Wrong Answer Box Flashcards
A wealthy client ($10 million) wants her two adult children to learn to manage money. Rather than yearly gifts, she gifted each of them $1 million to invest in 2016. Your instructions were to invest the money as they order. Neither has asked you for advice. Due to market downturns, withdrawals, and poor timing of speculative stocks, one of the two children has run his account down to $150,000. He tells you to send him the balance of the account because he has found a for-sure investment. What should you do or what should you have done in the past?
A. You should have never taken him on as a customer
В. You should call Mrs. Cain
C. You should have requested that at account inception that duplicate statements be mailed to Mrs. Cain
D. You should have had the children provide an investment policy statement at inception
E. You should send the son the remaining account balance
E. You should send the son the remaining account balance
Mrs. Cain is not the client. You must do as the son asks. That eliminates B and C.
Answer D doesn’t answer the question. In answer A, Mrs. Cain asked you to take her children on as clients. By sending the remaining balance you have terminated the relationship. (See CFP Standards)
Bob Hayes consults with you, a CFP® practitioner, on investments. He opens a joint account with his wife. Bob reviews the account on a periodic basis with you by telephone. Unexpectedly, he instructs you to break the joint account into two separate accounts. Bob and his wife have decided to separate. He informs you which stocks go into his account and then tells you to place the remainder in her account. You realize he is keeping the better performing stocks. What should you do?
A. Follow Bob’s advice
B. Consult Bob’s wife before doing anything
C. Consult your compliance department
D. Terminate the relationship
E. Tell Bob you need to meet with him and his wife before you can respond
E. Tell Bob you need to meet with him and his wife before you can respond
Due to the JTWROS account, BOTH Bob and his wife are your clients. There is a conflict of interest in Answer A.
Index funds are appropriate if an investor believes in which of the following?
A. Strong form of the EMH
B. Weak form of the EMH
C. Semi-strong form of the EMH
D. Modern portfolio theory
A. Strong form of the EMH
EMH advocates a passive investment strategy (like a Modern portfolio theory is the selecting of an optimal combination of assets so that the investor secures the highest return for a given level of risk (active).
An exchange traded fund is most similar to a(n)?
A. Closed-End Fund
B. Open-End Fund
C. UIT
D. No-load Balanced Mutual Fund
E. Mostly an open-end fund but could be a closed-end fund
E. Mostly an open-end fund but could be a closed-end fund
An ETF may be an open-end or closed- end fund. Most ETFs are traded on a major exchange. It is possible to find a secondary market for UlTs units among brokers and dealers.
When compared against traditional index mutual funds, ETFs have which of the following advantages?
I. ETFs can be bought on margin.
II. ETFs can be sold short.
III. ETFs can be bought or sold throughout the trading day.
IV. Trading orders can include stop-loss and limit orders.
All of the Above
The ability to trade at market pricing, margin, and/or sell short are advantages to ETFs that mutual funds do not provide.
Modern portfolio theory expresses a risk-return relationship based on which of the following?
A. Weighted beta
B. Correlated coefficient
C. Alpha
D. Capital Market Line
E. Security Market Line
D. Capital Market Line
This is the best answer based on the following. The CML specifies the relationship between the risk and return on a variably weighted market portfolio consisting of all risky assets. When you read the material on chapter 7 page 1, this sounds like the CML. However, it is a difficult question to answer.
What is the most important consideration relative to the Markowitz efficient frontier?
A. Return
B. Covariance
C. Risk
D. Correlation
C. Risk
Answers A, B, and D play a supporting role in determining the efficient frontier. But answer C is the most fundamental, distinguishing characteristic of the efficient frontier.
The Random Walk Hypothesis suggests which of the following:
A. That technical analysts can outperform the market.
B. That fundamental analysts can outperform the market.
C. That the next price change of a stock is unrelated to the last price.
D. That security pricing reflects all known information.
C. That the next price change of a stock is unrelated to the last price.
If prices move randomly, technical analysis is useless.
Weak form is related to, but not identical with, random walk; therefore, fundamental analysis could be an answer.
Answer C is the definition of random walk, and Answer D is the definition of EMH.
