Wrongs Flashcards

1
Q

PONV ppx to give for pt with ONE PONV risk factor

A

glucocorticoid AND 5HT3 antagonist combo

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2
Q

neonate with persistent cyanosis and HR < 100 requires…

A

After warming, drying, stimulation—> supplemental oxygen, suction, open airway–> if pt apneic or HR still < 100 bpm, POSITIVE PRESSURE VENTILATION / ETT if needed (target preductal oxygen saturation (pulse oximeter is placed on the right upper extremity) of 60-65% by 1 minute of life and 85-95% by 10 minutes of life–> if HR < 60 bpm, start chest compressions (3 compressions to every 1 breath). After positive pressure ventilation, intubation, and chest compressions, if the neonate fails to improve, can try epi

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3
Q

Retrograde cardioplegia

A
  • Delivery of cardioplegia solution into the cardiac veins via the coronary sinus
  • Offers superior myocardial protection in the setting of severe obstructive coronary artery disease (CAD), aortic insufficiency (AI), or surgeries involving significant manipulation of aortic valve or coronary ostia
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4
Q

blood:gas partition coefficient

A

-ratio of gas dissolved in the blood and the alveoli at equilibrium (how the gas will partition between the blood and the alveoli after equilibrium has been reached)

-A larger coefficient = higher solubility in blood= slower onset of action because more anesthetic must be dissolved before it equilibrates with tissue of final action, the central nervous system

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5
Q

What is responsible for phase 2 of the cardiac action potential?

A

Phase 2= plateau phase

Calcium influx into the cardiac myocyte via slow L-type calcium channels

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6
Q

main mechanism of beta-blockers in reducing mortality in patients with heart failure

A

interupts signaling at myocardial beta1-adrenergic receptors, which prevents metabolic catecholamine cardiotoxicity

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7
Q

Medical direction vs. medical supervision

A

For medical direction, the physician must:

  • perform a preanesthetic examination and evaluation;
  • prescribe the anesthetic plan;
  • personally participate in the most demanding procedures in the anesthesia plan, including, if applicable, induction and emergence;
  • ensure that any procedures in the anesthesia plan that he or she does not perform are performed by a qualified individual;
  • monitor the course of anesthesia administration at frequent intervals;
  • remain physically present and available for immediate diagnosis and treatment of emergencies; and
  • provide indicated post-anesthesia care
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8
Q

Jugular bulb venous oxygen saturation monitoring (SjVO2)

A
  • assesses the degree of cerebral oxygen extraction by measuring the mixed venous oxygen saturation in the jugular venous bulb
  • represents the balance between global cerebral oxygen supply and demand
  • The supply is determined by cerebral blood flow (CBF), arterial oxygen content (CaO2), and hemoglobin concentration (Hgb). The demand is determined by the cerebral metabolic rate (CMRO2).
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9
Q

mortality in phosgene exposure is related to

A

degree of pulmonary damage

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10
Q

Compared to on-request intravenous opioid (given by nurses), IV opioid PCA has overall HIGHER…

A
  • higher opioid consumption
  • higher rates of pruritus
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11
Q

For healthy pediatric patients >6 months undergoing elective surgery, current perioperative fluid management guidelines recommend

A

a bolus of 20 to 40 mL/kg of isotonic solution administered over 2 to 4 hours

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12
Q

Glucose-containing solutions are indicated for which pediatric populations?

A

at risk of perioperative hypoglycemia: infants less than 6 months old, malnourished children, children undergoing cardiac surgery

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13
Q

How do diuretics improve symptoms of CHF?

A

by reducing cardiac filling pressures along the SAME ventricular function curve (decreased EDV w/ same CO). They do not directly improve inotropy or stroke volume.

