file sharing protocol
Provides authentication and encryption
Directory access protocol

Provides no security features
A very basic form of file sharing protocol

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Which network protocol enables retrieving contents of an Internet page from a web server?
SNMP
HTTP
SMTP
IMAP

HTTP

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

POP3 is used for:
Name resolution
Sending email messages
File exchange
Email retrieval

Email retrieval

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Which protocol is used in VLAN trunking?
NTP
VTP
NNTP
RTP

VTP

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

xxx is a network protocol for delivering audio and video over IP networks. RTP is used in communication and entertainment systems that involve streaming media, such as telephony, video teleconference applications including WebRTC, television services and web-based push-to-talk features.

RTP
(real time protocol)

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Which of the following answers refer to IMAP4? (Select 2 answers)
Offers improved functionality in comparison to POP3
Serves the same function as POP3
Enables sending email messages from client devices
Offers less functions than POP3
Enables email exchange between mail servers

Serves the same function as POP3
Offers improved functionality in comparison to POP3

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

A type of protocol used in network management systems for monitoring network-attached devices is called:
SMB
NTP
SNMP
RDP

SNMP

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Which type of server is used for collecting diagnostic and monitoring data from networked devices?
Proxy server
UC server
Syslog server
ICS server

Syslog server

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

SMTP TLS runs on port:
445
514
587
636

587

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

FE80:A7::2AA:0:4C00:FE9A

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

xxx is a cloud computing offering where a service provider delivers virtual desktops to end users over the Internet, licensed with a per-user subscription.

DaaS

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Which cloud service model would provide the best solution for a web developer intending to create a web app?
DaaS
SaaS
PaaS
IaaS

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Which of the following answers refers to a cloud-based VDI service?
IaaS
PaaS
DaaS
SaaS

DaaS

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

xxx is a software technology that separates the desktop environment and associated application software from the physical client device that is used to access it.

Desktop virtualization VDI

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

A DevOps practice that replaces manual configuration of hardware with automatic deployment through code is called:
IaC
Virtualization
PaaS
VDI

IaC

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

A DevOps practice that replaces manual configuration of hardware with automatic deployment through code is called:
IaC
Virtualization
PaaS
VDI

IaC

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

xxx is the ability of network infrastructure to connect with a wide variety of devices, including thin and thick clients, such as mobile phones, laptops, workstations, and tablets, to enable seamless access to computing resources across these diverse platforms. It is a key characteristic of cloud technology.

Broad network (access)

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

xxx is a delivery model in which a utility provider monitors how much of a particular service each customer consumes within a designated time period. Measured services give the provider insight into resource consumption and provide customers with transparency into how they are billed for the services they consume.

Measured service

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

xxx refers to the service provided by cloud computing vendors that enables the provision of cloud resources on demand whenever they are required

On-demand self service

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

In cloud computing, the practice of grouping together computing resources and making them available for shared access for multiple consumers is referred to as:
Broad network access
Measured service
On-demand self-service
Resource pooling

Resource pooling

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Which of the following terms refers to a cloud computing feature that allows for automatic allocation of computing resources in proportion with the demand?
Rapid elasticity
Measured service
On-demand self-service
Resource pooling

Rapid elasticity

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

A device designed to filter and transfer data packets between dissimilar types of computer networks is called:
Hub
Load balancer
Router
Switch

Router

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

The disadvantage from using this device results from the fact that any incoming signal on any of its ports is re-created and sent out on any connected ports which has a negative impact on network performance.
Router
Switch
Bridge
Hub

Hub

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

xxx is a web page accessed with a web browser that is displayed to newly connected users of a Wi-Fi or wired network before they are granted broader access to network resources.
A captive portal
A welcome webpage
A welcome portal
a captive webpage

A captive portal

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

A place where u connect many cables is…
Connection point
Intermediate Distribution Frame (IDF)
Distribution box

Intermediate Distribution Frame (IDF)

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

What is the difference between active and passive hub?

Active hub amplifies (wzmacnia) signal.

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Bridge is a hardware-based device.
True
False

False, bridge forwards using software

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Bridge has only 2 ports and switch has many.
True
False

True

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

We use switches to connect two LANs.
True
False

False

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Switches are used to connect many hosts.
True
False

True

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Which of the following answers describe the features of a network bridge? (Select 3 answers)
Makes forwarding decisions in hardware (ASIC)
Newer and more effective type of network device in comparison to network switch
Typically capable of connecting more network segments than switch (more physical ports)
Makes forwarding decisions in software
Typically capable of connecting fewer network segments than switch (fewer physical ports)
Older and less effective type of network device in comparison to network switch

Makes forwarding decisions in software
Typically capable of connecting fewer network segments than switch (fewer physical ports)
Older and less effective type of network device in comparison to network switch

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

What are the characteristic traits of a network switch? (Select all that apply)
Makes forwarding decisions in hardware (ASIC)
Typically capable of connecting more network segments than bridge (more physical ports)
Older and less effective type of network device in comparison to network bridge
Makes forwarding decisions in software
Sometimes referred to as multiport bridge
Newer and more effective type of network device in comparison to network bridge
Typically capable of connecting fewer network segments than bridge (fewer physical ports)

Makes forwarding decisions in hardware (ASIC)
Typically capable of connecting more network segments than bridge (more physical ports)
Sometimes referred to as multiport bridge
Newer and more effective type of network device in comparison to network bridge

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Which network device enables centralized management of WAPs?
VPN concentrator
Load balancer
Multilayer switch
Wireless LAN controller

Wireless LAN controller

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

A xxx is a networking device that creates and helps to manage multiple VPN connections remotely. It establishes multiple encrypted VPN tunnels at the same time and provides a secure and encrypted connection between different VPN nodes.

VPN concentrator

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Can mulitilayer switches work in 4-7 OSI model layers?
Yes
No

Yes, for example load balancers (mam poczucie, że to jest mocno dyskusyjne w kwestii nazewnictwa w ogóle)

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

In computer networking, a computer system or application that acts as an intermediary between another computer and the Internet is commonly referred to as:
Bridge
Active hub
Server
Proxy

Proxy

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Which of the answers listed below apply to DSL modems? (Select 3 answers)
Dedicated bandwidth
Cabling that carries TV signals
Shared bandwidth
Twisted-pair copper cabling
Telephone lines
Coaxial cabling

Dedicated bandwidth
Twisted-pair copper cabling
Telephone lines

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

In computer networking, the term “Attenuation” refers to a loss in signal strength during transmission caused by increasing distance and obstacles encountered on the signal path. The problem of attenuating circuit on the network can be solved by adding a device that boosts the signal strength. This type of device is known as:
Repeater
Media converter
Inverter
Load balancer

Repeater

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Private Branch Exchange (PBX) is an internal telephone exchange or switching system implemented in a business or office. PBX allows for handling of internal communications without the use of paid Public Switched Telephone Network (PSTN) service, also known as Plain Old Telephone Service (POTS). A Voice over Internet Protocol (VoIP) PBX, which takes advantage of existing LAN cables, can further reduce costs by removing the need for separate telephone cabling infrastructure in a building or office. VoIP endpoints are specialized hardware devices or application programs that enable VoIP calls from computing devices. VoIP gateways are network devices that convert voice and fax calls, in real time, between an IP network and PSTN/POTS.
True
False

True

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Media converters are devices that allow for connecting different types of incompatible media such as copper and fiber-optic cabling.
True
False

True

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Which of the following answers illustrates the difference between passive and active network security breach response?
HIPS vs. NIPS
UTM vs. Firewall
NIPS vs. UTM
IDS vs. IPS

IDS vs. IPS

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Tell me abou the difference between IPS (Intrusion Prevention System) and IDS (Intrusion Detection System)

IDS just detects, IPS detects and blocks

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

xxx is a rdp feature forcing users to authenticate before establishing session

NLA (network level authentication)

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

An infrastructure device designed for connecting wireless/wired client devices to a network is commonly referred to as:
Captive portal
Access Point (AP)
Intermediate Distribution Frame (IDF)
Active hub

Access Point (AP)

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

In SNMP, each node in a MIB is uniquely identified by a(n):
DSU
OID
PII
OUI

OID

A xxx/zzz is a hardware device about the size of an external modem that converts a digital data frame from the communications technology used on a local area network (LAN) into a frame appropriate to a wide-area network (WAN) and vice versa.

CSU/DSU
CSU is more abour transmiting and receiving
DSU handles errors
i supose…

OUI

Organization unit identifier

PII

Personally Identifiable Information (dane osobowe)

Unified communications
Na przykład Teams

ICS

Industrial control system

CRC allows for collecting metrics that provide information on:
Error rates
Network utilization
Packet drops
Bandwidth/throughput

Error rates

A network frame exceeding the configured MTU is called:
Giant frame
STP frame
Magic packet
Jumbo frame

Giant frame

What is the name of a packet used to attach host to LAN and what does it consist of?