Which of the following statements is true about Dow Theory?
A. The theory considers EMH principles.
B. It presumes that the most important price movement is inter-day fluctuations.
C. It is a method that is presumed to identify the top of a bull market and the bottom of a bear market.
D. It presumes that primary price movements are based on Modern Portfolio Theory.
C. It is a method that is presumed to identify the top of a bull market and the bottom of a bear market.
The Dow Theory contradicts Modern Portfolio Theory and the EMH. It is based on trends, not day to day fluctuations.
In what way is a financial ratio considered to be the most useful?
A. A single ratio across different industries over time
B. A single ratio within the same industry over time
C. Several ratios across different industries over time
D. Several ratios with the same industry over time
D. Several ratios with the same industry over time
To identify the most promising stock within a particular industry, several ratios within the same industry can be compared.
One ratio by itself means little (Answer B), but several ratios together may give a clear picture of the firm’s strengths and weaknesses.
Then they may be compared at a given time for several firms within the same industry.
Which of the following is true about the arbitrage pricing theory?
A. Security movements are explained by a relationship between risk and return.
B. The expected value of each factor is zero.
C. Pricing of securities in different markets can differ for significant lengths of time.
D. Unexpected changes in inflation and anticipated shifts in risk premium will influence security prices.
B. The expected value of each factor is zero.
APT argues that unanticipated shifts in risk premium will influence security prices. Answer D says anticipated shifts. This is incorrect for APT.
When a factor is zero, the factor has no impact on the return because it is expected or anticipated.
Binomial option pricing is a __________________ model
A. pricing
B. valuation
C. volatility
D. variability
B. valuation
Like the Black-Scholes model, binominal options pricing is a valuation model.
Prices are established through the action of buyers and sellers; investors and analysts use valuation models to estimate what those prices should be.
When John dies, he wants his wife to have annual income of $36,000 that will increase with inflation (4%). She can realize an after-tax return of 7%. Using a capital retention calculation, how much insurance he should purchase to cover her needs?
A. $514,285
B. $852,000
C. $1,200,000
D. $1,236, 000
E. $1, 248,007
Answer: D
This is not a time value question because there is no third variable - time.
- 7% - 4% = 3%
- $36,000 / .03 - $1,200,000
- Plus beginning of year 1 money +$36,000
Total $ 1,236,000
New clients walk into your office. They have a baby. They have done no planning.
They own limited assets, carry a reasonable amount of credit card debt, and a fair amount of college debt. They are confused and seeking your help. What should they do first?
A. Buy medical insurance.
B. Buy a lot of term life insurance.
C. Establish a 6 month emergency fund.
D. Consult an attorney to establish a guardianship because they are not married.
E. Establish a Coverdell ESA for grade school.
A. Buy medical insurance.
Answer A addresses the most serious and immediate concern. Nothing says that they are married.
What are the obligations of an agent to the principal?
I. Loyalty
II. Accuracy
III. Full disclosure
IV. Honesty
A. All of the above
B. ІІ, III
C. III, IV
D. IV
A. All of the above
All the answers are correct, even loyalty. For example, a company (the principal) may forbid an agent to write a certain type of coverage. However, if the agent wrote that kind of coverage for a friend, the company would be liable for any loss that occurred.
Ted and Hallie Fisher have been your clients for 25 years. They recently told you that due to medical problems they both have to move into an assisted living facility. They have about $500,000+ in their investment account. Most of that came from to the sale of their home two years ago. Their Social Security retirement payments total about $1,500 a month due to taking benefits at age 62. What should you recommend they do?
A. Determine how much the assisted living facility will cost.
B. See an elder care attorney.
C. Execute a living will.
D. Name a family member who can handle their financial affairs.
E. Reposition their account for more liquidity and income.
B. See an elder care attorney.
The Fishers need expert legal advice before making decisions about assisted living and other matters.
A company owns whole life policies on key employees. The company is considering borrowing the cash value of the policies for business reasons. The company must to pay the interest on the loans. Is the interest an eligible business deduction?