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14
Q

methemoglobinemia rx

A

Methylene blue (1-2 mg/kg)

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15
Q

treatment for methemoglobinemia in setting of G6PD- deficiency

A

vitamin C

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16
Q

Common acquired causes of methemoglobinemia

A

prilocaine, benzocaine, metoclopramide, nitrites (nitric oxide and nitroglycerin), aniline dyes, benzene, chloroquine, dapsone, and sulfonamides

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17
Q

Congenital methemoglobinemia

A
  • deficiency in MetHgb reductase

OR

-deficiency in NADPH production (G6PD deficiency)

18
Q

Biotransformation in liver turns drugs into…

A
  • polar
  • hydrophilic
  • inactive metabolites
19
Q

how to block recurrent laryngeal nerve

A

transtracheal injection of local anesthetic

20
Q

The efferent branch of the laryngospasm reflex is mediated by

A

the recurrent laryngeal nerve (RLN) and the external branch of the superior laryngeal nerve (SLN)

21
Q

the recurrent laryngeal nerve innervates

A
  • lateral cricoarytenoid
    -transverse arytenoid
22
Q

the external branch of the SLN innervates

A

the cricothyroid muscles

23
Q

neuromuscular blocking drugs with an active metabolite that is nearly as potent as its parent drug

A

vec
(Vecuronium has three active metabolites, 3-desacetyl-, 17-desacetyl-, and 3,17-desacetyl vecuronium. Among these, the 3-desacetyl metabolite is the most important since it has nearly 80% of the activity of vecuronium. It can accumulate in the setting of vecuronium infusions, particularly in patients with renal disease since this metabolite is renally cleared)

24
Q

nerve at risk of injury during PDA repair

A

recurrent laryngeal nerve (branch of vagus)

25
Q

effect of inhaled beta agonists on potassium levels

A

decreases potassium levels by inward shift of potassium into the cells

26
Q

what should be avoided in hypokalemic AND hyperkalemic periodic paralysis

A

hypothermia

27
Q

What is methemaglobinemia

A
  • altered state of hemoglobin where the ferrous (Fe2+) form of heme is oxidized to the ferric form (Fe3+)
  • Cyanosis develops bc the methemoglobin is unable to bind new O2 & is unable to release stored O2–> leftward shift of the hemoglobin-oxygen dissociation curve.
  • Generally, PaO2 levels will remain normal
  • Two-wave pulse oximetry is unable to properly determine SpO2 level and inappropriately and will read 85-88%
28
Q

methemaglobinemia rx

A
  • methylene blue (oxidizes Fe3+–> Fe2+)
  • methemoglobinemia caused by G6PD def is treated w/ vit C
29
Q

acquired causes of methemoglobinemia

A

benzocaine (not dose dependent), prilocaine, nitroglycerin, nitric oxide, metoclopramide, aniline dyes, chloroquine, dapsone, sulfonamides

30
Q

Cyanide toxicity rx

A
  • Hydroxocobalamin (B12)
  • sodium thiosulfate
31
Q

Cyanide toxicity can be caused by

A

high-dose prolonged nitroprusside exposure

32
Q

top 2 most common side effects of zofran

A
  • QTc prolongation
  • HEADACHE
33
Q

effect of chronic opioid therapy on hormone levels

A
  • INCREASED prolactin
    -decreased cortisol, testosterone, estrogen, LH, FSH
34
Q

Recovery of orbicularis oculi correlates with recovery of _______ muscle, while the corrugator supercilii correlates well with _____

A

orbicularis oculi (closes eyelids)– adductor pollicis
corrugator supercili (frowning)– laryngeal muscles

35
Q

normal JVP CVP waveform

A

ACxVy

A is tallest, then c~v

ASKME corresponds to ACxVy (Atrial contraction, Systole, Klosure of tricuspid, Max atrial filling, Emtying of atrium)

36
Q

constrictive pericarditis CVP waveform

A

AxVy
C disappears
sharp/prominent y descent

37
Q

cardiac tamponade CVP waveform

A

ACxVy
slow/abscent y descent

38
Q

complete AV block CVP waveform

A

intermittent cannon A waves, caused by atrium contracting against closed tricuspid

39
Q

afib CVPD waveform

A

abscent a

40
Q

tricuspid stenosis CVP waveform

A

large, prominent A wave

41
Q

right ventricular hypertrophy CVP waveform

A

large, prominent A wave