Magic packet
coś+6 bajtów jedynek + 16 razy powtórzony adres MAC

The term “Runt frame” refers to an Ethernet frame that is smaller than the minimum of:
32 bytes
64 bytes
128 bytes
256 bytes

64 bytes

A type of historical network data kept as a reference for resolving future performance issues is referred to as:
Audit log
Baseline
Change management documentation
Template

Baseline

The two factors that are considered important for creating strong passwords are: (Select 2 answers)
Password length
Minimum password age
Password history
Password complexity
Maximum password age

Password length
Password complexity

SLA

Service Level Agreement
Like implementing and supporting Cyberark implementation

A type of document stipulating rules of behavior to be followed by users of computers, networks, and associated resources is referred to as:
SLA
EULA
AUP
BPA

AUP

EULA

end-user license agreement
Czyli jakbyś kupił licencje na windowsa

BPA

Blanket purchase Agreement

Which of the acronyms listed below refers to a policy of permitting employees to bring personal devices and to use those devices for accessing privileged company information and applications?
BSOD
BYOD
JBOD
BYOB

BYOD

DRP

Disaster recovery plan (but not only, drp can be a shortcut for many other things)

DEP

Data execution prevention
zabezpieczenie przed wykonywaniem kodu przez wirusy

DLP (data loss prevention)

Software preventing data breaches

DPWhich of the following acronyms refers to software or hardware-based security solutions designed to detect and prevent unauthorized use and transmission of confidential information?
DRP
DHE
DLP
DEP

DLP

Physical and logical network diagrams provide visual representation of network architecture. A physical network diagram contains information on hardware devices and physical links between them. A logical network diagram describes the actual traffic flow on a network and provides information related to IP addressing schemes, subnets, device roles or protocols that are in use on the network.
True
False

True

Which type of network documentation would be of help in determining the physical location of a network server?
Network diagram
IDF documentation
Rack diagram
MDF documentation

MDF dokumentation (some say it is controversial)

Wstaw poprawnie
xxx- a cable rack that interconnects and manages the cables entering a building. The cables run through a centralized xxx, then distributed to each individual yyy and then on to specific workstations. For example, a building that has several floors may have one xxx on the first floor and one yyy on each of the floors that is connected to the xxx.A xxx is a signal distribution frame or cable rack used in telephony to interconnect and manage telecommunication wiring between itself and any number of intermediate distribution frames and cabling from the telephony network it supports.
DDAN
IDF
CTD
MDF
DTD
MDDAN

xxx - MDF
yyy - IDF

What is a rack diagram

Szafa z legendą xd Dużo portów i się tam wciska kabelki

A type of wiring closet that interconnects WAN links coming into the building with the internal network is known as Intermediate Distribution Frame (IDF).
True
False

False

Which of the following answers refers to a cable rack that interconnects wiring between an MDF and workstation devices?
ICS
MDI
IDF
MTU

IDF

The process of designing and planning new WLANs for optimal performance, security and compliance typically involves:
Penetration testing
Wireless site survey
Vulnerability scanning
End user awareness and training

Wireless site survey

NDA

Non-disclosure agreement
klauzula/ umowa poufności, czyli żeby nie szczekać na boku
Endy, ej! Bo Andy chciał powiedzieć za dużo, ale go powstrzymaliśmy!

An agreement between a service provider and users defining the nature, availability, quality, and scope of the service to be provided is known as:
SOW
MSA
SLA
MOU

SLA

A xxx, often known as an xxx, is a business agreement that outlines deliverables and project goals. It’s created to keep everyone on the same page about deadlines, scope of work, and project expectations. Creating an xxx helps clients and vendors to stay aligned and reach their project goals together.

Statement of Work
SOW
czyli określenie pracy

Czy SLA i MSA to to samo?

Got no idea

What to you know about MoU

More informal type of agreement

Which of the following terms refers to an agreement that specifies performance requirements for a vendor?
MSA
SLA
MOU
SOW

SLA

A document established between two or more parties to define their respective responsibilities and expectations in accomplishing a particular goal or mission is known as:
SLA
MOU
SOW
MSA

MOU

Load balancers are physical network devices or software solutions designed for managing the optimal distribution of workloads across multiple computing resources.
True
False

True

The term “Multipath I/O” refers to a framework that improves fault tolerance and performance by enabling additional, alternate routes for data that is being transferred to and from storage devices.
True
False

True

The process of combining multiple physical network adapters into a single logical interface for increased throughput and redundancy is known as:
Route aggregation
Virtualization
NIC teaming
Device pairing

NIC teaming

PoE

Power over Ethernet

PSU

power supply unit
zasilacz po prostu…

Jumbo Frame has over ___ bytes

1500

Which of the following answers refer to the RG-6 cabling specification? (Select 3 answers)
Twisted-pair copper cabling
Suitable for short-distance cable runs
Used for analog video and CCTV installations
Coaxial cabling
Suitable for long-distance cable runs
Used for cable television, satellite television, and cable modems

Coaxial cabling
Suitable for long-distance cable runs
Used for cable television, satellite television, and cable modems

What are the characteristics of the RG-59 cabling specification? (Select 3 answers)
Coaxial cabling
Suitable for short-distance cable runs
Used for analog video and CCTV installations
Twisted-pair copper cabling
Suitable for long-distance cable runs
Used for cable television, satellite television, and cable modems

Coaxial cabling
Suitable for short-distance cable runs
Used for analog video and CCTV installations

In modern Ethernet networks, a twisted-pair copper cable terminated according to the TIA/EIA-568A standard on one end and TIA/EIA-568B standard on the opposite end forms a:
Crossover cable
Straight-through cable
Patch cable
None of the above

None of the above

What are the characteristic traits of single-mode fiber optics? (Select 3 answers)
Transmission distances of up to 2 km
More expensive than multimode fiber optics
Uses LED as the source of light
Transmission distances of up to 100 km
Uses laser as the source of light
Less expensive than multimode fiber optics

More expensive than multimode fiber optics
Transmission distances of up to 100 km
Uses laser as the source of light

Which of the answers listed below refer to the characteristics of multimode fiber optics? (Select 3 answers)
Uses laser as the source of light
Transmission distances of up to 2 km
More expensive than single-mode fiber optics
Transmission distances of up to 100 km
Less expensive than single-mode fiber optics
Uses LED as the source of light

Transmission distances of up to 2 km
Less expensive than single-mode fiber optics
Uses LED as the source of light

Which of the following answers refer(s) to (an) example(s) of (a) fiber-optic connector(s)? (Select all that apply)
LC
DB-25
ST
SC
MT-RJ
RG-6

LC
ST
SC
MT-RJ

The shape and angle of the tip of a fiber-optic connector can have an impact on the performance of a fiber-optic communication link. The two basic types of fiber end are Ultra Physical Contact (UPC) and Angled Physical Contact (APC). In the UPC-type connector, the connector end is polished with no angle, while APC connectors feature a fiber end polished at an 8-degree angle, which results in better performance.
True
False

True

Which of the answers listed below refer to the RJ11 connector? (Select 2 answers)
Used with telephone cabling
Twisted-pair copper cabling connector
Used with Ethernet network cabling
Fiber-optic cabling connector
Coaxial cabling connector

Used with telephone cabling
Twisted-pair copper cabling connector

What are the characteristic features of the RJ45 connector? (Select 2 answers)
Used with telephone cabling
Coaxial cabling connector
Used with Ethernet network cabling
Twisted-pair copper cabling connector
Fiber-optic cabling connector

Twisted-pair copper cabling connector
Used with Ethernet network cabling

A type of coaxial connector commonly used for cable television and cable modems is called:
RG-6
F-type
DB-9
MT-RJ

F-type

Which of the following answers refers to a modular network device designed to provide a seamless link between different types of network interfaces?
Bridge
Transceiver
Active hub
Managed switch

Transceiver

What are the features of GBIC? (Select all that apply)
Data transfer of 10 Gbps
Modular (hot swappable) interface
Converts optical signals to electrical signals
Fixed physical interface
Converts electrical signals to optical signals
Data transfer of 1 Gbps

Modular (hot swappable) interface
Converts optical signals to electrical signals
Converts electrical signals to optical signals
Data transfer of 1 Gbps

Which of the answers listed below refer(s) to the characteristic feature(s) of SFP? (Select all that apply)
Small form factor transceiver
Converts electrical signals to optical signals
Data transfer of 10 Gbps
Newer transceiver type that replaces GBIC
Modular (hot swappable) interface
Converts optical signals to electrical signals
Fixed physical interface
Data transfer of 1 Gbps