A. No, after 1986, life insurance interest isn’t deductible.
B. No, it is not a normal business expense.
C. Yes, but it is limited to a $50,000 loan on each policy.
C. Yes, but it is limited to a $50,000 loan on each policy.
A business may deduct a limited amount of interest paid on contracts covering a “key person” to the extent that each loan doesn’t exceed $50,000.
Phillip was V. P. of sales with Glamour, Inc. Glamour owned an endorsement method split-dollar policy on his life. He decided to buy the policy from Glamour and transfer it to a new company that he was starting with two other people (33% each). If Phillip dies suddenly, will the death benefit be included in his estate?
A. No, this is what “transfer for value” avoids.
В. No, Dan gifted the policy to the new corporation (not a sale).
C. Yes, if he dies within three years of the transfer.
D. No, it will only be included if he changed the beneficiary.
C. Yes, if he dies within three years of the transfer.
At the time of the transfer, Phillip had an incident of ownership (right to name the beneficiary). The three-year inclusion rule is in effect. Answer A is true, but Phillip buying his policy doesn’t trigger a “transfer for value”.
Which type of employer group coverage is not tax deductible by the employer?
A. Group life
B. Group legal
C. Code section 125
D. Group disability
C. Code section 125
Flexible spending accounts (Section 125) are funded solely by the employee. The other plans are normally paid for by the employer (tax deductible). Code Section 125 is not group coverage, it is a cafeteria plan.
What type of company is most likely to use stop-loss coverage to partially self-insure its employee medical insurance program?
A. Large companies
B. Medium-to-large companies
C. Companies with as few as 100 employees
D. Not-for-profit associations
C. Companies with as few as 100 employees
For example, a relatively small company could self-insure employee claims to $250,000 per claim.
Claims above $250,000 in aggregate would then be paid by an insurance company.
Claims under $250,000 in aggregate would be financed by the employee, employer contributions, and potentially reduced health insurance premium costs.
Which of the following is not a source of information generally used during the underwriting process?
A. Information from the broker
B. Cost-benefit analysis
C. Physical examinations
D. Investigations
B. Cost-benefit analysis
The applicant, rather than the underwriter, would perform cost-benefit analysis. The other answers are correct.
Bill Yates was involved in a not-at-fault auto accident. He was hurt, and his car was damaged. A hit-and-run vehicle left the scene of the accident before Bill could get the driver’s name or license number.
Under which parts of his auto policy (he has A, B, C, and D coverage) can he collect?
I. Bodily injury/property damage
II. Medical payments
III. Uninsured motorist
IV. Collision
V. Other than collision
A. I, II, III
B. II, III, IV
C. II, V
D. III, IV
E. IV
B. II, III, IV
Medical payments and collision coverages apply. Answer III protects him when he gets sued, but Bill was not at fault. Bill must file a claim against his own insurer to collect under the uninsured motorist provision. Basically, he sues himself. This presumes the hit-and-run driver cannot be identified. Item I is incorrect because Coverage A would apply if Bill were at fault and if the other party were injured or his/her property were damaged.
Which of the following statements about umbrella liability insurance policy coverage are true?
I. It provides excess coverage when the limits of the insured’s basic liability coverage are adequate.
II. It provides excess coverage when the limits of the insured’s basic liability coverage are inadequate.
III. It provides broader coverage than basic underlying policies.
A. I, II, III
B. I, III
C. II, III
D. I, II
A. I, II, III
The material shows that the umbrella even provides benefits when the client has inadequate coverage. The insured is responsible for gaps in coverage. For the CFP Board Certification Examination, the client should have umbrella liability coverage.
Which of the following employer paid insurance premiums or costs are tax-deductible?
I. Business owner’s insurance
II. Key employee life insurance
III. Workers’ compensation insurance
IV. Federal unemployment tax
V. Directors and officer’s liability insurance
A. I, III, IV, V
B. I, II, III
C. II, IV
D. III, IV, V
E. III, V
A. I, III, IV, V
Premiums for I, III, IV, and V are business deductions. Unemployment benefits are taxable income. Answer Il is not tax-deductible. Federal unemployment tax is FUTA and is deductible.