Small form factor transceiver
Converts electrical signals to optical signals
Newer transceiver type that replaces GBIC
Modular (hot swappable) interface
Converts optical signals to electrical signals
Data transfer of 1 Gbps

Compared to SFP, SFP+ offers enhanced data transfer rates of up to:
2 Gbps
4 Gbps
8 Gbps
16 Gbps

16 Gbps

Which of the following answers refers to the maximum data transfer rate of QSFP?
1 Gbps
1.6 Gbps
2 Gbps
4 Gbps

4 Gbps

QSFP+ offers data transfer rates of up to:
10 Gbps
20 Gbps
40 Gbps
80 Gbps

40 Gbps

A simple device consisting of multiple connector blocks and ports used for cable management is known as:
Media converter
Demarc
Main Distribution Frame (MDF)
Patch panel

Patch panel

The 66 block (older type / primarily used in analog telephone systems) and the 110 block (newer type / used in computer networks) are examples of punchdown blocks used for connecting sets of wires.
True
False

True

Which of the following answers refers to a proprietary European alternative to 110 block?
Krone
BIX
M Block
IDC

Krone

What are the characteristic features of the 10BASE-T Ethernet standard? (Select 3 answers)
BNC connector
Transfer rate of 10 Mbps over two-pair Category 3 or better UTP cable
Maximum cable segment length of 100 meters
RJ45 connector
Transfer rate of 100 Mbps over two-pair Category 5 or better UTP cable
Maximum cable segment length of 185 meters

Transfer rate of 10 Mbps over two-pair Category 3 or better UTP cable
Maximum cable segment length of 100 meters
RJ45 connector

What are the characteristic features of the 100BASE-TX Ethernet standard? (Select 3 answers)
Twisted-pair copper cabling (Category 3 or higher)
Maximum cable segment length of 100 meters
Transfer rate of 100 Mbps over two-pair Cat 5 or better cable
Maximum cable segment length of 55 meters
Twisted-pair copper cabling (Category 5 or higher)
Transfer rate of 1000 Mbps (1 Gbps) over four-pair Cat 5 or better cable

Maximum cable segment length of 100 meters
Twisted-pair copper cabling (Category 5 or higher)
Transfer rate of 100 Mbps over two-pair Cat 5 or better cable

What are the characteristic features of the 1000BASE-T Ethernet standard? (Select 3 answers)
Maximum cable segment length of 185 meters
Single-mode fiber-optic cabling
Maximum cable segment length of 100 meters
Twisted-pair copper cabling (Cat 5 or higher)
Uses two pairs of wires in a cable for data transmission
Multimode fiber-optic cabling
Uses all four pairs of wires in a cable for data transmission

Maximum cable segment length of 100 meters
Twisted-pair copper cabling (Cat 5 or higher)
Uses all four pairs of wires in a cable for data transmission

Which of the answers listed below refer(s) to the characteristic features of the 10GBASE-T Ethernet standard? (Select all that apply)
Single-mode fiber-optic cable
10 Gbps transfer rate over a maximum cable segment length of 55 meters (Cat 6 UTP cable)
Uses two pairs of wires in a cable for data transmission
Multimode fiber-optic cable
10 Gbps transfer rate over a maximum cable segment length of 100 meters (Cat 6 STP cable)
Twisted-pair copper cabling
10 Gbps transfer rate over a maximum cable segment length of 100 meters (Cat 6a UTP/STP cable)
Uses all four pairs of wires in a cable for data transmissio

10 Gbps transfer rate over a maximum cable segment length of 55 meters (Cat 6 UTP cable)
10 Gbps transfer rate over a maximum cable segment length of 100 meters (Cat 6 STP cable)
Twisted-pair copper cabling
10 Gbps transfer rate over a maximum cable segment length of 100 meters (Cat 6a UTP/STP cable)
Uses all four pairs of wires in a cable for data transmissio

Which of the following answers refer to the characteristic features of the 40GBASE-T Ethernet standard? (Select 3 answers)
Uses all four pairs of wires in a cable for data transmission
Twisted-pair copper cabling
40 Gbps transfer rate over a maximum cable segment length of 30 meters (Cat 8 cabling)
Single-mode fiber-optic cable
40 Gbps transfer rate over a maximum cable segment length of 100 meters (Cat 8 cabling)
Uses two pairs of wires in a cable for data transmission
40 Gbps transfer rate over a maximum cable segment length of 100 meters (Cat 7 cabling)
Multimode fiber-optic cable

IMAP uses port number ___
110
143
1720
389

143

Pop uses port number ___
1720
636
80
110

110

H.323 uses port number ___
389
443
143
1720

1720

H.323 to poprzednik protokołu ___
HTTP
FTP
SIP
GRE

SIP

Describe basics of port security
It’s about opening only needed ports
Whitelisting allowed MAC adresses
The purpose of port security is to prevent access to the LAN from un-authorized hosts
All of above is correct

All of above is correct

TACACS+ provides:
services: authentication, authorization, and accounting independently
information about posible malware
logs from different stations
information about health of your network

services: authentication, authorization, and accounting independently

Access Control List (ACL) refers to a list of ports and services that are available on a host (or a network device such as router), each with a list of hosts and/or networks permitted to use the service. Both nodes (work stations or servers) as well as routers can have access lists. Access lists are used to control both inbound and outbound traffic.

True
False

True

What are the characteristics of the IEEE 802.11g wireless standard? (Select 3 answers)
Carrier Sense Multiple Access / Collision Detection (CSMA/CD) network access method
Maximum data signaling rate of 54 Mbps
Carrier Sense Multiple Access / Collision Avoidance (CSMA/CA) network access method
2.4 GHz frequency range
Maximum data signaling rate of 11 Mbps
5.0 GHz frequency range

Maximum data signaling rate of 54 Mbps
Carrier Sense Multiple Access / Collision Avoidance (CSMA/CA) network access method
2.4 GHz frequency range

The characteristic features of the IEEE 802.11n (WiFi 4) wireless standard include: (Select all that apply)
Multiple Input / Multiple Output (MIMO)
Maximum data signaling rate of 54 Mbps
2.4 GHz frequency band
Carrier Sense Multiple Access / Collision Detection (CSMA/CD) network access method
5.0 GHz frequency band
Multi-User Multiple Input / Multiple Output (MU-MIMO)
Maximum data signaling rate of up to 600 Mbps
Carrier Sense Multiple Access / Collision Avoidance (CSMA/CA) network access method
Maximum data signaling rate of up to 3.39 Gbps

Multiple Input / Multiple Output (MIMO)
2.4 GHz frequency band
5.0 GHz frequency band
Maximum data signaling rate of up to 600 Mbps
Carrier Sense Multiple Access / Collision Avoidance (CSMA/CA) network access method

Which of the following answers refers(s) to the feature(s) of the IEEE 802.11ac (WiFi 5) wireless standard? (Select all that apply)
Maximum data signaling rate of up to 3.39 Gbps
5.0 GHz frequency band
Carrier Sense Multiple Access / Collision Detection (CSMA/CD) network access method
Maximum data signaling rate of up to 6.933 Gbps
Carrier Sense Multiple Access / Collision Avoidance (CSMA/CA) network access method
Multi-User Multiple Input / Multiple Output (MU-MIMO)
Maximum data signaling rate of up to 9.607 Gbps
2.4 GHz frequency band

5.0 GHz frequency band
Maximum data signaling rate of up to 6.933 Gbps
Carrier Sense Multiple Access / Collision Avoidance (CSMA/CA) network access method
Multi-User Multiple Input / Multiple Output (MU-MIMO)

What are the characteristics of the IEEE 802.11ax (WiFi 6) wireless standard? (Select all that apply)
Maximum data signaling rate of up to 3.39 Gbps
5.0 GHz frequency band
Multi-User Multiple Input / Multiple Output (MU-MIMO)
Maximum data signaling rate of up to 6.933 Gbps
Carrier Sense Multiple Access / Collision Detection (CSMA/CD) network access method
2.4 GHz frequency band
Maximum data signaling rate of up to 9.607 Gbps
Carrier Sense Multiple Access / Collision Avoidance (CSMA/CA) network access method

5.0 GHz frequency band
Multi-User Multiple Input / Multiple Output (MU-MIMO)
2.4 GHz frequency band
Maximum data signaling rate of up to 9.607 Gbps
Carrier Sense Multiple Access / Collision Avoidance (CSMA/CA) network access method

Which of the following serves as a unique identifier for a WLAN (a wireless network name)?
EUI
SSID
OUI
CNAME

SSID

Which of the following answers refers to a wireless network using a single WAP?
SSID
BSS
IBSS
ESS

BSS

A wireless network operating in an infrastructure mode with the use of more than one WAP is referred to as:
ESS
SSID
BSS
IBSS

ESS

A wireless networking topology in which client devices communicate directly with each other without the use of a controlling Access Point (AP) is known as: (Select all that apply)
BSS
Ad-hoc mode
IBSS
Peer-to-peer mode
ESS
Infrastructure mode

Ad-hoc mode
IBSS
Peer-to-peer mode

Which of the following wireless network types enables roaming?
P2P
IBSS
ESS
Ad-hoc
BSS

ESS

Which wireless antenna type provides a 360-degree horizontal signal coverage?
Dish antenna
Unidirectional antenna
Yagi antenna
Omnidirectional antenna

Omnidirectional antenna

Which of the following answers refers to a common antenna type used as a standard equipment on most Access Points (APs) for indoor Wireless Local Area Network (WLAN) deployments?
Omnidirectional antenna
Dish antenna
Unidirectional antenna
Yagi antenna

Omnidirectional antenna

Which of the following answers refer(s) to a wireless antenna type(s) used for point-to-point links? (Select all that apply)
Dipole antenna
Omnidirectional antenna
Dish antenna
Unidirectional antenna
Yagi antenna

Dish antenna
Unidirectional antenna
Yagi antenna

Which of the following wireless encryption schemes offers the highest level of protection?
WEP
WPS
WPA
WPA2

WPA2

Which of the cryptographic algorithms listed below is the least vulnerable to attacks?
AES
DES
RC4
3DES

AES

Which of the following encryption schemes is used in WiFi Protected Access 2 (WPA2)?
RC4
AES-CCMP
TKIP with RC4
AES-GCMP

AES-CCMP

For a wireless client to be able to connect to a network, the security type (e.g. WEP, WPA or WPA2) and encryption type (e.g. TKIP or AES) settings on the connecting host must match the corresponding wireless security settings on a Wireless Access Point (WAP).
True
False

True

Which of the following acronyms refers to a client authentication method used in WPA2 Personal mode?
AES
RC4
IKE
PSK
SAE

PSK

Which of the following would be the best solution for securing a small network lacking an authentication server?
WPA-PSK
WPA2-Enterprise
WPA2-PSK
WPA-Enterprise

WPA2-PSK

What are the characteristic features of WPA/WPA2 Enterprise mode? (Select 2 answers)
Suitable for large corporate networks
Does not require an authentication server
Suitable for all types of wireless LANs
Requires RADIUS authentication server

Suitable for large corporate networks
Requires RADIUS authentication server

Which of the following answers refer to the 2G/3G mobile telecommunications standards? (Select 2 answers)
CDMA
NFC
CWDM
GSM
CSMA

CDMA
GSM

Long Term Evolution (LTE) is a wireless communications standard for mobile devices and wireless hotspots. LTE offers significant improvements in terms of speed when compared to the older generation of 3G cellular networks. LTE and its later revision LTE-Advanced (LTE-A) are often marketed as 4G standards.
True
False

True

The latest standard for mobile telecommunications is known as:
3G
4G
5G
6G

In Voice over Internet Protocol (VoIP) communication, the term “Jitter” refers to a voice data packet delay that adversely affects the quality of the transmission.
True
False

True

Simple Network Management Protocol (SNMP) is a UDP-based, application layer protocol used in network management systems to monitor network-attached devices. SNMP is typically integrated into most modern network infrastructure devices such as routers, bridges, switches, servers, printers, copiers, fax machines, and other network-attached devices. An SNMP-managed network consists of three key components: a managed device, a network-management software module that resides on a managed device (Agent), and a Network Management Station (NMS), which executes applications that monitor and control managed devices and collect SNMP information from Agents. The manager receives notifications (Traps and InformRequests) on UDP port 162, the SNMP Agent receives requests on UDP port 161.
True
False

True

An SNMP-compliant device includes a virtual database containing information about configuration and state of the device that can be queried by an SNMP management station. This type of data repository is referred to as:
MIB
DCS
NMS
SIEM

MIB

A systems administrator needs to improve WiFi performance in a densely populated office tower and use the latest standard. There is a mix of devices that use
2.4 GHz and 5 GHz. Which of the following should the systems administrator select to meet this requirement?
A. 802.11ac
B. 802.11ax
C. 802.11g
D. 802.11n

B. 802.11ax

Which of the following would be BEST to use to detect a MAC spoofing attack?
A. Internet Control Message Protocol
B. Reverse Address Resolution Protocol
C. Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol
D. Internet Message Access Protocol

B. Reverse Address Resolution Protocol

Wireless users are reporting intermittent internet connectivity. Connectivity is restored when the users disconnect and reconnect, utilizing the web authentication process each time. The network administrator can see the devices connected to the APs at all times. Which of the following steps will MOST likely determine the cause of the issue?
A. Verify the session time-out configuration on the captive portal settings
B. Check for encryption protocol mismatch on the client’s wireless settings
C. Confirm that a valid passphrase is being used during the web authentication
D. Investigate for a client’s disassociation caused by an evil twin AP

A. Verify the session time-out configuration on the captive portal settings

A technician receives feedback that some users are experiencing high amounts of jitter while using the wireless network. While troubleshooting the network, the technician uses the ping command with the IP address of the default gateway and verifies large variations in latency. The technician thinks the issue may be interference from other networks and non-802.11 devices. Which of the following tools should the technician use to troubleshoot the issue?
A. NetFlow analyzer
B. Bandwidth analyzer
C. Protocol analyzer
D. Spectrum analyzer

D. Spectrum analyzer

A spectrum analyzer is a tool that focuses on the physical layer, which will vary based on the type of analyzer. Although vendors make these analyzers for both audio and optical signals, in most cases spectrum analyzers are used to analyze wireless or radio frequency signals. Spectrum analyzers are primarily used to identify and measure the strength of radio signals that are present in the area. They can visually display these signals by frequency on
the device. These devices are used to locate sources of interference that may impact the operation of a wireless network.

Spectrum analizer jest od badania na gruncie fizycznym

A network administrator walks into a datacenter and notices an unknown person is following closely. The administrator stops and directs the person to the security desk. Which of the following attacks did the network administrator prevent?
A. Evil twin
B. Tailgating
C. Piggybacking
D. Shoulder surfing

B. Tailgating

A network is experiencing a number of CRC errors during normal network communication. At which of the following layers of the OSI model will the administrator
MOST likely start to troubleshoot?
A. Layer 1
B. Layer 2
C. Layer 3
D. Layer 4
E. Layer 5
F. Layer 6
G. Layer 7

B. Layer 2
Wbrew pozorom nie 1, bo to na poziomie 2 masz ramki danych

A client recently added 100 users who are using VMs. All users have since reported slow or unresponsive desktops. Reports show minimal network congestion, zero packet loss, and acceptable packet delay. Which of the following metrics will MOST accurately show the underlying performance issues? (Choose two.)
A. CPU usage
B. Memory
C. Temperature
D. Bandwidth
E. Latency
F. Jitter

A. CPU usage
B. Memory

def raczej nie, bo wszystko z siecia rzekomo było spoko

Client devices cannot enter a network, and the network administrator determines the DHCP scope is exhausted. The administrator wants to avoid creating a new
DHCP pool. Which of the following can the administrator perform to resolve the issue?
A. Install load balancers
B. Install more switches
C. Decrease the number of VLANs
D. Reduce the lease time

D. Reduce the lease time

C rzekomo nie ma sensu, ale w sumie nie wiem czemu. Ze wtedy pool sie nie zmieni albo bedzie jeszcze mniej dostępnych adresów? nie wiem…

An administrator is writing a script to periodically log the IPv6 and MAC addresses of all the devices on a network segment. Which of the following switch features will MOST likely be used to assist with this task?
A. Spanning Tree Protocol
B. Neighbor Discovery Protocol
C. Link Aggregation Control Protocol
D. Address Resolution Protocol

B. Neighbor Discovery Protocol

D odnosci sie do ipv4, a c…c chyba bardziej chodzi o zwiększanie połaczen miedzy routerami, hostami itp zeby szly rzeczy szybciej + jesli jeden kabel sie zepsuje, to kolejne dzialaja i nadal mamy połaczenie. Agregacja danych

Which of the following DNS records works as an alias to another record?
A. AAAA
B. CNAME
C. MX
D. SOA

B. CNAME

A i C to znasz, a w D chodzi o to, że to sa informacje administracyjne

A technician is installing a new fiber connection to a network device in a datacenter. The connection from the device to the switch also traverses a patch panel connection. The chain of connections is in the following order:
✑ Device
✑ LC/LC patch cable
✑ Patch panel
✑ Cross-connect fiber cable
✑ Patch panel
✑ LC/LC patch cable
✑ Switch
The connection is not working. The technician has changed both patch cables with known working patch cables. The device had been tested and was working properly before being installed. Which of the following is the MOST likely cause of the issue?
A. TX/RX is reversed
B. An incorrect cable was used
C. The device failed during installation
D. Attenuation is occurring

A. TX/RX is reversed

A technician is searching for a device that is connected to the network and has the device’s physical network address. Which of the following should the technician review on the switch to locate the device’s network port?
A. IP route table
B. VLAN tag
C. MAC table
D. QoS tag

C. MAC table

taaak, tu nie chodzi o te porty logiczne ze tak 443 czy 389, ale o karte sieciowa

Which of the following provides redundancy on a file server to ensure the server is still connected to a LAN even in the event of a port failure on a switch?
A. NIC teaming
B. Load balancer
C. RAID array
D. PDUs

A. NIC teaming

RAID array- nadmiarowa macierz niezależnych dysków - czyli jakiś sprytny sposob łaczenia dysków.
PDU to zasilacz i ten skrót jest okropnie bez sensu

An IT organization needs to optimize speeds for global content distribution and wants to reduce latency in high-density user locations. Which of the following technologies BEST meets the organization’s requirements?
A. Load balancing
B. Geofencing
C. Public cloud
D. Content delivery network
E. Infrastructure as a service

Kontrowersje wokół A i D.

D to siec serwerów globalnie rozlokowanych w taki sposób, żeby każdy miał opymalne zasoby dla siebie

D wydaje sie byc lepsze jednak, choc nie ma tego w objectivsach

A new cabling certification is being requested every time a network technician rebuilds one end of a Cat 6 (vendor-certified) cable to create a crossover connection that is used to connect switches. Which of the following would address this issue by allowing the use of the original cable?
A. CSMA/CD
B. LACP
C. PoE+
D. MDIX

D. MDIX

A company hired a technician to find all the devices connected within a network. Which of the following software tools would BEST assist the technician in completing this task?
A. IP scanner
B. Terminal emulator
C. NetFlow analyzer
D. Port scanner

A. IP scanner

Bo w sumie skaner portów to ci pokaze usługi na urzadzeniach, a netflow analyzer to takie gównko/ funkcjonalność do analizy ruchu już na switchach czy routerach

A technician is installing a high-density wireless network and wants to use an available frequency that supports the maximum number of channels to reduce interference. Which of the following standard 802.11 frequency ranges should the technician look for while reviewing WAP specifications?
A. 2.4GHz
B. 5GHz
C. 6GHz
D. 900MHz

B. 5GHz

ma chyba 24 kanały. Większa częstotliwość to i więcej kanałów, izi.

A technician is configuring a network switch to be used in a publicly accessible location. Which of the following should the technician configure on the switch to prevent unintended connections?
A. DHCP snooping
B. Geofencing
C. Port security
D. Secure SNMP

C. Port security

Geofencing to coś z logicznymi granicami do czegośtam

Which of the following is used to track and document various types of known vulnerabilities?
A. CVE
B. Penetration testing
C. Zero-day
D. SIEM
E. Least privilege

A. CVE

Commom vulnerabilities and exposures
B kusi, ale najwidoczej a to taka baza i lepsze to jest

The network administrator is informed that a user’s email password is frequently hacked by brute-force programs. Which of the following policies should the network administrator implements to BEST mitigate this issue? (Choose two.)
A. Captive portal
B. Two-factor authentication
C. Complex passwords
D. Geofencing
E. Role-based access
F. Explicit deny

B. Two-factor authentication
C. Complex passwords

A network engineer performs the following tasks to increase server bandwidth:
✑ Connects two network cables from the server to a switch stack
✑ Configure LACP on the switchports
Verifies the correct configurations on the switch interfaces

Which of the following needs to be configured on the server?
A. Load balancing
B. Multipathing
C. NIC teaming
D. Clustering

C. NIC teaming

A network technician is manually configuring the network settings for a new device and is told the network block is 192.168.0.0/20. Which of the following subnets should the technician use?
A. 255.255.128.0
B. 255.255.192.0
C. 255.255.240.0
D. 255.255.248.0

C. 255.255.240.0

128+64+32+16
128 192 224 240

A technician is installing a cable modem in a SOHO. Which of the following cable types will the technician MOST likely use to connect a modem to the ISP?
A. Coaxial
B. Single-mode fiber
C. Cat 6e
D. Multimode fiber

A. Coaxial

patrz, modem! key word

Which of the following is the physical topology for an Ethernet LAN?
A. Bus
B. Ring
C. Mesh
D. Star

D. Star

Describe what does north-south and east-west mean

n-s outside data center through data center into our network (like outside clients) and e-w inside (from server to server through i guess. (?)

What will be used a lot when you start debugging?

CPU utilization

A technician wants to deploy a new wireless network that comprises 30 WAPs installed throughout a three-story office building. All the APs will broadcast the same SSID for client access. Which of the following BEST describes this deployment?
A. Extended service set
B. Basic service set
C. Unified service set
D. Independent basic service set

A. Extended service set

A user tries to ping 192.168.1.100 from the command prompt on the 192.168.2.101 network but gets the following response: U.U.U.U. Which of the following needs to be configured for these networks to reach each other?
A. Network address translation
B. Default gateway
C. Loopback
D. Routing protocol

B. Default gateway

A technician is deploying a new switch model and would like to add it to the existing network monitoring software. The technician wants to know what metrics can be gathered from a given switch. Which of the following should the technician utilize for the switch?
A. MIB
B. Trap
C. Syslog
D. Audit log

A. MIB

MIB (Management Information Base) A data set that defines the criteria
that can be retrieved and set on a device using SNMP.

A network device is configured to send critical events to a syslog server; however, the following alerts are not being received:
Severity 5 LINK-UPDOWN: Interface 1/1, changed state to down
Severity 5 LINK-UPDOWN: Interface 1/3, changed state to down
Which of the following describes the reason why the events are not being received?
A. The network device is not configured to log that level to the syslog server
B. The network device was down and could not send the event
C. The syslog server is not compatible with the network device
D. The syslog server did not have the correct MIB loaded to receive the message

A. The network device is not configured to log that level to the syslog server

A network administrator is designing a new datacenter in a different region that will need to communicate to the old datacenter with a secure connection. Which of the following access methods would provide the BEST security for this new datacenter?
A. Virtual network computing
B. Secure Socket Shell
C. In-band connection
D. Site-to-site VPN

D. Site-to-site VPN

In which layer does FHRP work?

Layer 3

provides a failover mechanism for the default gateway (layer 3- ip adresess)

In which layer does LACP work?

Layer 2 or layer 1, tbh no idea

linking ports on switches into one logical one

Which port does DNS use?
123
53
514
3389

Which port does MySQL use?
53
993
3306
5060

3306

Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) port(s)?
67/68
443/445
123
993/995

67/68

Which of the following devices would be used to manage a corporate WLAN?
A. A wireless NAS
B. A wireless bridge
C. A wireless router
D. A wireless controller

D. A wireless controller

Which of the following types of devices can provide content filtering and threat protection, and manage multiple IPSec site-to-site connections?
A. Layer 3 switch
B. VPN headend
C. Next-generation firewall
D. Proxy server
E. Intrusion prevention

C. Next-generation firewall

An engineer notices some late collisions on a half-duplex link. The engineer verifies that the devices on both ends of the connection are configured for half duplex.
Which of the following is the MOST likely cause of this issue?
A. The link is improperly terminated
B. One of the devices is misconfigured
C. The cable length is excessive
D. One of the devices has a hardware issue

C. The cable length is excessive

A network administrator is configuring a load balancer for two systems. Which of the following must the administrator configure to ensure connectivity during a failover?
A. VIP
B. NAT
C. APIPA
D. IPv6 tunneling
E. Broadcast IP

A. VIP

A technician is troubleshooting a wireless connectivity issue in a small office located in a high-rise building. Several APs are mounted in this office. The users report that the network connections frequently disconnect and reconnect throughout the day. Which of the following is the MOST likely cause of this issue?
A. The AP association time is set too low
B. EIRP needs to be boosted
C. Channel overlap is occurring
D. The RSSI is misreported

B. EIRP needs to be boosted

Moc nadajnika. nie A, bo nie musieli się logować za każdym razem

An engineer is configuring redundant network links between switches. Which of the following should the engineer enable to prevent network stability issues?
A. 802.1Q
B. STP
C. Flow control
D. CSMA/CD

B. STP

C. Flow control - ustalenie wspólnych szybkości, żeby szybszy nie przytłoczył wolniejszego odbierającego

A. 802.1Q - standard Ethernetowy

Czy jak kanały wifi sa 1 2 to będzie problem?

Ta, overlapping

Which of the following routing protocols is used to exchange route information between public autonomous systems?
A. OSPF
B. BGP
C. EIGRP
D. RIP

B. BGP

BGP (Border Gateway Protocol) A path vector
routing protocol used by ISPs to establish
routing between one another. BGP depends on the concept of Autonomous Systems (ASes).

A fiber link connecting two campus networks is broken. Which of the following tools should an engineer use to detect the exact break point of the fiber link?
A. OTDR
B. Tone generator
C. Fusion splicer
D. Cable tester
E. PoE injector

A. OTDR

Which of the following can be used to centrally manage credentials for various types of administrative privileges on configured network devices?
A. SSO
B. TACACS+
C. Zero Trust
D. Separation of duties
E. Multifactor authentication

B. TACACS+

Terminal Access Controller Access Control System (TACACS+) is often used in authenticating administrative access to routers and switches

Which of the following transceiver types can support up to 40Gbps?
A. SFP+
B. QSFP+
C. QSFP
D. SFP

B. QSFP+

SFP =
SFP+ =
QSFP = 4xSFP =
QSFP+ = 4xSFP = 40 Gbps

1Gbps
10 Gbps
4 Gbps
40 Gbps

Which of the following TCP ports is used by the Windows OS for file sharing?
A. 53
B. 389
C. 445
D. 1433

C. 445

53 DNS
389 LDAP
445 SMB
1433 SQL

Which of the following connector types would have the MOST flexibility?
A. SFP
B. BNC
C. LC
D. RJ45

A. SFP

SFP is a transceiver that allows for modular connection based on whatever is needed.
Example=Converting RJ45 to SC (copper to fiber), vice versa or some other combination needed.

Coaxial cable type may have either: xxx;
UTP or STP cable types may have: yyy connectors;
Fiber Optic cable types may have: zzz connectors;

SFP is a transceiver type, a removable module that enables connectivity between a device and a cable.

xxx = BNC or F-Type connectors
yyy = RJ-11 or RJ-45 (8P8C)
zzz = LC, ST, SC, MT-RJ

Which of the following ports is commonly used by VoIP phones?
A. 20
B. 143
C. 445
D. 5060

D. 5060

A network technician needs to ensure outside users are unable to telnet into any of the servers at the datacenter. Which of the following ports should be blocked when checking firewall configuration?
A. 22
B. 23
C. 80
D. 3389
E. 8080

B. 23

A technician is writing documentation regarding a company’s server farm. The technician needs to confirm the server name for all Linux servers. Which of the following commands should the technician run?
A. ipconfig
B. nslookup
C. arp
D. route

B. nslookup

A technician is connecting multiple switches to create a large network for a new office. The switches are unmanaged Layer 2 switches with multiple connections between each pair. The network is experiencing an extreme amount of latency. Which of the following is MOST likely occurring?
A. Ethernet collisions
B. A DDoS attack
C. A broadcast storm
D. Routing loops

C. A broadcast storm

anomalia powstająca w sieciach komputerowych, najczęściej w wyniku utworzenia połączenia nadmiarowego lub pętli. Jej skutkiem jest bezustanne krążenie ramek rozgłoszeniowych, które powoduje bardzo duże obciążenie mediów transmisyjnych i urządzeń sieciowych.

Which of the following would need to be configured to ensure a device with a specific MAC address is always assigned the same IP address from DHCP?
A. Scope options
B. Reservation
C. Dynamic assignment
D. Exclusion
E. Static assignment

B. Reservation

Być może dlatego, że chodzi o to, że zawsze jak poprosi to dostanie to samo ip, a nie E, bo nie chodzi o to, żeby miało raz przypisane to statycznie

Access to a datacenter should be individually recorded by a card reader even when multiple employees enter the facility at the same time. Which of the following allows the enforcement of this policy?
A. Motion detection
B. Access control vestibules
C. Smart lockers
D. Cameras

B. Access control vestibules

tzw mantrap, czyli, że zeby gdzies wejść trzeba użyć karty dwa razy (korytarz - karta - mantrap - karta - tam gdzie chcesz się dostać)
ja nie jestem pewien czemu nie a

A workstation is configured with the following network details:
adres hosta 10.1.2.23
Subnet mask 10.1.2.0/27
Default gateway 10.1.2.1
Software on the workstation needs to send a query to the local subnet broadcast address. To which of the following addresses should the software be configured to send the query?
A. 10.1.2.0
B. 10.1.2.1
C. 10.1.2.23
D. 10.1.2.255
E. 10.1.2.31

E. 10.1.2.31

CIDR 27 is 1111 1111.1111 1111.1111 1111.1110 0000
2^5 = 32 hosts per subnet
1st address is network address, last address is broadcast address
The user address is 10.1.2.23 which means he reside in the network of 10.1.2.0 to 10.1.2.31
10.1.2.31 is the last address in that network thus the broadcast address

After the A record of a public website was updated, some visitors were unable to access the website. Which of the following should be adjusted to address the issue?
A. TTL
B. MX
C. TXT
D. SOA

TTL

When a client gets a DNS reply from a query, it will store it locally (cached) for a period
of time to reduce the number of lookups on the DNS servers. In each DNS reply there is a
field called TTL, or time to live. This instructs the client how long to store the replay before
requesting again. This allows us to reduce the network workload and keep the DNS data
fresh on the client. All devices use a cache system that stores the requests locally for a period
of time and the time to live (TTL) value tells the client how long that should be.

A technician is installing multiple UPS units in a major retail store. The technician is required to keep track of all changes to new and old equipment. Which of the following will allow the technician to record these changes?
A. Asset tags
B. A smart locker
C. An access control vestibule
D. A camera

A. Asset tags

Which of the following attacks encrypts user data and requires a proper backup implementation to recover?
A. DDoS
B. Phishing
C. Ransomware
D. MAC spoofing

C. Ransomware

ransom- okup

A network administrator wants to analyze attacks directed toward the company’s network. Which of the following must the network administrator implement to assist in this goal?
A. A honeypot
B. Network segmentation
C. Antivirus
D. A screened subnet

A. A honeypot

A network administrator is configuring a database server and would like to ensure the database engine is listening on a certain port. Which of the following commands should the administrator use to accomplish this goal?
A. nslookup
B. netstat -a
C. ipconfig /a
D. arp -a

B. netstat -a

A technician is implementing a new wireless network to serve guests at a local office. The network needs to provide Internet access but disallow associated stations from communicating with each other. Which of the following would BEST accomplish this requirement?
A. Wireless client isolation
B. Port security
C. Device geofencing
D. DHCP snooping

A. Wireless client isolation

Wireless Client Isolation is a security feature that prevents wireless clients from communicating with one another. This feature is useful for guest and BYOD SSIDs adding a level of security to limit attacks and threats between devices connected to the wireless networks.

A company requires a disaster recovery site to have equipment ready to go in the event of a disaster at its main datacenter. The company does not have the budget to mirror all the live data to the disaster recovery site. Which of the following concepts should the company select?
A. Cold site
B. Hot site
C. Warm site
D. Cloud site

C. Warm site

An IT technician suspects a break in one of the uplinks that provides connectivity to the core switch. Which of the following command-line tools should the technician use to determine where the incident is occurring?
A. nslookup
B. show config
C. netstat
D. show interface
E. show counters

D. show interface

To polecenie leci po urządzeniach, daje info o portach

nie mam pojęcia, czym jest show counter

nslookup raczej jest bardziej do dns
netstat pokazuje aktywne sesje tcp/udp

Two remote offices need to be connected securely over an untrustworthy MAN. Each office needs to access network shares at the other site. Which of the following will BEST provide this functionality?
A. Client-to-site VPN
B. Third-party VPN service
C. Site-to-site VPN
D. Split-tunnel VPN

C. Site-to-site VPN

A network requirement calls for segmenting departments into different networks. The campus network is set up with users of each department in multiple buildings. Which of the following should be configured to keep the design simple and efficient?
A. MDIX
B. Jumbo frames
C. Port tagging
D. Flow control

C. Port tagging

a znasz reszte?

Which of the following is MOST commonly used to address CVEs on network equipment and/or operating systems?
A. Vulnerability assessment
B. Factory reset
C. Firmware update
D. Screened subnet

C. Firmware update

A to jest bardziej taki przegląd nowych podatności w systemach
firmware to coś między software a hardware- oprogramowanie sprzętowe. jeśli je bedziemy aktualizować, to beda nakładane łatki bezpieczeństwa i jest gitówa

A network technician is investigating an issue with handheld devices in a warehouse. Devices have not been connecting to the nearest APs, but they have been connecting to an AP on the far side of the warehouse. Which of the following is the MOST likely cause of this issue?
A. The nearest APs are configured for 802.11g.
B. An incorrect channel assignment is on the nearest APs.
C. The power level is too high for the AP on the far side. Most Voted
D. Interference exists around the AP on the far side.

Wszyscy są za C
Ale rzekomo poprawna jest A
nie wiem, jest opinia, że skoro 11g działa na 2,4GHz to sygnał będzie lecieć dalej i stąd sie to wzieło, ale jednak C brzmi w opór logicznie

A business is using the local cable company to provide Internet access. Which of the following types of cabling will the cable company MOST likely use from the demarcation point back to the central office?
A. Multimode
B. Cat 5e
C. RG-6
D. Cat 6
E. 100BASE-T

C. RG-6

Which of the following would be used to expedite MX record updates to authoritative NSs?
A. UDP forwarding
B. DNS caching
C. Recursive lookup
D. Time to live

D. Time to live

A client moving into a new office wants the IP network set up to accommodate 412 network-connected devices that are all on the same subnet. The subnet needs to be as small as possible. Which of the following subnet masks should be used to achieve the required result?
A. 255.255.0.0
B. 255.255.252.0
C. 255.255.254.0
D. 255.255.255.0

C. 255.255.254.0
masz tu 9 jedynek, czyli 2^9-2 daje nam 510, a D dałoby nam za mało, więc tu jest gites

A company is being acquired by a large corporation. As part of the acquisition process, the company’s address should now redirect clients to the corporate organization page. Which of the following DNS records needs to be created?
A. SOA
B. NS
C. CNAME
D. TXT

C. CNAME

wiec co robi reszta?

A network technician is configuring a new firewall for a company with the necessary access requirements to be allowed through the firewall. Which of the following would normally be applied as the LAST rule in the firewall?
A. Secure SNMP
B. Port security
C. Implicit deny
D. DHCP snooping
opisz to tez własnymi słowami

C. Implicit deny
Enforce firewall rules: Firewall rules are used to dictate what traffic can pass between the firewall and the internal network. Three possible actions can be taken based on the rule’s criteria: block the connection (explicit deny), accept the connection, or allow the connection if conditions are met (such as it being secured). It is this last condition that is the most difficult to configure, and conditions usually end with an implicit deny clause. An implicit deny clause means that if the proviso in question has not been explicitly granted, access is denied.

A technician wants to install a WAP in the center of a room that provides service in a radius surrounding a radio. Which of the following antenna types should the
AP utilize?
A. Omni
B. Directional
C. Yagi
D. Parabolic

For indoor use, you are more likely to use omnidirectional

The following instructions were published about the proper network configuration for a videoconferencing device:
“Configure a valid static RFC1918 address for your network. Check the option to use a connection over NAT.”
Which of the following is a valid IP address configuration for the device?
A. FE80::1
B. 100.64.0.1
C. 169.254.1.2
D. 172.19.0.2
E. 224.0.0.12

The answer is D. RFC 1918 is a private IP address. D is the only private address
Private addresses:
10.0.0.0 to 10.255.255.255 (Class A private address range).
172.16.0.0 to 172.31.255.255 (Class B private address range).
192.168.0.0 to 192.168.255.255 (Class C private address range).

A network administrator needs to implement an HDMI over IP solution. Which of the following will the network administrator MOST likely use to ensure smooth video delivery?
A. Link aggregation control
B. Port tagging
C. Jumbo frames
D. Media access control

C. Jumbo frames

Czyli wysyłamy dużo, co by łądnie to szło
port tagging polega na tym, że na ficzynym porcie w switchu puszczamy dalej tylko ruch otagowany

overhead of a packet?
A. Pakiet z dwoma nagłówkami
B. Medium transmicyjne jest potężniejsze niz ruch który przez to idzie i marnuje sie potencjał
C. inaczej po prostu header
D. pakiet wysyłany przed innym pakietem

A moze pamiętasz w jakim pytaniu na examtopics sie to pojawiło?

B. Medium transmicyjne jest potężniejsze niz ruch który przez to idzie i marnuje sie potencjał

pytanie z NAS, overhead i efficiency

A rogue AP was found plugged in and providing Internet access to employees in the break room. Which of the following would be BEST to use to stop this from happening without physically removing the WAP?
A. Password complexity
B. Port security
C. Wireless client isolation
D. Secure SNMP

B. Port security

jakieś wprowadzenie chociażby potrzeby uwierzytelniania się różnych urządzeń do sieci czy zabezpieczenie wpinania się do switchów przez nieautoryzowane osoby

A company’s network is set up so all Internet-bound traffic from all remote offices exits through a main datacenter. Which of the following network topologies would
BEST describe this setup?
A. Bus
B. Spine-and-leaf
C. Hub-and-spoke
D. Mesh

C. Hub-and-spoke

To jest inna nazwa na topologię gwiazdy

A systems administrator is configuring a firewall using NAT with PAT. Which of the following would be BEST suited for the LAN interface?
A. 172.15.0.0/18
B. 172.18.0.0/10
C. 172.23.0.0/16
D. 172.28.0.0/8
E. 172.32.0.0/14

C. 172.23.0.0/16

Wiesz czym jest pat?

-(port address translation)

Which of the following policies should be referenced when a user wants to access work email on a personal cell phone?
A. Offboarding policy
B. Acceptable use policy
C. BYOD policy
D. Remote access policy

C. BYOD policy

After a firewall replacement, some alarms and metrics related to network availability stopped updating on a monitoring system relying on SNMP. Which of the following should the network administrator do FIRST?
A. Modify the device’s MIB on the monitoring system.
B. Configure syslog to send events to the monitoring system.
C. Use port mirroring to redirect traffic to the monitoring system.
D. Deploy SMB to transfer data to the monitoring system.

A. Modify the device’s MIB on the monitoring system.

A czemu nie B cwaniaku?

At the destination host, which of the following OSI model layers will discard a segment with a bad checksum in the UDP header?
A. Network
B. Data link
C. Transport
D. Session

C. Transport

W tej warstwie działa udp

A voice engineer is troubleshooting a phone issue. When a call is placed, the caller hears echoes of the receiver’s voice. Which of the following are the causes of this issue? (Choose two.)
A. Jitter
B. Speed mismatch
C. QoS misconfiguration
D. Protocol mismatch
E. CRC errors
F. Encapsulation errors

Jitter and Latency. Latency can be fixed with QoS.

A network switch was installed to provide connectivity to cameras monitoring wildlife in a remote location. The organization is concerned that intruders could potentially leverage unattended equipment in the remote location to connect rogue devices and gain access to the organization’s resources. Which of the following techniques would BEST address the concern?
A. Configure port security using MAC filtering.
B. Manually register the cameras on the switch address table.
C. Activate PoE+ on the active switchports.
D. Disable Neighbor Discovery Protocol on the switch.

A. Configure port security using MAC filtering.

A technician is documenting an application that is installed on a server and needs to verify all existing web and database connections to the server. Which of the following tools should the technician use to accomplish this task?
A. tracert
B. ipconfig
C. netstat
D. nslookup

C. netstat

A technician is assisting a user who cannot access network resources when the workstation is connected to a VoIP phone. The technician identifies the phone as faulty and replaces it. According to troubleshooting methodology, which of the following should the technician do NEXT?
A. Implement the solution.
B. Test the theory.
C. Duplicate the issue.
D. Document the findings.
E. Verify functionality.

E. Verify functionality.

A small office is running WiFi 4 APs, and neighboring offices do not want to increase the throughput to associated devices. Which of the following is the MOST cost-efficient way for the office to increase network performance?
A. Add another AP.
B. Disable the 2.4GHz radios.
C. Enable channel bonding.
D. Upgrade to WiFi 5.

C. Enable channel bonding.

zainteresuj sie na nowo wifi

Channel bonding combines multiple channels—or lanes—to increase the amount of traffic that a modem’s highway can comfortably support

Jakiego rodzaju atakiem jest deuthentication?

Denial of service oczywiście

Róźnica między tailgaiting a piggybacking

przy piggybacking osoba wpuszczana jawnie wchodzi za kimś “trzymaj mi drzwi, niosę paczkę pączków”

Od której wersji snmp dane są szyfrowane?
1
2
3
4

Jakie dwie wiadomości są wysyłane gdy chcemy poznać ipv6 routera i jakie mogą być z tym problemy, jak sie przed tym zabezpieczyć?

router solicitation (leci po rozgłoszeniowym ipv6)
router advertisement (router wysyła swój adres ip)
problem z on-path attacks
switche mogą potwierdzać (validate) RA messages

Przed czym zabezpiecza port security?

przed wpięciem się fizycznie na chama do switcha swoim urządzeniem.

Na przykład ustalamy cos z adresami mac

Czy każdy port ma ustawienia jakieś skonfigurowane i jeśli ktoś sie wepnie z innymi ustawieniami to nara typie

Na czym polega DAI (dynamic arp inspection) i przed czym chroni?

Robi mape znanych hostów (za pomocą dhcp snooping) i potem switche sprawdzaja i jesli im sie ip i mac nie zgadzaja to po prostu porzucaja pakiety

ochrona przed arp poisoning

Czym jest i na czym polega ochrona control plane policing?

Gówienko odpowiedzialne za procesy w urządzeniu
uwaga dos na to czy rekonesancie
mozna walnąc firewalla nawet, a co
Można zrobić QoS
jeśli po switchu beda szły tylko połączenia ssh to pozwól tylko na port 22
rate limit - zeby za duzo przez to nie leciało pakietów i było ciągle dostępne - DoS

Port isolation?

niby jestes w sieci, ale nie możesz sie połączyć czy zobaczyć inne urządzenia
hotele, mieszkania w blokach

Po co warto zamykać wszystkie nieużywane porty?

potencjalne niebezpieczeństwo

Czy warto zmieniać domyślne username i password?

Tak! Oba! hasło to wiadomo, ale username pewnie tez zawsze jakieś małe zabezpieczenie

dhcp snooping- co to i po co?

ip tracking on laver 2 devices- ze switcha nagle robi się dhcp firewall i puszcza tylko zaufane! robią się tabele mac i ip i jeśli cos nie pasuje, to nara

dead-ends vlans- co to na co to?

polega to na tym, że ktoś sie nam wbije do sieci tak fizycznie, ale patrzy, a tu dead-end, ludzie, tu nikogo nie ma!

dead-ends vlans- co to na co to?

polega to na tym, że ktoś sie nam wbije do sieci tak fizycznie, ale patrzy, a tu dead-end, ludzie, tu nikogo nie ma!

Access control lists (ACLs)

Makes traffic decisions based on tuples- czyli na podstawie adresu mac, ip source albo destination, port, time of day, app itp

sposoby zabezpieczania sieci bezprzewodowych:

mac filtering (problem z tym, że łatwo znaleźć adresy mac, które są już w sieci i można wtedy sie pod nich podszywać)
To, gdzie i jak stawiasz anteny, co by sygnał nie wychodził poza budynek oraz co by kanały na siebie nie nachodziły (w 2,4ghz tylko kanały 1 6 11 nie nachodza)
wireless isolation- troche jak port isolation- masz internet, ale nie możesz zobaczyć innych hostów w sieci. Można to rozdzielić, że na przykład pracownicy biura widza inne hosty, ale goście już nie

wpa/2/3-personal/psk (to to samo)- opisz
(…)-Enterprise/802.1X - opisz

psk - każdy ma taki sam klucz (czesto 256 bitów) i sie nim uwierzytelnia do sieci
802.1x już raczej jakiś radius na przykład

EAP (extensible authentication protocol)- gdzie sie używa i na czym to polega

Często się uzywa w wpa2/3 i jest tam 5 rodzajów uwierzytelnienia sie do wyboru
integruje sie czasem z 802.1x

Geofencing- do czego słuzy

Sprawdzamy lokalizacje gościa i na jej podstawie pozwalamy na ficzery lub nie (kamera na przykład w muzeum), można połączyc z uwierzytelnianiem

bezpieczeństwo gówienek iot

izolacja - iot nie z ważnymi rzeczami do 1 sieci. Zrób im chociaz vlan (guest network)

Do czego może służyc HTML5?

Szyfrowanie w web, tworzenie tuneli vpn bez klienta, wystarczy przeglądarka zgodna z html5

full tunnel a split tunnel

full- masz vpn i chcesz sie połączyc z internetem, to i tak wszystko pójdzie tunelem i dopiero potem może isc do internetu
split rozpoznaje, czy chcesz isc do neta, czy sie łączyć z siecią firmową i nie pcha wszystko na korpo

VNC (virtual network computing)
Remote frame buffer (rfb)
Co wiesz?

Dla różnych OSów
taki rdp dla innych os (ten rfb)

po co jest remote desktop gateway?

Głównie uwierzytelnianie, kontrola

video surveillance- czyli kamery. Skróty, co i jak, po co, zalety czy wady

CCTV (closed circuit television) - closed!
Object detection
Motion detection

asset tracking tags- co to

To są przylepki z informacjami i właścicielem

podaj przykład smart lockera

paczkomat

Control Plane Policing (CoPP) is a Cisco-proprietary security feature designed to protect routers and switches against reconnaissance and Denial-of-Service (DoS) attacks.
True
False

True

Which of the following answers refers to a dedicated security mechanism that prevents ARP attacks?
SIEM
DAI
UTM
NGFW

DAI

An IPv6 protocol used by routers to advertise their presence on a network is called:
NDR
NCP
NDP
NTP

NDP

Which of the following answers refers to a protocol used by routers, hosts, and network devices to generate error messages and troubleshoot problems with delivery of IP packets?
CCMP
RSTP
ICMP
SNMP

ICMP

A range of IP addresses that a DHCP server can lease out to DHCP clients is known as:
Lease
Reservation
Scope
DHCP relay

Scope

One of the features of the Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) is the capability for static allocation of an IP address based on the IP-to-MAC address mapping.
True
False

True

Which of the following answers refers to a device designed to supply (and monitor the quality of) electric power to multiple outlets?
PSU
MDF
PDU
IDF

PDU

Which of the following backup facilities does not require physical infrastructure?
Cold site
Warm site
Hot site
Cloud site

Cloud site

Which alternate site is the least expensive to implement?
Cold site
Warm site
Hot site
Cloud site

Cloud site

In active-active configuration, network traffic is distributed across:
Least utilized network infrastructure devices
None of the network infrastructure devices
All designated network infrastructure devices
Most utilized network infrastructure devices

All designated network infrastructure devices

In active-passive configuration, network traffic is distributed across:
All network infrastructure devices
Network infrastructure devices marked as active
Least utilized network infrastructure devices
Network infrastructure devices marked as passive

Network infrastructure devices marked as active

Which of the following networking protocols provide(s) redundancy? (Select all that apply)
DSCP
VRRP
IS-IS
FHRP
EIGRP

VRRP
FHRP

Which of the protocols listed below enable(s) designating a backup router in the event of an active router failure? (Select all that apply)
DSCP
VRRP
IS-IS
HSRP
EIGRP

VRRP
HSRP

Which of the following terms is used to describe an average time required to repair a failed component or device?
MTBF
RPO
MTTR
SLA

MTTR

High MTBF value indicates that a component or system provides low reliability and is more likely to fail.
True
False

False

MTBF – średni czas, w którym element konfiguracji lub usługa informatyczna działają bez przerw, spełniając zakładane funkcje lub poziom usługi. MTBF jest stosowany m.in. w informatyce oraz zarządzaniu. Dla produktów współczynnik MTBF oparty jest na badaniach lub przewidywaniach.

Which of the acronyms listed below refers to a maximum tolerable period of time required for restoring business functions after a failure or disaster?
SLA
RTO
AUP
RPO

RTO
Recovery time objective

In Business Continuity Planning (BCP), the maximum tolerable point in time to which systems and data must be recovered after an outage is called:
RPO
MTBF
RTO
MTTR

RPO

Which of the following terms refer to the concept of confidentiality? (Select 3 answers)
Fault tolerance
Encryption
Non-repudiation
Access control methods
Steganography
Redundancy
Patch management
Hashing
Load balancing

Encryption
Steganography
Access control methods

Which of the following terms refer(s) to the concept of integrity? (Select all that apply)
Steganography
Hashing
Digital signatures
Encryption
Digital certificates
Redundancy
Non-repudiation
Access control methods
Fault tolerance

Hashing
Digital signatures
Digital certificates
Non-repudiation

Which of the following statements does not match a typical description of nation states or state-funded groups identified as threat actors?
Political or economic motivation
High level of technical sophistication
Advanced Persistent Threat (APT)
High level of resources/funding
Typically classified as an internal threat

Typically classified as an internal threat

Which of the following violates the principle of least privilege?
Onboarding process
Improperly configured accounts
Shared accounts for privileged users
Time-of-day restrictions

Improperly configured accounts

Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Wszystko Do Jednego Kotla Flashcards

Brainscape's Knowledge Genome^TM